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Biotechnology and Applied Biology PYQs – Biology, SSC & Railway

69 Biotechnology and Applied Biology (Biology) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 69 questionsSSC 18 · Railway 51
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 12 September 2026 Shift 2 · DNA fingerprinting

Q1. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the principle, application, and limitations of DNA barcoding in biodiversity assessment and species identification?

  1. (a) DNA barcoding uses the full genome of an organism to identify species with 100% accuracy, making it a superior method to all traditional taxonomic techniques for both plants and animals.
  2. (b) DNA barcoding relies on sequencing a short, standardized region of the genome—such as the COI gene in animals or rbcL/matK in plants—to identify and classify species, but its effectiveness may be limited by lack of reference databases and low resolution in closely related species
  3. (c) DNA barcoding is limited only to microbial species and uses protein-coding genes to distinguish between strains, and thus has little relevance in conservation biology or forest management.
  4. (d) DNA barcoding eliminates the need for morphological or ecological data and is currently used as the sole identification tool in all global biodiversity conventions and trade regulations.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) DNA barcoding relies on sequencing a short, standardized region of the genome—such as the COI gene in animals or rbcL/matK in plants—to identify and classify species, but its effectiveness may be limited by lack of reference databases and low resolution in closely related species

Answer: Option 2 — DNA barcoding relies on sequencing a short, standardized region of the genome … but its effectiveness may be limited …
A DNA barcode is a short, standard gene fragment, not the whole genome, matched against a reference library to name the species.
It is a complement to classical taxonomy, and it fails where the library is incomplete or where two species diverged too recently to differ in that fragment.
Revision note — DNA barcoding
• Proposed by Paul Hebert of the University of Guelph, Canada, in 2003; the idea is that one short sequence can identify a species the way a supermarket barcode identifies a product.
• Animals: about 650 base pairs of the mitochondrial gene COI (cytochrome c oxidase subunit I).
• Plants: the chloroplast genes rbcL and matK. Fungi: the nuclear ITS (internal transcribed spacer) region.
• Reference sequences are stored in BOLD (Barcode of Life Data System) and GenBank; an unknown sample is sequenced, compared and assigned to the closest match.
• Uses: wildlife forensics (seized ivory, shark fins, timber), food fraud (mislabelled fish), quarantine pests, and environmental DNA (eDNA) surveys of rivers and soils.
• Limits: incomplete reference databases, low resolution among closely related or recently diverged species, hybrids, and mitochondrial DNA being inherited only from the mother.
• In India the Zoological Survey of India (1916) and the Botanical Survey of India (1890) build the barcode libraries.
• The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 set up the National Biodiversity Authority at Chennai.
Do not mix these up
• DNA barcoding vs DNA fingerprinting — barcoding identifies a species from a standard gene; fingerprinting (Alec Jeffreys, 1984) tells apart individuals of one species, as in paternity and crime cases.
• Barcoding vs whole-genome sequencing — a barcode reads one short fragment; genome sequencing reads all the DNA and is far costlier.
Also asked from this topic: the main objective of the Genome India Project (to map the genetic diversity of Indians); what a gene is (a section of DNA that codes for a protein).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · Tissue culture

Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describes the principle and practical applications of plant tissue culture, along with its associated limitations?

  1. (a) Tissue culture involves the genetic modification of plants through direct DNA insertion in soil, primarily used for creating genetically modified crops resistant to pests.
  2. (b) Tissue culture is a technique of growing plant cells, tissues, or organs aseptically on a nutrient medium under controlled environmental conditions, widely used for rapid clonal propagation, but is limited by the risk of somaclonal variation and contamination.
  3. (c) Tissue culture exclusively involves the use of mature seeds to generate new plants and is primarily employed in traditional breeding programs.
  4. (d) Tissue culture requires open-air conditions and is mostly used for studying plant ecology and natural habitat restoration without any commercial applications.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tissue culture is a technique of growing plant cells, tissues, or organs aseptically on a nutrient medium under controlled environmental conditions, widely used for rapid clonal propagation, but is limited by the risk of somaclonal variation and contamination.

Answer: Option 2 — Tissue culture is a technique of growing plant cells, tissues, or organs aseptically on a nutrient medium under controlled environmental conditions
The definition is exact: an explant is grown aseptically on a nutrient medium in a controlled environment, giving rapid clonal propagation.
The two limits named — somaclonal variation and contamination — are the standard ones, which is why this option is complete and the others are not.
Revision note — Plant tissue culture
• The whole technique rests on totipotency, the power of a single plant cell to regenerate a complete plant, proposed by Gottlieb Haberlandt in 1902.
• A small piece of tissue called the explant is surface-sterilised and placed on a nutrient medium, most often Murashige and Skoog (MS) medium of minerals, vitamins, sucrose and agar.
• The first product is the callus, an unorganised mass of dividing cells. A higher auxin-to-cytokinin ratio gives roots; a higher cytokinin ratio gives shoots.
• Micropropagation raises thousands of genetically identical plants, or clones, from one parent in a small space and all year round — used for banana, orchid, sugarcane, potato and ornamentals.
• Meristem culture, using the shoot tip, gives virus-free planting material, because the meristem is usually free of virus.
• Somatic hybridisation fuses protoplasts of two plants — the pomato was made from potato and tomato.
• Limits: microbial contamination, somaclonal variation in the regenerated plants, high cost and skilled labour, and no genetic variation, since every plant is a clone.
Do not mix these up
• Tissue culture vs genetic engineering — tissue culture only multiplies an existing genotype; genetic engineering inserts new DNA to make a transgenic plant.
• Micropropagation vs meristem culture — micropropagation is mass cloning for numbers; meristem culture is specifically for virus-free stock.
Also asked from this topic: the power of one plant cell to form a whole plant (totipotency); who proposed it in 1902 (Haberlandt); why grafting and tissue culture are preferred (they give identical plants).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 2 · Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA

Q3. Which of the following statements best explains the principle, advancements, and strategic implications of genome sequencing in the context of human health and national bioinformatics policy?

  1. (a) Genome sequencing refers to the artificial synthesis of DNA molecules in a laboratory using CRISPR-Cas9 tools to alter hereditary traits, and is mainly used for synthetic biology rather than studying genetic makeup.
  2. (b) Genome sequencing determines the complete order of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) in an organism's DNA, enabling identification of genetic variants associated with disease predisposition, and has catalyzed personalized medicine and national initiatives like India's "IndiGen" project.
  3. (c) Genome sequencing involves the quantification of gene expression levels in different tissues and does not require DNA samples, making it a non-invasive technique used exclusively for behavioral genetics.
  4. (d) Genome sequencing is primarily focused on identifying protein structures from RNA transcripts, and thus does not contribute to understanding hereditary diseases or pharmacogenomics.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Genome sequencing determines the complete order of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) in an organism's DNA, enabling identification of genetic variants associated with disease predisposition, and has catalyzed personalized medicine and national initiatives like India's "IndiGen" project.

