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RRB Group D 2025-26 18 August 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 18 August 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Physics, Biology, Chemistry.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 18 August 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (17) · Economics (2) · Physics (11) · Biology (5) · Chemistry (10)

Current Affairs (17)

Q1. Who among the following is the author of the non-fiction book, “India and Her Futures”, launched in March 2026 by Rajya Sabha MP Kamal Haasan?

  1. (a) Rahul Gandhi
  2. (b) Ram Nath Kovind
  3. (c) Narendra Modi
  4. (d) Gopalkrishna Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Gopalkrishna Gandhi

India and Her Futures — Author
The non-fiction book"India and Her Futures"was launched in March 2026 at a panel discussion at the India International Centre, New Delhi, officially launched by Makkal Needhi Maiam President and Rajya Sabha MPKamal Haasan.
The book wasauthored by Gopalkrishna Gandhi, former West Bengal Governor and diplomat, confirmed by the official launch event coverage (X/Twitter post by @maiamofficial and related news reports).
Correct Answer: Gopalkrishna Gandhi
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q2. Which vessel had been commissioned in Goa in January 2026 by the Defence Minister as the first indigenously designed and built pollution control vessel of the Indian Coast Guard?

  1. (a) Samudra Pratap
  2. (b) Vikram Suraksha
  3. (c) Samudra Rakshak
  4. (d) Samudra Shakti
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Samudra Pratap

First Indigenous Pollution Control Vessel
On5 January 2026, Defence MinisterRajnath SinghcommissionedICGS Samudra Pratapin Goa — India's first indigenously designed and built Pollution Control Vessel (PCV), constructed by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) for the Indian Coast Guard.
This is confirmed by PIB press release, Wikipedia (ICGS Samudra Pratap), and multiple news reports (Business Standard, India TV, DD News, News on Air) dated 5 January 2026.
Correct Answer: Samudra Pratap
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q3. Which state topped the medals tally in the inaugural edition of Khelo India Tribal Games (KITG) concluded in April 2026?

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Haryana
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Karnataka

Khelo India Tribal Games 2026 — Medal Tally
The inaugural edition of theKhelo India Tribal Games (KITG), held in Raipur, Chhattisgarh, concluded in April 2026 withKarnatakatopping the medals tally as the overall champion, as reported by Drishti IAS, News on Air, and multiple current-affairs sources.
Correct Answer: Karnataka
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q4. Which noted playback singer received the Padma Bhushan in 2026?

  1. (a) Sunidhi Chauhan for contributions to independent cinema songs
  2. (b) Alka Yagnik for distinguished service in the field of art
  3. (c) Kavita Krishnamurthy for contributions to patriotic compositions
  4. (d) Shreya Ghoshal for contributions to classical fusion music
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Alka Yagnik for distinguished service in the field of art

Padma Bhushan 2026 — Playback Singer
Veteran playback singerAlka Yagnikwas conferred thePadma Bhushanin 2026 by President Droupadi Murmu, for her distinguished contribution in the field ofArt (music), as confirmed by official government social media (#PeoplesPadma2026 #art) and multiple news reports.
This matches option 2 — "distinguished service in the field of art."
Correct Answer: Alka Yagnik for distinguished service in the field of art
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q5. During the 77th Republic Day Parade at Kartavya Path in 2026, which of the following Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) systems was showcased?

  1. (a) Inter-continental ballistic missile
  2. (b) Long Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Missile
  3. (c) Air Independent Propulsion system for Submarines
  4. (d) Short Range Anti-Tank Missile
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Long Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Missile

Republic Day 2026 — DRDO Showcase
At the 77th Republic Day Parade (26 January 2026) at Kartavya Path, DRDO unveiled/showcased theLong Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Missile— India's first hypersonic anti-ship missile system, confirmed by DD News, Naval News, and TWZ reports.
Correct Answer: Long Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Missile
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q6. During the May 2026 nationwide disaster drills, India's National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) tested a new system that pushes unmissable, region-specific alerts directly to mobile devices without relying on traditional SMS or internet connectivity. What technology framework enables this simultaneous, area-wide transmission?

