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RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 19 February 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 29 GK / GS questions asked in RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 on 19 February 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Biology, Physics, Chemistry.

📚 29 questions🗓️ 19 February 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Biology (10) · Physics (10) · Chemistry (9)

Biology (10)

Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q1. A farming community wants to maximize crop yield despite limited increase in cultivable land. Which set of practices should they prioritize to achieve this goal?

  1. (a) Crop variety improvement, crop production improvement, and crop protection management.
  2. (b) Crop variety improvement and crop production improvement only.
  3. (c) Solely expanding the use of traditional farming methods.
  4. (d) Farming without introducing modern technology or high-yielding varieties.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Crop variety improvement, crop production improvement, and crop protection management.

To maximise crop yield with limited land, improving the quality of seeds and plants is essential.
Crop variety improvement means introducing high-yield, disease-resistant varieties.
Crop production improvement involves better farming techniques like soil management and irrigation.
Crop protection management prevents loss due to pests and diseases, ensuring better harvest.
Expanding land or solely relying on traditional methods will not efficiently increase yield.
Avoiding modern technology or high-yield varieties limits growth potential.
Therefore, a combined approach of all three practices is the best strategy for maximising yield.
Final answer: Option 1
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Characteristics of living organisms and life processes

Q2. A scientist is designing an artificial multi-cellular organism. What must they include to ensure all cells receive nutrients and remove wastes effectively?

  1. (a) Only specialised tissues for nutrition
  2. (b) Direct contact of every cell with the environment
  3. (c) A transportation system for food, oxygen, and waste
  4. (d) Simple diffusion through the entire surface
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A transportation system for food, oxygen, and waste

Correct option is 3.
Multicellular organisms need a system to transport nutrients, oxygen, and waste efficiently.
This is because not all cells can be in direct contact with the environment.
Specialised tissues alone cannot ensure complete transport.
Simple diffusion is not effective for large, complex organisms.
Therefore, a transportation system like blood vessels or vascular tissues is necessary.
This system ensures all cells receive what they need and wastes are removed properly.
Hence, a transportation system for food, oxygen, and waste must be included.
Final answer: Option 3
Tissues · Classification of tissues (overview)

Q3. Animal tissues differ from plant tissues because animal tissues:

  1. (a) Show unlimited growth
  2. (b) Possess rigid cell walls
  3. (c) Are mostly living and flexible
  4. (d) Lack specialized functions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Are mostly living and flexible

Animal tissues differ from plant tissues because animal cells lack rigid cell walls, making their tissues mostly living and flexible.
Plant tissues usually have rigid cell walls made of cellulose.
Animal tissues also show specialised functions unlike the claim in option 4.
Therefore, the correct characteristic is that animal tissues are mostly living and flexible.
Final answer: Option 3
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Apiculture and sericulture

Q4. Bee-keeping is suitable as an additional income because it:

  1. (a) Uses chemical fertilisers
  2. (b) Depends on irrigation
  3. (c) Needs large land area
  4. (d) Requires low investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Requires low investment

Option 4 is correct.
Bee-keeping requires low investment compared to other agricultural activities.
It does not need large land area or extensive irrigation.
Chemical fertilisers are not used in bee-keeping.
Hence, it is suitable as an additional income source due to its low capital requirement.
Final answer: Option 4
Cell - Structure and Function · Plastids

Q5. In which of the following organisms are chromoplasts present?

  1. (a) Rose
  2. (b) Hydra
  3. (c) Amoeba
  4. (d) Star fish
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rose

Chromoplasts are plastids that contain pigments responsible for colours other than green in plants.
They are commonly found in fruits and flowers where they provide red, orange, or yellow colours.
Rose, being a flowering plant, contains chromoplasts in its petals, giving them colour.
Hydra, Amoeba, and Star fish are animals and do not contain chromoplasts, which are plant cell organelles.
Final answer: Option 1
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q6. Refer to the two statements given below and choose the CORRECT option.
Statement A: Mixed cropping helps reduce the risk of total crop failure under adverse environmental conditions.
Statement B: In mixed cropping, different crops are grown in a definite row arrangement to minimise competition.