Answer: Option 2 — Genome sequencing determines the complete order of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) in an organism's DNA
Sequencing simply reads the order of the four bases; it does not edit or synthesise DNA.
That read-out reveals the variants linked to disease, which is what makes personalised medicine and national programmes such as IndiGen possible.
Revision note — Genome sequencing in India and the world
• DNA has four nitrogenous bases — adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), cytosine (C) — pairing as A with T and G with C. RNA replaces thymine with uracil (U).
• The Human Genome Project ran from 1990 to 2003 and read about 3.2 billion base pairs; it opened the field of genomics and found roughly 20,000 to 25,000 human genes.
• IndiGen, a CSIR programme launched in 2019, sequenced 1,029 Indian genomes to build a baseline of Indian genetic variation.
• The Genome India Project of the Department of Biotechnology, approved in 2020, sequenced 10,000 Indian genomes; its data was released in January 2025.
• The classic method is Sanger (chain-termination) sequencing, developed by Frederick Sanger; modern work uses Next Generation Sequencing (NGS), which is far faster and cheaper.
• Pharmacogenomics matches a drug and its dose to a patient's genotype — the practical face of personalised medicine.
Do not mix these up
• Sequencing vs gene editing — sequencing only reads the DNA; CRISPR-Cas9 changes it (Nobel Prize in Chemistry, 2020).
• Genome sequencing vs gene expression study — sequencing needs a DNA sample and gives the base order; expression studies measure RNA levels.
• IndiGen vs Genome India Project — CSIR, 1,029 genomes against DBT, 10,000 genomes.
Also asked from this topic: the aim of the Genome India Project (to map Indian genetic diversity); the field human genome sequencing began (genomics); the number of human chromosomes (46).
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 21 August 2026 Shift 2 · Tissue culture

Q4. Cell culture refers to the process of growing cells __________.

  1. (a) only in soil
  2. (b) inside the body
  3. (c) outside the body
  4. (d) without nutrients
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) outside the body

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – outside the body
Explanation:
Cell culture is a laboratory technique in which cells are grown under controlled conditions, generally outside their natural (in vivo) environment, i.e., outside the body, in a suitable nutrient medium.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 19 August 2026 Shift 2 · Tissue culture

Q5. According to Haberlandt's proposal, the ability of a single mature plant cell to develop into a full-fledged plant is called _________.

  1. (a) Totipotency
  2. (b) Permeability
  3. (c) Contact inhibition
  4. (d) Turgidity
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Totipotency

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Totipotency
Explanation:
Gottlieb Haberlandt, considered the father of plant tissue culture, proposed in 1902 that a single mature (differentiated) plant cell retains the inherent capability to regenerate into a complete, fully functional plant under suitable conditions. This property is known astotipotency.
Important Facts:
• Totipotency is the foundational principle behind plant tissue culture and cloning techniques.
• Permeability, contact inhibition, and turgidity are unrelated cellular concepts.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 14 June 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q6. Which practice supports sustainable agriculture by maintaining soil health?

  1. (a) Excessive chemical fertilisers
  2. (b) Crop rotation
  3. (c) Deforestation
  4. (d) Monoculture farming
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Crop rotation

Topic: Sustainable Agriculture Practices
Crop Rotation- Growing different crops in sequence on same land.
Benefits for Soil Health:
• Prevents nutrient depletion
• Breaks pest and disease cycles
• Improves soil structure and fertility
• Reduces need for chemical fertilizers
Why others are wrong:
Excessive chemicals → Soil degradation
Deforestation → Soil erosion
Monoculture → Nutrient depletion
Answer: Option 2 → Crop rotation
SSC GD 2026 – 31 May 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q7. __________ protects crops from both frost and hot winds.

  1. (a) Water
  2. (b) Manure
  3. (c) Starch
  4. (d) Fertilizer
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Water

Correct Answer: Water (Option 1)
Water (irrigation) protects crops in two ways:
1. Protection from frost: When water is applied before a frost event, it releases latent heat as it freezes (ice formation releases 80 cal /g of heat), which keeps the temperature around the crops just above 0°C, preventing frost damage.
2. Protection from hot winds (Loo/heat stress): Irrigation increases soil moisture, enables evaporative cooling, and keeps the microclimate around crops cooler, reducing heat stress and desiccation damage caused by hot, dry winds.
Why others are wrong:
- Manure: Improves soil fertility; does not protect from frost or hot winds.
- Starch: Not used as a crop protection agent against frost or wind.
- Fertilizer: Provides nutrients; does not protect against extreme weather conditions.
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 1 · Food production and storage

Q8. Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor responsible for loss of grain in storage?
I. Inappropriate moisture
II. Rodents

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

Correct Answer: Only II — Option (b)
Only Statement II (Rodents) is a biotic factor responsible for grain storage loss. Understanding Biotic vs Abiotic factors in grain storage: Biotic factors (living organisms): These include insects, rodents, birds, fungi, bacteria, and weeds that cause grain loss; Examples: Weevils, beetles, moth larvae, rats, mice, birds; Rodents (Statement II): Rodents (rats, mice) are a BIOTIC factor — they are living organisms that consume and contaminate stored grain; They cause significant post-harvest losses globally; They spoil grain through direct consumption, urination, feces, and hair contamination; Abiotic factors (non-living): Temperature, moisture/humidity, oxygen levels, physical damage; Inappropriate moisture (Statement I): Moisture/humidity is an ABIOTIC factor — it is a non-living physical condition; High moisture promotes fungal growth (molds) and insect activity, but moisture itself is not a living (biotic) factor; Causes of grain storage loss in India: Biotic: Insects (weevils, beetles), rodents, birds, fungi, bacteria; Abiotic: Temperature, humidity, improper storage infrastructure; India loses approximately 10-15% of stored grain annually due to post-harvest losses; Programs: National Food Security Mission, Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana address such losses.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Inappropriate moisture (Statement I) is an ABIOTIC factor (non-living physical factor), NOT a biotic factor; the biotic factor is rodents (Statement II).
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Only rodents (Statement II) are biotic — inappropriate moisture (Statement I) is an abiotic (non-living) factor; therefore 'Both I and II' as biotic factors is incorrect. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Rodents (Statement II) ARE a biotic factor responsible for grain storage loss; 'Neither I nor II' is incorrect since Statement II identifies a genuine biotic cause of grain storage loss.
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 1 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q9. Which of the following statements is correct about poultry farming?
I. Poultry farming is done to raise domestic chickens.
II. Poultry production includes egg production and
broiler production for poultry meat.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both statements about poultry farming are correct. Statement I Analysis — 'Poultry farming is done to raise domestic chickens' (CORRECT): Poultry farming ( कुक्कुट पालन ) IS done primarily to raise domestic chickens (Gallus gallus domesticus ); The term 'poultry' broadly refers to domesticated birds raised for meat, eggs, or feathers — including chickens, ducks, turkeys, geese, quails, and pigeons; Domestic chickens (hens and roosters) are by far the most commonly raised poultry birds in India and globally; Statement II Analysis — 'Poultry production includes egg production and broiler production for poultry meat' (CORRECT): Poultry production has two main segments: Layer Birds (egg production): Female chickens (hens) specially bred for high egg production — called 'layers'; Broiler Birds (meat production): Chickens specially bred for rapid weight gain and meat yield — called 'broilers'; Broilers reach market weight (about 2 kg) in 6-7 weeks; Both segments together constitute India's poultry industry; India's poultry industry: India is the 3rd largest egg producer in the world; Major states: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu dominate; India has about 700+ million poultry birds; Annual egg production: ~130 billion eggs; Annual chicken meat production: ~4.5+ million tonnes .
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both statements are correct — Statement II (poultry production includes egg and broiler production) is also accurate and describes the two main segments of the poultry industry; selecting 'Only I' is incomplete. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually correct — Statement I (poultry farming raises domestic chickens) is also true; 'Only II' is incomplete.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually accurate about poultry farming; 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect.
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 3 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q10. Which of the following can cause various types of diseases in chickens?
I. Viruses
II. Bacteria