  1. (a) Cell Broadcast System
  2. (b) Optical Fiber Multi-casting
  3. (c) Satellite Direct Frequency
  4. (d) Short Message Peer Protocol
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cell Broadcast System

NDMA Nationwide Alert Test — Cell Broadcast System
In May 2026 (2 May 2026), NDMA conducted a nationwide test of theCell Broadcast Alert System (CBAS), which pushes region-specific emergency alerts simultaneously to all mobile devices in a targeted area via cell towers, without needing SMS or internet — confirmed by Deccan Chronicle, ETV Bharat, and multiple 2026 news reports.
Correct Answer: Cell Broadcast System
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q7. In 2025, which new identity document has the Supreme Court directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to accept for inclusion in Bihar’s revised voters’ list?

  1. (a) Ration Card
  2. (b) Aadhaar Card
  3. (c) Passport
  4. (d) Driving License
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aadhaar Card

Bihar SIR — Aadhaar as Identity Document
In the Supreme Court case on Bihar's Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls (Association for Democratic Reforms v. ECI, 2025), the Supreme Court directed theElection Commission of India to accept Aadhaar Cardas a valid (12th/13th) identity document for inclusion in the revised voters' list, confirmed by DD News and News on Air reports (September 2025).
Correct Answer: Aadhaar Card

Q8. The G-RAM G Scheme 2025 guarantees how many days of wage employment per rural household annually?

  1. (a) 150 days of wage employment
  2. (b) 120 days of wage employment
  3. (c) 125 days of wage employment
  4. (d) 100 days of wage employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 125 days of wage employment

Viksit Bharat – G RAM G Scheme 2025
TheViksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB-G RAM G] Act, 2025, which succeeds MGNREGA, guarantees125 days of wage employmentper rural household annually (raised from the earlier 100 days under MGNREGA).
This was explicitly confirmed by Union Minister Jitendra Singh (News on Air, 13 January 2026): "...guarantees 125 days of wage employment per rural household", and by PRS India / DD News explainer articles.
Correct Answer: 125 days of wage employment
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q9. In May 2026, the study report titled "Contribution of Jain Community in the Field of Education" was released by which Government of India organization?

  1. (a) University Grants Commission
  2. (b) National Commission for Minorities
  3. (c) National Human Rights Commission
  4. (d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Commission for Minorities

Jain Community Education Study Report
In May 2026, theNational Commission for Minorities (NCM)released a study report titled"Contribution of Jain Community in the Field of Education", documenting the historical evolution, institutional role, and educational philosophy of the community — confirmed by PIB press release and multiple news reports dated May 2026.
Correct Answer: National Commission for Minorities
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q10. Which institution had conducted the palaeoecological research using pollens from wetlands of the Kaziranga National Park to trace the evolution of the habitat of the one-horned rhinoceros in February 2026?

  1. (a) Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology
  2. (b) Zoological Survey of India
  3. (c) Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences

Kaziranga Rhinoceros Habitat Research
In February 2026, researchers from theBirbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences (BSIP), Lucknow, published palaeoecological research using pollen records from Kaziranga's wetlands, tracing the over 3,000-year evolution of the park's habitat that made it a stronghold for the one-horned rhinoceros — confirmed by DST press release and multiple news reports.
Correct Answer: Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences

Q11. “Vigil”, published in January 2026, is the novel written by which Booker Prize-winning author best known for “Lincoln in the Bardo”?

  1. (a) George Saunders
  2. (b) Kazuo Ishiguro
  3. (c) Colson Whitehead
  4. (d) Douglas Stuart
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) George Saunders

Vigil (2026 Novel)
"Vigil", published in January 2026, is a novel byGeorge Saunders, the Booker Prize-winning author of "Lincoln in the Bardo" (2017 Man Booker Prize winner). Reviewed by NHPR, Locus, and others as "a brief and bumpy return to the Bardo."
Correct Answer: George Saunders
Sports - Current · Olympics, Asian Games and Commonwealth Games - current

Q12. Which country had topped the final medal tally at the 2026 Winter Olympics in Milano Cortina by setting a new record for both gold medals and total medals at a single Winter Games?