  1. (a) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
  2. (b) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
  3. (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
  4. (d) Both statements A and B are correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

Statement A is correct: Mixed cropping reduces the risk of total crop failure because multiple crops are grown together, so if one fails, others may survive.
Statement B is incorrect: Mixed cropping involves growing different crops in the same field without a specific row arrangement, unlike intercropping which uses defined rows to minimise competition.
Hence, only Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect.
Final answer: Option 3
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q7. Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Burning plastic waste is a safe method of disposal.
Reason (R): Burning plastic releases toxic gases harmful to humans and the environment.

  1. (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason correctly explains the assertion
  2. (b) Assertion is true, reason is false
  3. (c) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason does not correctly explain the assertion
  4. (d) Assertion is false, reason is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Assertion is false, reason is true

Option 4 is correct.
Burning plastic waste is not a safe method of disposal.
This is because burning plastic releases toxic gases.
These gases are harmful to humans and the environment.
Hence, the assertion is false but the reason is true.
Therefore, the correct choice is Option 4.
Final answer: Option 4
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Heart - structure and functioning

Q8. Which observation best supports the statement that humans have double circulation of blood?

  1. (a) Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the heart
  2. (b) Blood flows only once through the heart in one complete cycle
  3. (c) Blood passes through the heart twice in one complete circulation
  4. (d) Right side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Blood passes through the heart twice in one complete circulation

Double circulation means blood passes through the heart two times in one complete cycle.
This separates oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, ensuring efficient oxygen transport.
Option 3 states 'Blood passes through the heart twice in one complete circulation', which exactly describes double circulation.
Therefore, option 3 best supports the statement about human double circulation of blood.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Excretory system - kidney and nephron

Q9. Which process is responsible for the removal of waste byproducts from the body in living organisms?

  1. (a) Excretion
  2. (b) Nutrition
  3. (c) Transportation
  4. (d) Respiration
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Excretion

The process that removes waste byproducts from the body is called excretion.
Excretion eliminates harmful substances like urea, carbon dioxide, and excess salts.
This process helps maintain internal chemical balance and homeostasis in living organisms.
Nutrition is related to intake and utilisation of food, not waste removal.
Transportation involves movement of substances internally, not elimination.
Respiration is the process of producing energy by exchanging gases, not directly responsible for waste removal.
Hence, the correct answer is Excretion.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Food production and storage

Q10. Why is it important to dry agricultural produce first in sunlight and then in shade before storage?

  1. (a) To increase the size and brightness of the grains.
  2. (b) To make the grains easier to pack and prevent growth of weeds.
  3. (c) To improve the color and taste of the produce.
  4. (d) To reduce moisture content and prevent growth of pests and fungi.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To reduce moisture content and prevent growth of pests and fungi.

Correct answer: Option 4
Drying agricultural produce first in sunlight helps to reduce moisture content rapidly.
Sunlight also helps kill many pests and fungi on the surface.
After initial sun drying, drying in shade prevents damage from too much heat and preserves quality.
Reducing moisture content is crucial to prevent growth of pests and fungi during storage.
This process ensures longer shelf life and better preservation of produce.
Hence, drying first in sunlight then in shade is important to reduce moisture and prevent pest/fungi growth.
End of answer.

Physics (10)

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Defects of vision and their correction

Q11. A person with both myopia and hypermetropia is most likely to use which type of lens?

  1. (a) Convex lens
  2. (b) Concave lens
  3. (c) Cylindrical lens
  4. (d) Bi-focal lens
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bi-focal lens

A person with myopia (nearsightedness) needs a concave lens to correct vision.
A person with hypermetropia (farsightedness) needs a convex lens to correct vision.
Having both conditions means the person needs correction for both near and far vision.
A bi-focal lens combines both concave and convex lenses to correct these simultaneously.
Hence, the person most likely uses bi-focal lenses for clear vision at all distances.
Final answer: Option 4
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Concave mirror - image formation and uses

Q12. A solar cooker uses a mirror to concentrate sunlight onto a vessel. Which type of mirror is used and what property makes it suitable?