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both Viruses (I) and Bacteria (II) can cause various types of diseases in chickens (poultry). Diseases caused by Viruses in chickens (Statement I — CORRECT): Newcastle Disease: Caused by Avian Paramyxovirus (Newcastle Disease Virus); affects respiratory, nervous, and digestive systems; highly contagious; Avian Influenza (Bird Flu): Caused by Influenza A virus (H5N1, H7N9 subtypes); extremely dangerous, can be fatal; also a zoonotic disease (can spread to humans); Marek's Disease: Caused by Marek's Disease Virus (a herpesvirus); causes paralysis and tumors; Infectious Bronchitis: Caused by Infectious Bronchitis Virus (coronavirus family); affects respiratory tract; Infectious Bursal Disease ( Gumboro ): Caused by a birnavirus ; affects the bursa of Fabricius (immune organ); Fowl Pox: Caused by Avipoxvirus ; ✓ ; Diseases caused by Bacteria in chickens (Statement II — CORRECT): Fowl Cholera: Caused by Pasteurella multocida ; affects multiple organ systems; Salmonellosis: Caused by Salmonella species; pullorum disease, typhoid; Mycoplasmosis (CRD): Caused by Mycoplasma gallisepticum ; Colibacillosis: Caused by Escherichia coli (E. coli); Botulism: Caused by Clostridium botulinum; Both statements are correct ✓ .
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Not only viruses, but bacteria ALSO cause various diseases in chickens; bacterial infections like Fowl Cholera, Salmonellosis, and Mycoplasmosis are well-documented poultry diseases; 'Only I' is an incomplete answer.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Not only bacteria, but viruses ALSO cause many serious diseases in chickens such as Newcastle Disease, Avian Influenza (Bird Flu), and Marek's Disease; 'Only II' is an incomplete answer.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both viruses and bacteria are well-established causes of poultry diseases; 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect and contradicts basic veterinary and poultry science knowledge.
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 3 · Apiculture and sericulture

Q11. Which of the following bees is called the 'little bee' or 'dwarf honeybee'?

  1. (a) Apis cerana indica
  2. (b) Apis dorsata
  3. (c) Apis florea
  4. (d) Apis mellifera
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Apis florea

Correct Answer: Apis florea — Option (c)
Apis florea is commonly known as the 'dwarf honeybee' or 'little bee.' About Apis florea (Dwarf Honeybee): Scientific name: Apis florea; Common name: Dwarf honeybee or Red dwarf honeybee or Little bee; It is the SMALLEST of all honeybee species; Distribution: Found across South and Southeast Asia — India, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, China (Yunnan), Thailand, Malaysia, Iran, Oman; Nest: Builds single-comb, exposed nests on twigs of trees and shrubs; Honey production: Produces very small quantities of honey (typically less than 1 kg per colony per year) — much less than other commercial species; Not used for commercial beekeeping due to small honey yield and tendency to abscond (leave suddenly); Special features: Has a unique 'dorsal dance' (different from the waggle dance of other bees) to communicate food sources; The dorsal dance occurs on the flattened top surface of the single comb; Comparison of Honeybee species in India: Apis dorsata (Rock/Giant bee): Largest bee; builds single large exposed comb on cliffs/tall trees; aggressive; Apis cerana indica (Indian bee): Medium-sized; builds multiple combs in cavities; used for commercial honey production (Indian hives); Apis florea (Dwarf bee): Smallest; single small exposed comb; minimal honey yield; Apis mellifera (European/Italian bee): Introduced species; large colonies; high honey production; used in commercial beekeeping.
Option (a) Apis cerana indica — Incorrect: Apis cerana indica is the Indian honey bee — it is a medium-sized bee, NOT the 'little bee'; it is commonly used in traditional beekeeping in India and produces moderate amounts of honey; the 'little bee' or 'dwarf bee' is Apis florea.
Option (b) Apis dorsata — Incorrect: Apis dorsata is the Rock bee or Giant bee — it is the LARGEST honeybee species (opposite of 'little bee'); it builds large, single-comb nests on cliffs and tall trees; 'little bee' refers to Apis florea.
Option (d) Apis mellifera — Incorrect: Apis mellifera is the Western/European/Italian honeybee — it is a medium-to-large sized bee introduced to India for commercial beekeeping; it is NOT the 'little bee'; the dwarf honeybee is Apis florea.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q12. Which irrigation technique is considered most efficient for conserving water?

  1. (a) Canal irrigation
  2. (b) Sprinkler irrigation
  3. (c) Drip irrigation
  4. (d) Flood irrigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Drip irrigation

Topic: Irrigation Techniques - Water Efficiency
Drip Irrigation:Water delivered directly to plant roots through pipes/tubes.
Water efficiency:90-95%(minimal evaporation & wastage).
Comparison:
Sprinkler: 70-80% efficient (some evaporation loss).
Canal/Flood: 40-60% efficient (high seepage & evaporation).
Answer: Option 3 → Drip irrigation
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q13. Which irrigation method delivers water directly to roots using emitters for optimal moisture control and efficiency?

  1. (a) Flood
  2. (b) Overhead
  3. (c) Sprinkler
  4. (d) Drip
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Drip

Irrigation Methods Comparison:
Drip Irrigation:Water delivered directly to plant roots through emitters/drippers
Provides precise moisture control at root zone
Highest water efficiency (90-95%)
Minimizes evaporation and runoff losses
Other Methods:
Flood: Water spreads across entire field surface
Sprinkler/Overhead: Water sprayed from above like rainfall
Answer: Option 4 → Drip
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 22 March 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q14. Which type of irrigation in India involves delivering water drop by drop at the root zone of plants?

  1. (a) Drip irrigation
  2. (b) Surface irrigation
  3. (c) Sub-irrigation
  4. (d) Sprinkler irrigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Drip irrigation

Topic: Irrigation Methods in India
Drip Irrigation:Water delivered drop by drop directly at root zone through emitters/drippers.
Most water-efficient method (90-95% efficiency).
Reduces water wastage and prevents soil erosion.
Ideal for water-scarce regions and high-value crops.
Answer: Option 1 → Drip irrigation
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 2 · Crop improvement and hybridisation

Q15. Which crop variety, highlighted by the National Agri-food Biotechnology Institute (NABI), can withstand flash floods, showcasing climate-resilient biotechnology?