  1. (a) The United States of America
  2. (b) Norway
  3. (c) Canada
  4. (d) Germany
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Norway

2026 Winter Olympics — Milano Cortina Medal Tally
Norwaytopped the final medal tally at the 2026 Winter Olympics in Milano Cortina, setting a new all-time Winter Games record with18 gold medals and 41 total medals, confirmed by Wikipedia's "2026 Winter Olympics medal table", NBC Olympics, and Outlook India reports.
Correct Answer: Norway

Q13. According to the Supreme Court of India's 2026 judgment on stray dog management, which of the following should be prioritized in cases of conflict between animal welfare and public safety?

  1. (a) Complete withdrawal of municipal authorities from stray animal management responsibilities
  2. (b) Protection of public safety and the Right to Life guaranteed under Article 21
  3. (c) Expansion of commercial animal shelters through private-sector urban development projects
  4. (d) Unrestricted re-release of stray animals into all public and institutional spaces
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Protection of public safety and the Right to Life guaranteed under Article 21

Supreme Court 2026 — Stray Dog Management Judgment
In its 2026 judgment on stray dog management, the Supreme Court reaffirmed that theRight to Life under Article 21includes the right to safe movement without fear of dog bites, and directed authorities to prioritizepublic safetyin cases of conflict with animal welfare — confirmed by Supreme Court Observer, Legal Bites, and multiple legal-news reports (May 2026).
Correct Answer: Protection of public safety and the Right to Life guaranteed under Article 21
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q14. At the New Balance Indoor Grand Prix, the first World Athletics Indoor Tour Gold meeting of the 2026 season, held in Boston, which athlete broke the long-standing men's indoor 2,000 metres world record previously held by Kenenisa Bekele?

  1. (a) Grant Fisher
  2. (b) Hobbs Kessler
  3. (c) Cole Hocker
  4. (d) Davis Bove
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hobbs Kessler

2026 New Balance Indoor Grand Prix — Indoor 2000m World Record
At the New Balance Indoor Grand Prix held in Boston in January 2026 (the season's first World Athletics Indoor Tour Gold meeting), American athleteHobbs Kesslerbroke the men's indoor 2,000m world record previously held by Kenenisa Bekele — confirmed by LetsRun.com ("Hobbs Kessler Smashes 2000m Indoor World Record"), Boston Globe, and FloTrack reports.
Correct Answer: Hobbs Kessler

Q15. Which major change in India's rural employment framework was introduced through the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, replacing the earlier MGNREGA system?

  1. (a) Expansion of MGNREGA work guarantee from 100 to 150 days annually
  2. (b) Merger of rural employment schemes with urban livelihood missions
  3. (c) Transfer of rural employment administration to Gram Panchayats alone
  4. (d) Replacement of MGNREGA with the VB-G RAM G rural employment framework
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Replacement of MGNREGA with the VB-G RAM G rural employment framework

VB-G RAM G Act, 2025
TheViksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB-G RAM G] Act, 2025formallyreplaced MGNREGA, establishing a new rural employment guarantee framework (with the wage guarantee raised to 125 days) — confirmed by PIB, PRS India (bill text), and DD News explainer reports.
Correct Answer: Replacement of MGNREGA with the VB-G RAM G rural employment framework
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q16. Which of the following athletes became the first to set the ultimate national record in the men's 100m sprint at the Federation Cup in May 2026 by running 10.15 seconds to mark below the entry standard set for the Commonwealth Games by the Athletics Federation of India?