  1. (a) A convex mirror because it provides a wide field of view
  2. (b) A plane mirror because it reflects light uniformly
  3. (c) A convex mirror because it spreads light over a large area
  4. (d) A concave mirror because it focuses parallel sunlight to a single point
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A concave mirror because it focuses parallel sunlight to a single point

The solar cooker uses a mirror to concentrate sunlight onto the vessel.
A concave mirror is used because it can focus parallel rays of sunlight to a single point.
This focusing property increases the heat at the focal point, making it suitable for cooking.
Convex mirrors diverge light and are used for wide field of view, not concentration.
Plane mirrors reflect light uniformly but do not focus it.
Hence, the suitable mirror is a concave mirror due to its focusing ability.
Final answer: Option 4
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q13. A student claims that the force exerted by the Earth on the Moon is much stronger than the force exerted by the Moon on the Earth. Based on Newton's third law and the Universal Law of Gravitation, is this claim correct?

  1. (a) No, Earth exerts a much smaller force on the Moon
  2. (b) No, the Moon exerts a stronger force because it is closer to Earth
  3. (c) No, both forces are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction
  4. (d) Yes, because Earth is more massive, it exerts more force
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) No, both forces are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction

According to Newton's third law, forces between two bodies are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
The Universal Law of Gravitation states that the force between two masses is mutual and equal.
Thus, the force exerted by the Earth on the Moon and that exerted by the Moon on the Earth are equal in magnitude.
The claim that the Earth exerts a much stronger force is incorrect.
Both forces are equal and opposite as per physical laws.
Final answer: Option 3
Work, Energy and Power · Work and its sign

Q14. A student drags a suitcase on a flat airport floor. If the force applied and the distance moved both double, how does the work done change?

  1. (a) Work done halves.
  2. (b) Work done remains unchanged.
  3. (c) Work done becomes four times greater.
  4. (d) Work done doubles.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Work done becomes four times greater.

Work done is calculated by the formula: Work = Force × Distance.
If both force and distance are doubled, the work done becomes:
Work_new = 2 × Force × 2 × Distance = 4 × (Force × Distance).
Thus, the work done becomes four times the original amount.
Final answer: Option 3
Force and Laws of Motion · Numericals on force and momentum

Q15. An object of mass 3 kg initially at rest is subjected to a constant force of 9 N for 2 seconds. What will be its final velocity?

  1. (a) 6 m/s
  2. (b) 9 m/s
  3. (c) 18 m/s
  4. (d) 3 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 6 m/s

Force (F) = 9 N
Mass (m) = 3 kg
Time (t) = 2 s
Initial velocity (u) = 0 (object initially at rest)
Acceleration (a) = (Force)/(Mass) = (9)/(3) = 3m/s^(2)
Final velocity (v) = u + at = 0 + 3 × 2 = 6m/s
Final answer: Option 1
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's second law and momentum

Q16. If a constant force acts on two objects of different masses, which statement best describes their acceleration according to the second law of motion?

  1. (a) The object with greater mass will have greater acceleration.
  2. (b) Acceleration does not depend on mass.
  3. (c) The object with smaller mass will have greater acceleration.
  4. (d) Both objects will have the same acceleration.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The object with smaller mass will have greater acceleration.

According to Newton's second law of motion, Force = mass × acceleration (F = m × a).
For the same constant force, acceleration = Force / mass.
Therefore, the object with smaller mass will have greater acceleration because acceleration is inversely proportional to mass when force is constant.
Hence, option 3 is correct.
Final answer: Option 3
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q17. If two cars start at the same point and move along a straight road, Car X at a constant speed of 40 km/h and Car Y at a constant speed of 60 km/h, which statement correctly compares their motions after 2 hours?

  1. (a) Car Y will be 20 km ahead of Car X after 2 hours.
  2. (b) Both cars will have traveled the same distance after 2 hours.
  3. (c) Car X will be 40 km ahead of Car Y after 2 hours.
  4. (d) Car Y will be 40 km ahead of Car X after 2 hours.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Car Y will be 40 km ahead of Car X after 2 hours.