  1. (a) DRR Rice 100 (Kamla)
  2. (b) Pusa DST Rice 1
  3. (c) IR8 Rice
  4. (d) Swarna-Sub1 rice
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Swarna-Sub1 rice

Swarna-Sub1 riceis a flood-tolerant variety developed through biotechnology.
Key Features:
• Can survivesubmergence for 14-17 daysduring flash floods
• Developed by IRRI and introduced in India
• Highlighted byNABIfor climate resilience
• ContainsSub1 genethat enables flood tolerance
Other options are drought-tolerant or high-yield varieties, not specifically flood-resistant.
Answer: Option 4 → Swarna-Sub1 rice
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 10 March 2026 Shift 2 · Crop improvement and hybridisation

Q16. What is the main purpose of hybridisation in crop improvement programmes?

  1. (a) To combine desirable traits by crossing genetically dissimilar plants
  2. (b) To produce genetically identical plants through cloning
  3. (c) To increase the natural mutation rate in crop plants
  4. (d) To grow crops without using fertilizers or irrigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To combine desirable traits by crossing genetically dissimilar plants

The main purpose of hybridisation in crop improvement programmes is to combine desirable traits.
It involves crossing genetically dissimilar plants to produce offspring with improved qualities.
This method enhances yield, disease resistance, and stress tolerance by mixing genes.
Hence, hybridisation aims at obtaining better crop varieties by genetic combination.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 10 March 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q17. Which cropping pattern maintains soil fertility through planned crop succession?

  1. (a) Mixed cropping
  2. (b) Monocropping
  3. (c) Relay cropping
  4. (d) Crop rotation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Crop rotation

Crop rotation is an agricultural practice where different types of crops are planted in the same area in sequential seasons.
This planned succession helps maintain and improve soil fertility by balancing nutrient usage and reducing depletion.
Other options like mixed cropping, monocropping, and relay cropping do not specifically focus on maintaining soil fertility through planned succession.
Therefore, the correct answer is Crop rotation.
End of solution.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 10 March 2026 Shift 1 · Food production and storage

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a factor responsible for grain storage losses?

  1. (a) Inadequate moisture and temperature
  2. (b) Rodents
  3. (c) Fungi and bacteria
  4. (d) High-quality packaging
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) High-quality packaging

Option 4, High-quality packaging, is NOT responsible for grain storage losses.
Inadequate moisture and temperature (Option 1) cause spoilage and loss.
Rodents (Option 2) damage stored grains by eating and contaminating them.
Fungi and bacteria (Option 3) cause decay through mould and rot.
High-quality packaging prevents losses, hence it is not a factor causing them.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 10 March 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q19. Why is regular and controlled irrigation important for crop production?

  1. (a) It increases soil salinity and prevents root growth.
  2. (b) It ensures optimal water supply at critical growth stages.
  3. (c) It reduces fertilizer use by supplying nutrients through water.
  4. (d) It makes plants dependent on artificial watering.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It ensures optimal water supply at critical growth stages.

Regular and controlled irrigation ensures water availability at the critical growth stages of crops.
This helps in optimal crop growth and yield by preventing water stress.
Hence, it is crucial for effective crop production.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 3 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q20. Crossbreeding in cattle is done to achieve ______.

  1. (a) Excessive draught power
  2. (b) Reduced milk production
  3. (c) Only higher milk fat content
  4. (d) Longer lactation and disease resistance
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Longer lactation and disease resistance

Correct option is 4.
Crossbreeding in cattle is practised to combine desirable traits from different breeds.
It helps achieve longer lactation periods and resistance to diseases.
This improves overall productivity and health of the cattle.
Options 1, 2, and 3 do not accurately represent the main goals of crossbreeding.
Hence option 4 is the best answer.
This is useful knowledge for competitive exams.
Answer closed. Please remember: crossbreeding aims at improving lactation and disease resistance.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 1 · Apiculture and sericulture

Q21. The quality and taste of honey mainly depends on which of the following factors?

  1. (a) Type and availability of flowers
  2. (b) Type of beehive
  3. (c) Number of worker bees in the colony
  4. (d) Age of the bees
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Type and availability of flowers

The quality and taste of honey primarily depend on the floral source.
Different types and availability of flowers determine the nectar collected by bees.
This nectar influences the flavour, colour, and aroma of honey produced.
Therefore, type and availability of flowers are the main factors affecting honey quality and taste.
Other options like beehive type, number of worker bees, or bees' age have minor or indirect effects.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 3 · Food production and storage

Q22. What are the two main categories of factors responsible for storage losses in agricultural produce?

  1. (a) Biotic and Abiotic
  2. (b) Chemical and Electrical
  3. (c) Mechanical and Thermal
  4. (d) Harvesting and Processing
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biotic and Abiotic

The two main categories of factors responsible for storage losses in agricultural produce are biotic and abiotic factors.
Biotic factors involve living organisms such as insects, rodents, and microorganisms causing damage.
Abiotic factors include environmental conditions like temperature, humidity, and moisture affecting storage.
Thus, both living and non-living factors contribute to losses during storage.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 1, Biotic and Abiotic.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 1 · Apiculture and sericulture

Q23. What factor primarily influences the quality and quantity of honey produced in bee farming?

  1. (a) The colour of the bees
  2. (b) The size of the beehive used only
  3. (c) The temperature inside the beehive alone
  4. (d) Flower types and their abundance for nectar gathering
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Flower types and their abundance for nectar gathering

Option 4 is correct.
The quality and quantity of honey primarily depend on the types of flowers and their abundance because bees collect nectar from these flowers.
Different flowers provide different nectar which affects taste and amount of honey.
Bee hive temperature, size, or colour of bees have less impact compared to flower availability.
Hence, flower types and their abundance are the key factors in honey production.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q24. What is the main purpose of balanced nutrient management in crops?

  1. (a) To optimize soil fertility and crop yield
  2. (b) To maximize pesticide use
  3. (c) To promote weed growth
  4. (d) To eliminate water requirements
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To optimize soil fertility and crop yield

The main purpose of balanced nutrient management is to supply all essential nutrients in the right amount.
It helps optimise both soil fertility and crop yield.
This ensures better growth, improved quality, and sustainable farming.
Hence, the correct answer is to optimise soil fertility and crop yield.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q25. Which of the following practices directly contributes to crop yield improvement?

  1. (a) Timely irrigation and fertilization
  2. (b) Ignoring pest signs
  3. (c) Planting the same crop year after year
  4. (d) Delayed harvest
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Timely irrigation and fertilization

Option 1 is correct as timely irrigation and fertilization provide crops with essential water and nutrients.
This directly improves crop growth and yield.
Ignoring pest signs (Option 2) harms crops due to damage from pests.
Planting the same crop repeatedly (Option 3) leads to soil nutrient depletion and reduces yield.
Delayed harvest (Option 4) can result in crop loss and lower quality.
Hence, timely irrigation and fertilization are directly linked to improving crop yield.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 6 March 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q26. Along with phosphorus and potassium, fertilisers mainly supply which of the following to crops?