  1. (a) Amlan Borgohain
  2. (b) Manikanta Hoblidhar
  3. (c) Animesh Kujur
  4. (d) Gurindervir Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Animesh Kujur

Federation Cup 2026 — Men's 100m National Record
At the Federation Cup athletics meet (May 2026),Animesh Kujurclocked10.15 secondsin the men's 100m, setting/reclaiming the national record and meeting the Commonwealth Games entry standard set by the Athletics Federation of India — confirmed by The Bridge, Outlook India, and Olympics.com reports (there was a back-and-forth with Gurindervir Singh across rounds, but Kujur's 10.15s run is the one specifically cited as meeting the CWG entry standard).
Correct Answer: Animesh Kujur
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q17. What had been declared as the official theme of the United Nations (UN) World Wildlife Day observed globally on 3 March 2026?

  1. (a) Wildlife Conservation Finance: Investing in People and Planet
  2. (b) Medicinal and Aromatic Plants: Conserving Health, Heritage and Livelihoods
  3. (c) Biodiversity and Climate Change: Global Action
  4. (d) Forests and Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Medicinal and Aromatic Plants: Conserving Health, Heritage and Livelihoods

World Wildlife Day 2026 Theme
The official theme of UN World Wildlife Day 2026 (observed 3 March) was"Medicinal and Aromatic Plants: Conserving Health, Heritage and Livelihoods", confirmed by CITES, the official wildlifeday.org website, and the Geneva Environment Network.
Correct Answer: Medicinal and Aromatic Plants: Conserving Health, Heritage and Livelihoods

Economics (2)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic Survey and economic reports

Q18. Who tabled the Economic Survey 2025-26 in the Parliament on 29ᵗʰ January 2026?

  1. (a) Amit Shah
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) V. Anantha Nageswaran
  4. (d) Nirmala Sitharaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nirmala Sitharaman

Economic Survey 2025-26
The Economic Survey is conventionally tabled in Parliament by theUnion Finance Minister, a day before the Union Budget. Finance MinisterNirmala Sitharamantabled the Economic Survey 2025-26 in Parliament on29 January 2026(confirmed by Business Standard, DD News, News on Air reports dated 28–29 January 2026).
The Chief Economic Advisor (V. Anantha Nageswaran) prepares/authors the survey, but it is formally tabled/presented in Parliament by the Finance Minister.
Correct Answer: Nirmala Sitharaman
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Sustainable Development Goals

Q19. In April 2026, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched a five-year biodiversity governance project aimed at “greening” Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDPs). This initiative is most directly associated with which SDG?

  1. (a) SDG 7 – Affordable and Clean Energy
  2. (b) SDG 2 – Zero Hunger
  3. (c) SDG 8 – Decent Work and Economic Growth
  4. (d) SDG 15 – Life on Land
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) SDG 15 – Life on Land

MoEFCC Biodiversity Governance Project — SDG Linkage
In April 2026, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), along with the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), launched a five-year project to strengthen grassroots biodiversity governance (initially in Tamil Nadu and Meghalaya) by integrating biodiversity concerns into Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDPs) — confirmed by news reports (Construction World, Chronicle India, India Education Diary).
Biodiversity conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems directly corresponds toSDG 15 – Life on Land.
Correct Answer: SDG 15 – Life on Land

Physics (11)

Sources of Energy · Renewable energy missions and targets

Q20. In February 2026, a significant national policy on renewable energy was launched. Which organization was chiefly responsible for drafting and releasing the framework for the National Hydrogen Mission?

  1. (a) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  2. (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. (c) Department of Biotechnology
  4. (d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

National Hydrogen Mission
India's National Green Hydrogen Mission framework is drafted and administered by theMinistry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), the nodal ministry for renewable energy policy including green hydrogen, confirmed by the official MNRE/NGHM portal and government sources.
Correct Answer: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q21. A machine lifts a 1500 N load using an effort of 250 N. Due to friction, the effort required later becomes 375 N while lifting the same load. Which statement is correct?