Solution:
Distance = Speed × Time
Car X:
40 × 2 =80 km
Car Y:
60 × 2 =120 km
Difference =
120 − 80 =40 km
SoCar Y is 40 km ahead of Car X.
Answer: Car Y will be 40 km ahead of Car X after 2 hours.
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q18. In the context of uniform circular motion, which of the following examples from everyday life best illustrates this concept?

  1. (a) A car moving with changing speed along a circular track
  2. (b) A person walking randomly in a park
  3. (c) A satellite revolving around the Earth at a fixed speed in a circular orbit
  4. (d) A pendulum bob swinging to and fro
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A satellite revolving around the Earth at a fixed speed in a circular orbit

The concept of uniform circular motion refers to an object moving in a circle at a constant speed.
Option 1 is incorrect because the car's speed is changing, so the motion is not uniform.
Option 2 describes random walking, not circular motion.
Option 3 correctly describes a satellite moving at a constant speed along a circular orbit around the Earth, which is uniform circular motion.
Option 4 describes a pendulum, which moves in a back-and-forth arc, not a full circular path at constant speed.
Hence, option 3 best illustrates uniform circular motion.
Final answer: Option 3
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Convex mirror - image formation and uses

Q19. When an object is placed at infinity in front of a convex mirror, what is the nature of the image formed?

  1. (a) Real and inverted
  2. (b) Real and erect
  3. (c) Virtual and inverted
  4. (d) Virtual and erect
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Virtual and erect

The image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual and erect.
When the object is placed at infinity, the image forms at the focal point of the mirror.
This image is diminished in size but remains virtual and upright (erect).
Hence, the correct nature of the image is virtual and erect.
Final answer: Option 4
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q20. Which of the following arrangements produces a nearly uniform magnetic field in the central region of a circular current-carrying system under steady conditions?

  1. (a) Arranging loops in random orientations
  2. (b) Allowing current to vary with time in a single loop
  3. (c) Using multiple closely wound turns of identical radius with constant current
  4. (d) Using loops of varying radii
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Using multiple closely wound turns of identical radius with constant current

The most uniform magnetic field in the central region is produced when multiple loops are arranged.
Specifically, multiple closely wound turns of identical radius create nearly uniform magnetic fields by adding their effects.
Random orientations or varying radii distort the uniformity of the field.
Time-varying current in a single loop does not produce a steady uniform magnetic field.
Therefore, using multiple closely wound turns with constant current is the best choice for uniformity.
Final answer: Option 3

Chemistry (9)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q21. Bleaching powder is commonly used:

  1. (a) As a fuel
  2. (b) To disinfect water
  3. (c) To make soap
  4. (d) As a sweetener
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To disinfect water

Bleaching powder is widely used to disinfect water.
It helps kill bacteria and other pathogens making water safe for drinking.
This property is due to the presence of chlorine in bleaching powder.
Other options like fuel, soap making, or sweeteners are incorrect use cases for bleaching powder.
Final answer: Option 2
Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q22. Equal pieces of zinc and copper are added separately to dilute sulphuric acid. Which observation is CORRECT?

  1. (a) Both metals evolve hydrogen gas
  2. (b) Only zinc evolves hydrogen gas
  3. (c) Neither metal evolves hydrogen gas
  4. (d) Only copper evolves hydrogen gas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only zinc evolves hydrogen gas

Zinc is a reactive metal and reacts with dilute sulphuric acid.
This reaction produces hydrogen gas along with zinc sulphate.
Copper is less reactive and does not react with dilute sulphuric acid to evolve hydrogen.
Therefore, only zinc evolves hydrogen gas in this reaction.
Final answer: Option 2
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Ions and radicals

Q23. If an atom loses two electrons, which of the following changes will occur?

  1. (a) The atomic number will increase by 2.
  2. (b) The atomic number will decrease by 2.
  3. (c) The atom will become a cation with +2 charge.
  4. (d) The neutron number will decrease by 2.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The atom will become a cation with +2 charge.