  1. (a) Magnesium only
  2. (b) Calcium only
  3. (c) Nitrogen
  4. (d) Zinc only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nitrogen

Correct option is 3.
Fertilisers mainly supply Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium.
These are the primary macronutrients essential for crop growth.
Nitrogen is crucial for plant growth and leaf development.
Hence, fertilisers contain nitrogen apart from phosphorus and potassium.
This is why nitrogen is included along with phosphorus and potassium in fertilisers.
Final answer: Option 3
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 6 March 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q27. The primary purpose of check-dams in irrigation is to ______________.

  1. (a) To worsen erosion of top soil
  2. (b) To lower the quality of the soil
  3. (c) To channel river water for factory operations
  4. (d) To increase groundwater by storing rainwater
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To increase groundwater by storing rainwater

Check-dams are small barriers built across the direction of water flow on stream beds or rivers.
Their main purpose is to store rainwater and increase groundwater recharge.
They help in conserving water and improving irrigation by maintaining the water level underground.
Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as check-dams do not worsen soil erosion, lower soil quality, or channel water for factories.
Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 6 March 2026 Shift 2 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q28. What distinguishes broilers from layers in poultry farming?

  1. (a) Broilers are raised for meat; layers for eggs
  2. (b) Only broilers lay eggs
  3. (c) Both are raised equally for meat and eggs
  4. (d) Layers are raised for meat; broilers for eggs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Broilers are raised for meat; layers for eggs

Correct option: 1
Broilers are chickens raised primarily for meat production.
Layers are chickens raised mainly to produce eggs.
This is the key difference in poultry farming between broilers and layers.
Option 2 is incorrect because broilers also lay eggs but not as their main purpose.
Option 3 is wrong as both are not raised equally for meat and eggs.
Option 4 is incorrect as it reverses the roles of broilers and layers.
Therefore, broilers are for meat; layers for eggs is the correct distinction.
Answer complete.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 6 March 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q29. Which of the following factor helps in increasing crop yield?

  1. (a) Using poor seeds without irrigation
  2. (b) Using quality seeds, irrigation, fertilisers, crop protection
  3. (c) Using only rainwater for irrigation
  4. (d) Ignoring crop protection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Using quality seeds, irrigation, fertilisers, crop protection

Option 2 is correct because quality seeds, proper irrigation, fertilisers, and crop protection are all essential factors that contribute to increasing crop yield.
Using poor seeds or ignoring irrigation and crop protection will lower yield.
Using only rainwater is unreliable and insufficient in many areas.
Therefore, the combined use of quality seeds, irrigation, fertilisers, and crop protection results in higher crop productivity.
Final answer: Option 2
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 6 March 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q30. Why is weed management important in crop production?

  1. (a) Weeds supply nutrients to crops.
  2. (b) Weeds increase crop yield.
  3. (c) Weeds compete with crops for resources.
  4. (d) Weeds have no impact on crops.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Weeds compete with crops for resources.

Correct option: 3
Weeds compete with crops for resources such as water, nutrients, sunlight, and space.
This competition reduces the availability of these critical resources to the crops.
As a result, crop growth and yield are adversely affected.
Therefore, managing weeds is important to ensure crops grow well and produce good yields.
Hence, weed management is crucial in crop production to minimise competition and maximise crop output.
This closes the answer.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 February 2026 Shift 3 · Crop improvement and hybridisation

Q31. A farmer wants to grow wheat with better baking quality and resistance to drought. Which two characteristics should be targeted in variety improvement?

  1. (a) Wider adaptability and biotic resistance
  2. (b) Higher yield and wider adaptability
  3. (c) Improved quality and abiotic resistance
  4. (d) Improved quality and biotic resistance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Improved quality and abiotic resistance

The farmer needs wheat with better baking quality, which relates to improved quality.
Resistance to drought refers to tolerance against abiotic stress, which is abiotic resistance.
Therefore, the targeted characteristics should be improved quality and abiotic resistance for drought tolerance.
Option 3 correctly matches these requirements.
Final answer: Option 3
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 February 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q32. How do check-dams help in improving agricultural water availability and soil quality?

  1. (a) They increase groundwater levels and reduce soil erosion.
  2. (b) They directly irrigate fields with river water and increase soil erosion.
  3. (c) They store water only for city use, and reduce soil erosion.
  4. (d) They divert water away from farms and increase soil erosion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They increase groundwater levels and reduce soil erosion.

Check-dams are small barriers built across streams or rivers.
They help increase groundwater levels by slowing water flow and allowing more water to seep into the ground.
This raises the water table which benefits agricultural activities by providing more water.
Check-dams also reduce soil erosion by controlling runoff velocity and preventing soil wash away.
Thus, they improve both water availability for farming and maintain soil quality.
Final answer: Option 1
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 February 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q33. Plant diseases are caused by pathogens transmitted through:

  1. (a) Sunlight exposure
  2. (b) Crop residues alone
  3. (c) Fertilisers and manure only
  4. (d) Soil, water and air
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Soil, water and air

Plant diseases are caused by pathogens such as fungi, bacteria, viruses, and nematodes.
These pathogens are transmitted through various environmental agents.
The main carriers include soil, water, and air, which facilitate the spread of pathogens.
Sunlight exposure, crop residues, and fertilisers alone do not transmit pathogens but may influence disease conditions.
Therefore, the correct answer is soil, water and air.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 February 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q34. What is the primary material used to develop vermicompost?

  1. (a) Chemical fertilisers
  2. (b) Yeast
  3. (c) Earthworms
  4. (d) Bacteria and viruses
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Earthworms

Option 3 is correct: Earthworms.
Vermicompost is produced by the decomposition of organic waste using earthworms.
Earthworms help break down the waste and convert it into nutrient-rich compost.
This natural process enriches soil and improves plant growth.
Chemical fertilisers, yeast, bacteria, or viruses are not the primary agents in vermicompost production.
Thus, earthworms are the key to vermicompost development.
End of answer.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 3 · Apiculture and sericulture

Q35. A farmer wants to improve both the quantity and taste of honey produced on his bee farm. Which of the following strategies should he adopt?

  1. (a) Reduce the number of beehives and increase the number of bees.
  2. (b) Increase the variety and quantity of flowering plants near the beehives.
  3. (c) Use only local bee varieties for honey production.
  4. (d) Move the apiary to an area with fewer flowers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Increase the variety and quantity of flowering plants near the beehives.

Correct option: 2
To improve quantity and taste of honey, increasing variety and quantity of flowering plants helps bees get more nectar sources.
More nectar variety improves honey flavour and more flowers increase honey production.
Reducing hives or restricting to local bees doesn't ensure better taste or quantity.
Moving apiary to fewer flowers reduces nectar availability, lowering production.
Hence, option 2 is best.
Final answer: Option 2
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q36. What is a key difference between chemical fertilisers and manures in terms of nutrient release to plants?

  1. (a) Manures have higher and less variable nutrient concentrations.
  2. (b) Chemical fertilisers enhance biological activity.
  3. (c) Manures release nutrients gradually.
  4. (d) Conventional chemical fertilisers release nutrients gradually.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Manures release nutrients gradually.

Chemical fertilisers provide nutrients in readily available forms.
Manures release nutrients gradually as they decompose.
This gradual release from manures ensures a slower, sustained nutrient supply to plants.
Therefore, the key difference is the slower nutrient release by manures compared to chemical fertilisers.
Final answer: Option 3
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q37. Which of the following irrigation methods leads to the least wastage of water?