  1. (a) Load increased by 50%
  2. (b) Effort decreased by 50%
  3. (c) Load and effort both increased by 50%
  4. (d) Effort increased by 50% while load remained unchanged
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Effort increased by 50% while load remained unchanged

Concept: Effect of Friction on a Machine
Theloadlifted by a machine is 1500 N in both cases — this does not change. Friction affects only theeffortrequired, since some of the input effort is used to overcome friction rather than to do useful work on the load.
• Initial effort = 250 N (ideal, frictionless case)
• Later effort (with friction) = 375 N
• Increase in effort = 375 − 250 = 125 N
• Percentage increase = (125/250) × 100 = 50%
So the effort increased by 50% due to friction, while the load lifted (1500 N) remained exactly the same.
Correct Answer: Effort increased by 50% while load remained unchanged
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Defects of vision and their correction

Q22. With ageing, the power of accommodation of the human eye decreases, causing difficulty in viewing nearby objects clearly. This defect is known as:

  1. (a) Myopia
  2. (b) Presbyopia
  3. (c) Hypermetropia
  4. (d) Astigmatism
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Presbyopia

Concept: Eye Defects
The eye's power of accommodation (its ability to change focal length via the ciliary muscles) naturally declines with age. This age-related loss of near-vision focusing ability is calledpresbyopia, and it typically requires reading glasses (convex lenses) for close work.
• Myopia (near-sightedness): distant objects appear blurred, due to elongated eyeball or excess curvature — not age-related.
• Hypermetropia (far-sightedness): near objects appear blurred, due to shortened eyeball — can occur at any age.
• Astigmatism: irregular curvature of the cornea/lens causing blurred vision at all distances.
• Presbyopia: age-related weakening of ciliary muscles reducing accommodation power — exactly as described.
Correct Answer: Presbyopia
Sound and Waves · Human ear and sound production

Q23. Why does touching a vibrating tuning fork to water cause ripples?

  1. (a) Vibrations from the fork transfer energy, moving water
  2. (b) Water forms ripples without vibration
  3. (c) The fork heats the water and makes ripples
  4. (d) The fork makes sound but does not move water
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vibrations from the fork transfer energy, moving water

Concept: Sound and Vibration
A tuning fork produces sound by vibrating rapidly. When its vibrating prongs touch the surface of water, the mechanical vibrations (energy) are transferred directly to the water molecules, causing the water surface to move up and down and produce ripples. This is a simple, classic demonstration that sound is caused by vibration and that vibrating bodies transfer energy to whatever they touch.
Correct Answer: Vibrations from the fork transfer energy, moving water
Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q24. A student shouts facing a building 220 meters away. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, how long after the shout will the echo be heard?

  1. (a) 0.44 s
  2. (b) 0.67 s
  3. (c) 2.20 s
  4. (d) 1.33 s
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1.33 s

Calculation: Echo Time
The sound must travel to the building (220 m) and then reflect back to the student (another 220 m), so the total distance travelled by the sound wave is:
• Total distance = 2 × 220 m = 440 m
• Speed of sound = 330 m/s
• Time = Distance / Speed = 440 / 330 = 1.333 s ≈ 1.33 s
Correct Answer: 1.33 s
Work, Energy and Power · Commercial unit of energy (kWh)

Q25. A device uses 1 kilowatt (kW) of power for 1 hour. How much energy does it consume?

  1. (a) 1 joule (J)
  2. (b) 1 kilowatt hour (kWh)
  3. (c) 1 watt hour (Wh)
  4. (d) 1 kilowatt (kW)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 kilowatt hour (kWh)

Concept: Electrical Energy Units
Electrical energy consumed = Power × Time. A device using 1 kilowatt of power for 1 hour consumes exactly1 kilowatt-hour (kWh)of energy — this is the standard commercial unit of electrical energy, commonly known as 1 'unit' of electricity.
Correct Answer: 1 kilowatt hour (kWh)
Physics Miscellaneous · Physicists and their discoveries

Q26. A policymaker is evaluating the large-scale deployment of solar power in India. Which historical contribution provided the foundational data for solar insolation mapping?