When an atom loses electrons, the atomic number does not change because it is the number of protons that defines it.
Losing two electrons makes the atom positively charged by +2, forming a cation with a +2 charge.
Neutrons are unaffected by loss of electrons.
Therefore, the correct change is that the atom becomes a cation with +2 charge.
Final answer: Option 3
Carbon and its Compounds · Allotropes of carbon

Q24. In graphite, a carbon atom is attached with:

  1. (a) One other carbon atom
  2. (b) Three other carbon atoms
  3. (c) Four other carbon atoms
  4. (d) Two other carbon atoms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Three other carbon atoms

In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms.
This forms layers of hexagonal rings.
These layers slide over each other, making graphite soft and a good lubricant.
Option 2 is correct as the carbon atom is attached to three other carbon atoms in graphite.
Final answer: Option 2
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q25. Which calculation correctly gives the molecular mass of nitric acid (HNO₃)?

  1. (a) 1 + 14 + 48
  2. (b) 1 + 14 + 16
  3. (c) 1 + 14 + 3
  4. (d) 2 + 14 + 48
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 + 14 + 48

The molecular formula of nitric acid is HNO₃.
Atomic masses: H = 1, N = 14, O = 16.
Molecular mass = mass of H + mass of N + 3 × mass of O
= 1 + 14 + 3×16
= 1 + 14 + 48 = 63
Option 1 correctly sums the masses as 1 + 14 + 48.
Thus, the correct molecular mass calculation is Option 1.
Final answer: Option 1
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Corrosion and rancidity

Q26. Which method helps prevent rancidity?

  1. (a) Exposing food to sunlight
  2. (b) Storing food in airtight containers
  3. (c) Heating food continuously
  4. (d) Adding excess water
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Storing food in airtight containers

Rancidity is the process where fats and oils decompose, causing unpleasant smell and taste.
To prevent rancidity, oxygen must be restricted as it reacts with fats to cause spoilage.
Storing food in airtight containers limits exposure to oxygen and moisture, thus preventing rancidity efficiently.
Other methods like exposing food to sunlight or continuous heating can accelerate spoilage, not prevent it.
Adding excess water does not prevent rancidity and may promote microbial growth.
Therefore, the best method is storing food in airtight containers.
Final answer: Option 2
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q27. Which of the following statements about Plaster of Paris (POP) is CORRECT?

  1. (a) POP is CaSO4·½H₂O and hardens by reacting with water
  2. (b) POP is CaSO4·½H₂O and sets slowly without water
  3. (c) POP is CaSO4·2H2O and sets quickly on mixing with water
  4. (d) POP is CaSO4·2H2O and is mainly used as a fertilizer
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) POP is CaSO4·½H₂O and hardens by reacting with water

Plaster of Paris (POP) is chemically calcium sulfate hemihydrate, CaSO4·½H2O.
POP sets and hardens when mixed with water; it chemically reacts to form gypsum (CaSO4·2H2O).
Option 1 states that POP is CaSO4·½H2O and hardens by reacting with water, which is correct.
Options 2, 3, and 4 contain incorrect chemical formulas or applications.
Hence, the correct statement about POP is option 1.
Final answer: Option 1
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Ions and radicals

Q28. Which statement correctly describes an ion?

  1. (a) A molecule containing similar atoms only
  2. (b) A compound formed by covalent bonds
  3. (c) A charged atom or group of atoms
  4. (d) A neutral atom formed by chemical bonding
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A charged atom or group of atoms

Option 3 is correct.
An ion is an atom or group of atoms that carries an electric charge due to loss or gain of electrons.
This makes it charged, unlike neutral atoms or molecules.
Options 1, 2, and 4 describe molecules or compounds, not ions.
Hence, a charged atom or group of atoms correctly defines an ion.
Answer completed.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q29. Which substance has a molecular mass of 44 u?

  1. (a) Carbon dioxide
  2. (b) Methane
  3. (c) Carbon monoxide
  4. (d) Ammonia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide (CO2) has a molecular mass of 44 u.
Calculate molecular mass: C = 12 u, O = 16 u each.
So, 12 + 16 × 2 = 44 u.
Hence, carbon dioxide matches the molecular mass 44 u.
Final answer: Option 1
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