  1. (a) Sprinkler irrigation
  2. (b) Drip irrigation
  3. (c) Furrow irrigation
  4. (d) Flood irrigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Drip irrigation

Option 2 is correct: Drip irrigation leads to the least wastage of water.
This method delivers water directly to the roots of plants in small quantities.
It reduces water loss due to evaporation and runoff.
Other methods like flood or furrow irrigation waste more water as they irrigate large areas indiscriminately.
Sprinkler irrigation is more efficient than flood but less than drip irrigation.
Hence, drip irrigation is the most water-efficient method among the given options.
Final answer: Option 2
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 3 · Food production and storage

Q38. Which of the following is a biotic factor causing storage losses in grains?

  1. (a) Insects
  2. (b) Temperature
  3. (c) Sunlight
  4. (d) Moisture
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Insects

Biotic factors are living organisms that affect other living things.
Insects are living organisms that can infest grain storage and cause losses.
Temperature, sunlight, and moisture are abiotic (non-living) factors affecting grains.
Therefore, insects are the biotic factor causing storage losses in grains.
Final answer: Option 1
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 2 · Food production and storage

Q39. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the storage of grains?

  1. (a) Storage losses in agriculture produce can be very low.
  2. (b) Biotic factors responsible for losses in stored grains are insects, rodents and moisture.
  3. (c) Biotic factors responsible for losses in stored grains are insects, rodents and fungi.
  4. (d) Abiotic factors responsible for losses in stored grains are temperature, rodents and fungi.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Biotic factors responsible for losses in stored grains are insects, rodents and fungi.

Option 3 is correct.
Biotic factors causing losses in stored grains include insects, rodents, and fungi.
Moisture is an abiotic factor, not biotic.
Temperature is also an abiotic factor and does not fall under biotic.
Thus, the combination of insects, rodents and fungi correctly represents biotic factors causing losses in grains storage.
Therefore, Option 3 is the right answer.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q40. Which two elements are primarily added to soil by green manure?

  1. (a) Potassium and magnesium
  2. (b) Nitrogen and potassium
  3. (c) Nitrogen and phosphorus
  4. (d) Phosphorus and calcium
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nitrogen and phosphorus

Green manure is plant material ploughed into the soil to improve fertility.
It adds essential nutrients to the soil.
The two primary elements added by green manure are nitrogen and phosphorus.
Nitrogen improves soil fertility by increasing protein content and microbial activity.
Phosphorus promotes root development and overall plant growth.
Hence, nitrogen and phosphorus are the key nutrients added by green manure.
Final answer: Option 3
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q41. Why are crops with different nutrient requirements chosen for inter-cropping?

  1. (a) To prevent all pests and diseases completely
  2. (b) To ensure maximum utilisation of nutrients supplied to the field
  3. (c) To increase the duration of crop growth
  4. (d) To allow for crop rotation in succession
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To ensure maximum utilisation of nutrients supplied to the field

Inter-cropping involves growing different crops together on the same field.
Choosing crops with different nutrient needs ensures that the soil nutrients are utilised efficiently.
This prevents nutrient competition and maximises overall nutrient uptake from the soil.
Therefore, nutrient utilisation is improved, leading to better crop yield and soil health.
Hence, the correct reason is to ensure maximum utilisation of nutrients supplied to the field.
Final answer: Option 2
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 1 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q42. Why is it important to keep the level of vitamins A and K high in poultry feeds for broilers?

  1. (a) To make broilers resistant to external parasites
  2. (b) To ensure proper nutrition for healthy growth and development
  3. (c) To increase their tolerance to cold weather
  4. (d) To reduce the size of eggs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To ensure proper nutrition for healthy growth and development

Option 2 is correct.
Vitamin A is essential for maintaining healthy vision, skin, and immune system in broilers.
Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting and bone health.
Keeping levels of vitamins A and K high in poultry feeds ensures proper nutrition necessary for healthy growth and development in broilers.
Other options are incorrect as these vitamins do not specifically increase parasite resistance, cold tolerance, or affect egg size.
Hence, the main reason is to support healthy growth and development of broilers.
Final answer: Option 2
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 Shift 1 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q43. Why is it important to provide dairy cattle with a sloping floor in their sheds and balanced rations in their diet?

  1. (a) To keep the shed dry and facilitate cleaning, and reduce roughage intake.
  2. (b) To protect from parasites, and increase fibre content.
  3. (c) To keep the shed dry and facilitate cleaning, and to support health and milk production.
  4. (d) To prevent diseases and to support health and milk production.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To keep the shed dry and facilitate cleaning, and to support health and milk production.

Solution:
Sloping floor: Ensures proper drainage, keeps shed dry, and makes cleaning easier.
Balanced rations: Provide all necessary nutrients, support health, and improve milk production.
Correct option combines both benefits:dry shed + cleaning + health + milk.
SSC MTS 2025 – 19 February 2026 Shift 1 · Crop improvement and hybridisation

Q44. Which of the following is a biotic stress for crops?

  1. (a) Drought
  2. (b) Salinity
  3. (c) Cold
  4. (d) Insects
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Insects

The correct answer is option 4.
Biotic stress is caused by living organisms (biotic factors). Insects (pests) attack crops and cause damage — they are a biotic stress. Other biotic stresses include bacteria, viruses, fungi, nematodes, and weeds.
Option 1 is incorrect: Drought is an abiotic stress caused by water deficiency — a non-living environmental factor.
Option 2 is incorrect: Salinity is an abiotic stress caused by excess salt concentration in soil or water.
Option 3 is incorrect: Cold (low temperature/frost) is an abiotic stress caused by climatic conditions, not a living organism.
SSC MTS 2025 – 19 February 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q45. Which of the following is the first step before growing a crop?

  1. (a) Preparation of soil
  2. (b) Sowing
  3. (c) Adding manure and fertilizers
  4. (d) Irrigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Preparation of soil

Correct Answer: Preparation of soil (Option 1)
The first and most fundamental step in crop production is the preparation of soil. This involves ploughing (tilling) the land to loosen the soil, break up clods, remove weeds, and aerate the soil. This makes the soil suitable for seed germination and root growth.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 – Sowing (planting seeds) is the second step, done after soil preparation.
Option 3 – Adding manure and fertilizers is done during or after soil preparation, not as the first step.
Option 4 – Irrigation comes after sowing, when the crops need water to grow.
SSC MTS 2025 – 19 February 2026 Shift 3 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q46. Which of the following is an example of freshwater fish?

  1. (a) Pomphret
  2. (b) Mackerel
  3. (c) Rohu
  4. (d) Sardines
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rohu

Correct Answer: Rohu (Option 3)
Rohu ( Labeo rohita ) is a freshwater fish commonly found in rivers, lakes, and ponds of the Indian subcontinent. It is one of the most important aquaculture species in South Asia and is widely consumed.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 – Pomphret is a marine (saltwater) fish found in the Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean.
Option 2 – Mackerel is a marine fish found in open seas.
Option 4 – Sardines are marine fish that live in saltwater, typically in schools near coastlines.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 3 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q47. Refer to the two statements given below and choose the CORRECT option.Statement A: Milch animals are reared primarily for the production of milk.Statement B: Milch animals are mainly used for ploughing agricultural fields.