  1. (a) NASA satellite data collection
  2. (b) University climate models
  3. (c) Anna Mani’s solar radiation measurements
  4. (d) Government weather forecasts
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anna Mani’s solar radiation measurements

Concept: History of Solar Radiation Measurement in India
Anna Mani, an eminent Indian physicist and meteorologist, led pioneering work in standardizing meteorological instruments in India and carried out systematic solar radiation (insolation) measurements across the country. Her work produced the foundational solar radiation data/atlas that later informed India's solar energy potential mapping — this is a well-established historical/GK fact frequently referenced in the context of India's renewable energy planning.
Correct Answer: Anna Mani's solar radiation measurements
Work, Energy and Power · Conservation and transformation of energy

Q27. When a flashlight is turned on, what energy change occurs?

  1. (a) Light energy changes to sound energy
  2. (b) Light energy changes to chemical energy
  3. (c) Chemical energy changes to sound energy
  4. (d) Chemical energy changes to light energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chemical energy changes to light energy

Concept: Energy Transformation in a Flashlight
A flashlight (torch) uses a battery, which stores chemical energy. When switched on, this chemical energy is converted into electrical energy which then powers the bulb/LED, producing light. Overall, the net transformation described is:chemical energy → light energy.
Correct Answer: Chemical energy changes to light energy
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q28. A toy train moves around a circular track at a constant speed. Which statement correctly describes its motion?

  1. (a) The train moves with increasing speed along the circular track.
  2. (b) The train changes its direction continuously while moving with constant speed.
  3. (c) The train moves in a straight line with constant speed.
  4. (d) The train remains at rest because its speed does not change.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The train changes its direction continuously while moving with constant speed.

Concept: Uniform Circular Motion
When an object moves along a circular path at constant speed, its speed (magnitude of velocity) stays the same, but its direction of motion changes continuously at every point of the path. Since velocity is a vector (speed + direction), this constitutes accelerated motion even though the speed itself is constant — this is the defining feature of uniform circular motion.
Correct Answer: The train changes its direction continuously while moving with constant speed.
Motion · Speed and velocity

Q29. A cyclist covers 2 km in the first 10 minutes and 3 km in the next 10 minutes. What type of motion is this?

  1. (a) periodic motion
  2. (b) non-uniform motion
  3. (c) circular motion
  4. (d) uniform motion
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) non-uniform motion

Concept: Uniform vs Non-Uniform Motion
In uniform motion, an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time. Here, the cyclist covers 2 km in the first 10 minutes but 3 km in the next 10 minutes — unequal distances in equal time intervals, meaning the speed is changing. This is the definition ofnon-uniform motion.
Correct Answer: non-uniform motion
Electricity · Ohm's law

Q30. In a laboratory, a student wants to verify Ohm's Law for a new material. Which experimental approach will most accurately determine if the material obeys Ohm's Law?

  1. (a) Measure current for several applied voltages and plot voltage versus current
  2. (b) Observe the heat produced at a single applied voltage
  3. (c) Measure resistance at one voltage and compare to tabulated value
  4. (d) Calculate voltage for a fixed current
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Measure current for several applied voltages and plot voltage versus current

Concept: Verifying Ohm's Law Experimentally
Ohm's Law states that V = IR (voltage is directly proportional to current, at constant temperature) for an ohmic conductor. To experimentally verify this for a new material, one must vary the applied voltage across several values, measure the corresponding current for each, and then plot aV vs I graph. If the material obeys Ohm's law, the graph will be a straight line passing through the origin (constant slope = resistance). A single-point measurement (options 2, 3, 4) cannot establish a proportional/linear relationship — multiple data points are required.
Correct Answer: Measure current for several applied voltages and plot voltage versus current

Biology (5)

Cell - Structure and Function · Nucleus and chromosomes

Q31. When a cell prepares to divide, the chromatin material organizes itself into __________.