  1. (a) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
  2. (b) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
  3. (c) Both statements A and B are correct.
  4. (d) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

Statement A is correct as milch animals are primarily reared for milk production.
Statement B is incorrect because milch animals are not mainly used for ploughing; draught animals like bullocks are used for that purpose.
Therefore, only Statement A is correct while Statement B is incorrect.
Final answer: Option 4
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 3 · Food production and storage

Q48. Refer to the two statements given below and choose the CORRECT option.Statement A: Poor storage conditions result in weight loss and discolouration of grains.Statement B: Poor storage conditions enhance seed viability and grain texture.

  1. (a) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
  2. (b) Both statements A and B are correct.
  3. (c) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
  4. (d) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

Statement A is correct because poor storage conditions lead to moisture loss, resulting in weight loss and discolouration of grains.
Statement B is incorrect as poor storage conditions do not enhance seed viability or grain texture; they generally deteriorate these qualities.
Hence, only Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect.
Final answer: Option 1
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q49. A farming community wants to maximize crop yield despite limited increase in cultivable land. Which set of practices should they prioritize to achieve this goal?

  1. (a) Crop variety improvement, crop production improvement, and crop protection management.
  2. (b) Crop variety improvement and crop production improvement only.
  3. (c) Solely expanding the use of traditional farming methods.
  4. (d) Farming without introducing modern technology or high-yielding varieties.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Crop variety improvement, crop production improvement, and crop protection management.

To maximise crop yield with limited land, improving the quality of seeds and plants is essential.
Crop variety improvement means introducing high-yield, disease-resistant varieties.
Crop production improvement involves better farming techniques like soil management and irrigation.
Crop protection management prevents loss due to pests and diseases, ensuring better harvest.
Expanding land or solely relying on traditional methods will not efficiently increase yield.
Avoiding modern technology or high-yield varieties limits growth potential.
Therefore, a combined approach of all three practices is the best strategy for maximising yield.
Final answer: Option 1
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 2 · Apiculture and sericulture

Q50. Bee-keeping is suitable as an additional income because it:

  1. (a) Uses chemical fertilisers
  2. (b) Depends on irrigation
  3. (c) Needs large land area
  4. (d) Requires low investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Requires low investment

Option 4 is correct.
Bee-keeping requires low investment compared to other agricultural activities.
It does not need large land area or extensive irrigation.
Chemical fertilisers are not used in bee-keeping.
Hence, it is suitable as an additional income source due to its low capital requirement.
Final answer: Option 4
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q51. Refer to the two statements given below and choose the CORRECT option.
Statement A: Mixed cropping helps reduce the risk of total crop failure under adverse environmental conditions.
Statement B: In mixed cropping, different crops are grown in a definite row arrangement to minimise competition.

  1. (a) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
  2. (b) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
  3. (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
  4. (d) Both statements A and B are correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

Statement A is correct: Mixed cropping reduces the risk of total crop failure because multiple crops are grown together, so if one fails, others may survive.
Statement B is incorrect: Mixed cropping involves growing different crops in the same field without a specific row arrangement, unlike intercropping which uses defined rows to minimise competition.
Hence, only Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect.
Final answer: Option 3
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 3 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q52. What is the main purpose of giving vaccinations to farm animals?

  1. (a) To protect them from major viral and bacterial diseases
  2. (b) To increase milk production
  3. (c) To prevent attacks from external parasites
  4. (d) To improve the quality of animal feed
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To protect them from major viral and bacterial diseases

Correct option is 1.
Vaccinations are given to farm animals to protect them from major viral and bacterial diseases.
This helps in preventing disease outbreaks and maintaining animal health.
Options 2, 3, and 4 do not represent the primary purpose of vaccination.
Hence, the main goal is disease prevention through immunity building.
This ensures better productivity and reduces mortality in farm animals.
Final answer: Option 1
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 1 · Apiculture and sericulture

Q53. Which bee variety is commonly known as the Indian bee and is used for commercial honey production?

  1. (a) Apis dorsata
  2. (b) Apis cerana indica
  3. (c) Apis florae
  4. (d) Apis mellifera
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Apis cerana indica

The bee commonly known as the Indian bee is Apis cerana indica.
It is native to India and widely used for commercial honey production.
Apis dorsata, Apis florae, and Apis mellifera are other bee species but not referred to as the Indian bee typically used in India’s commercial honey industry.
Therefore, the correct answer is Apis cerana indica.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 3 · Food production and storage

Q54. Which crop should a farmer consider for cultivation if he wants to increase protein content in his harvest?

  1. (a) Vegetables and spices
  2. (b) Pulses
  3. (c) Cereals
  4. (d) Oilseeds
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pulses

Correct option: 2
Pulses are rich in protein compared to cereals, oilseeds, and vegetables.
Farmers aiming to increase protein content should choose pulses for cultivation.
Pulses include lentils, beans, chickpeas, etc., known for high protein.
Hence, selecting pulses enhances protein yield in harvest.
This is the direct answer to the question.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 1 · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q55. Why are cross-breeding programmes between indigenous and exotic poultry breeds undertaken?

  1. (a) To create hybrids with less attractive features
  2. (b) To increase only the egg size
  3. (c) To develop new varieties with desirable traits
  4. (d) To create hybrids showing similarity with their ancestors
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To develop new varieties with desirable traits

Cross-breeding between indigenous and exotic poultry is done
to combine the best traits of both breeds.
The main goal is to develop new varieties with improved characteristics,
such as better growth rate, increased egg production, disease resistance, and adaptability.
Therefore, it helps in creating hybrids with desirable traits for better productivity.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 2 · Food production and storage

Q56. Why is it important to dry agricultural produce first in sunlight and then in shade before storage?

  1. (a) To increase the size and brightness of the grains.
  2. (b) To make the grains easier to pack and prevent growth of weeds.
  3. (c) To improve the color and taste of the produce.
  4. (d) To reduce moisture content and prevent growth of pests and fungi.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To reduce moisture content and prevent growth of pests and fungi.

Correct answer: Option 4
Drying agricultural produce first in sunlight helps to reduce moisture content rapidly.
Sunlight also helps kill many pests and fungi on the surface.
After initial sun drying, drying in shade prevents damage from too much heat and preserves quality.
Reducing moisture content is crucial to prevent growth of pests and fungi during storage.
This process ensures longer shelf life and better preservation of produce.
Hence, drying first in sunlight then in shade is important to reduce moisture and prevent pest/fungi growth.
End of answer.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q57. Why is using compost or vermi-compost preferable to excessive use of fertilizers for increasing soil fertility?

  1. (a) It replaces the need for irrigation and weeding.
  2. (b) It supplies only micro-nutrients and avoids macronutrients.
  3. (c) It recycles biological waste and avoids environmental harm.
  4. (d) It eliminates bacterial and viral plant diseases.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It recycles biological waste and avoids environmental harm.

Option 3 is correct.
Compost and vermi-compost recycle organic biological waste into valuable nutrients for the soil.
They improve soil structure and fertility without causing environmental pollution.
Excessive use of chemical fertilizers can harm soil health and environment.
Hence, compost is preferable to maintain sustainable soil fertility.
Answer ends here.
SSC MTS 2025 – 18 February 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q58. What is the other name of ploughing in preparation of soil?

  1. (a) Irrigation
  2. (b) Tilling
  3. (c) Harvesting
  4. (d) Winnowing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tilling

Tilling (or tillage) is the other name for ploughing in the preparation of soil for cultivation. It involves turning and loosening the soil to prepare it for sowing seeds. Irrigation refers to supplying water to crops; Harvesting is cutting and collecting the mature crop; Winnowing is separating grain from chaff.
SSC MTS 2025 – 17 February 2026 Shift 1 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q59. Farmers in northern India used to grow legumes as fodder in one season and wheat in the next season. This helped in the replenishment of the soil with _____.

  1. (a) sodium
  2. (b) oxygen
  3. (c) nitrogen
  4. (d) hydrogen
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) nitrogen

Legumes have nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium) in their root nodules that convert atmospheric nitrogen into usable nitrates, thereby replenishing nitrogen in the soil. This practice of crop rotation naturally enriched soil fertility. Sodium, oxygen, and hydrogen are not fixed by leguminous plants.
SSC MTS 2025 – 5 February 2026 Shift 3 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q60. Which of the following is NOT a way by which an insect pests attack the plants?

  1. (a) They cut the root, stem and leaf
  2. (b) They suck the cell sap from various parts of the plant
  3. (c) They bore into stem and fruits
  4. (d) They help in nitrogen fixation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They help in nitrogen fixation

Correct Answer: They help in nitrogen fixation
Nitrogen fixation is performed by certain microorganisms (bacteria like Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Cyanobacteria), NOT by insect pests. It is a beneficial process. Insect pests are harmful to plants.
Ways insect pests DO attack plants (the other options are all real attack methods):
Cutting roots, stems and leaves - Done by caterpillars, beetles, and grasshoppers.
Sucking cell sap - Done by aphids, whiteflies, mealybugs, and scale insects.
Boring into stems and fruits - Done by stem borers, fruit flies, and weevils.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 3 · Cloning and stem cells

Q61. Which of the following best describes the goal of stem cell therapy in modern medicine?

  1. (a) To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs
  2. (b) To stimulate hormonal glands
  3. (c) To provide genetic immunity against viruses
  4. (d) To prevent blood clotting in arteries
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs

The main goal of stem cell therapy in modern medicine is to replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs. Stem cells have the unique ability to develop into different types of specialized cells such as muscle cells, nerve cells, or blood cells. This property makes them highly valuable in treating conditions like spinal cord injuries, heart diseases, diabetes, and certain neurodegenerative disorders. They can repair tissues that cannot heal naturally, thereby offering new hope in regenerative medicine. The other options are incorrect because stem cell therapy is not primarily aimed at stimulating hormones, providing viral immunity, or preventing blood clots, though ongoing research may explore such possibilities in the future.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 1 · GM crops and Bt cotton

Q62. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of developing Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in agriculture?

  1. (a) To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality
  2. (b) To eliminate the need for fertilizers and pesticides entirely
  3. (c) To reduce the cost of manual weeding and irrigation only
  4. (d) To grow crops only in artificial laboratory environments
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in agriculture are created by altering the genetic material of crops using modern biotechnology. The primary objective of developing GMOs is to increase crop productivity, make them resistant to pests and diseases, and enhance their nutritional value . For example, Bt cotton was developed to resist bollworm pests, while Golden Rice was engineered to provide higher Vitamin A content to address malnutrition. While GMOs may also reduce dependency on chemical pesticides, fertilizers, and irrigation costs, these are secondary benefits. The main focus remains on ensuring higher yield, better resistance to pests, and improved quality of food to meet the demands of the growing population. Thus, the correct answer is: To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality (Option 1).
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 3 · Apiculture and sericulture

Q63. High honey yield and gentle behaviour in bees for commercial beekeeping can be achieved through one of the following methods:

  1. (a) Introducing Italian bees that collect more honey and remain in hives longer
  2. (b) Using wild bee species with aggressive defence traits
  3. (c) Frequently relocating hives to prevent bees from settling
  4. (d) Avoiding bee farms and relying solely on natural honey collection
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Introducing Italian bees that collect more honey and remain in hives longer

The correct answer is the introduction of Italian bees (Apis mellifera) , which are known worldwide for their high honey yield and docile (gentle) behaviour . These bees remain in hives for longer periods, making management easier for commercial beekeeping. In contrast, wild bee species may be aggressive and harder to handle, frequent relocation disturbs colonies and reduces productivity, and avoiding bee farms limits large-scale honey production. Hence, Italian bees are preferred for commercial apiculture in India and many other countries.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 2 · Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA

Q64. The first human gene therapy experiment, which began in September 1990, used a retroviral vector against which deficiency?

  1. (a) Adenosine deaminase
  2. (b) X-Linked Adrenoleukodystrophy
  3. (c) 3-Methylglutaconic Aciduria
  4. (d) Mitochondrial encephalopathy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Adenosine deaminase

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 2 · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q65. Which strategy DOES NOT promote sustainable development in agriculture?

  1. (a) Use of drought-resistant crops
  2. (b) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers
  3. (c) Crop rotation and organic farming
  4. (d) Efficient irrigation systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 2 · Crop improvement and hybridisation

Q66. DBW 371 (Karan Vrinda), DBW 303 (Karan Vaishnavi) and DBW 187 (Karan Vandana) are varieties of which crop in India?

  1. (a) Rice
  2. (b) Tea
  3. (c) Wheat
  4. (d) Maize
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Wheat

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 2 · Crop improvement and hybridisation

Q67. The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR), Kozhikode, has developed a light-coloured turmeric variety named:

  1. (a) IISR Sona
  2. (b) IISR Surya
  3. (c) IISR Suraj
  4. (d) IISR Pitambar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) IISR Surya

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 1 · Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA

Q68. The indigenous CAR‑T therapy has shown maximum efficacy against B‑ALL and which other blood cancer?

  1. (a) Hodgkin Lymphoma
  2. (b) Multiple Myeloma
  3. (c) Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
  4. (d) Non‑Hodgkin Lymphoma
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Non‑Hodgkin Lymphoma

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 1 August 2025 Shift 1 · Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA

Q69. What is the main objective of the 'Genome India Project'?

  1. (a) Study endangered species
  2. (b) Map genetic diversity of Indians
  3. (c) Develop new vaccines
  4. (d) Improve crop yield
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Map genetic diversity of Indians

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Map genetic diversity of Indians
The Genome India Project (2020), under the Department of Biotechnology, aims to sequence 10,000 Indian genomes to understand the genetic diversity of India's population and aid in development of personalized medicine.
Option 1 (Study endangered species): Related to wildlife conservation genomics, not this project.
Option 3 (Develop new vaccines): Not the primary goal; it is a population genomics study.
Option 4 (Improve crop yield): Relates to agricultural genomics, not human genetics.

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