  1. (a) Proteins
  2. (b) Lysosomes
  3. (c) Chromosomes
  4. (d) Nuclear pores
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chromosomes

Concept: Cell Division
In a non-dividing cell, the genetic material exists as a loosely coiled, thread-like mass called chromatin. As the cell prepares to divide (during prophase), the chromatin condenses and organizes into distinct, tightly coiled structures calledchromosomes, which can then be equally distributed to daughter cells.
Correct Answer: Chromosomes

Q32. Which of the following formations is the three carbon molecule formed during the breakdown of glucose?

  1. (a) Formation of fructose-6-phosphate
  2. (b) Formation of glucose-6-phosphate
  3. (c) Formation of pyruvate molecule
  4. (d) Formation of acetyl-co-A molecule
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Formation of pyruvate molecule

Concept: Glycolysis (Breakdown of Glucose)
During cellular respiration, the first step (glycolysis) occurs in the cytoplasm, whereglucose (a 6-carbon molecule)is broken down intopyruvate (a 3-carbon molecule). This is a universal first step common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
• Glucose-6-phosphate and fructose-6-phosphate — both 6-carbon intermediates formed early in glycolysis.
• Pyruvate — the 3-carbon end product of glycolysis.
• Acetyl-CoA — a 2-carbon molecule formed from pyruvate before entering the Krebs cycle.
Correct Answer: Formation of pyruvate molecule
Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q33. A football player tears a structure that connects muscles to bones during practice. Which structure is most likely damaged?

  1. (a) Tendon
  2. (b) Ligament
  3. (c) Nerve
  4. (d) Cartilage
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tendon

Concept: Connective Tissues — Tendon vs Ligament
• Tendon: connectsmuscle to bone; transmits the force of muscle contraction to move the bone.
• Ligament: connectsbone to boneat a joint, providing stability.
• Nerve: transmits electrical impulses, not a mechanical connector.
• Cartilage: a flexible connective tissue found at joints/ends of bones, not a muscle-bone connector.
Since the injury described involves the structure connecting muscle to bone, it is the tendon that is torn.
Correct Answer: Tendon
Nutrition and Digestion · Digestive enzymes and juices

Q34. Carbohydrate digestion in humans begins in the mouth and is completed in which part of the digestive tract?

  1. (a) Small intestine
  2. (b) Large intestine
  3. (c) Stomach
  4. (d) Oesophagus
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Small intestine

Concept: Digestion of Carbohydrates
Carbohydrate (starch) digestion begins in the mouth, where salivary amylase (ptyalin) breaks starch into maltose. This action is briefly halted in the acidic stomach (which lacks carbohydrate-digesting enzymes). Digestion resumes and is completed in thesmall intestine, where pancreatic amylase and intestinal enzymes (maltase, etc.) break down carbohydrates fully into simple sugars like glucose for absorption.
Correct Answer: Small intestine
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Plant kingdom groups (Thallophyta to Angiosperms)

Q35. A researcher attempts to cultivate plants with true roots, stems, and leaves but finds that reproduction only occurs when water is present. Which feature limits these plants’ distribution?

  1. (a) Absence of true roots
  2. (b) Seeds encased in fruits
  3. (c) Water-dependent reproduction
  4. (d) Lack of vascular tissue
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Water-dependent reproduction

Concept: Pteridophytes (Ferns)
Plants with true roots, stems, and leaves but reproducing via spores (not seeds) and requiring water for fertilization describe thePteridophytes(e.g., ferns). Their male gametes (antherozoids) are flagellated and must swim through a film of water to reach and fertilize the female gamete. This dependence on water for reproduction restricts pteridophytes to damp, moist habitats and limits their wider distribution — unlike seed plants which are not dependent on external water for fertilization.
Correct Answer: Water-dependent reproduction

Chemistry (10)

Q36. A compound has the molecular formula C4H10. Which statement best describes its structure?

  1. (a) It has a cyclic structure and a single isomer
  2. (b) It must contain a carbon-carbon double bond
  3. (c) It forms only one possible structure
  4. (d) It can exist as two different isomers with straight or branched chains
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It can exist as two different isomers with straight or branched chains

Concept: Isomerism in Alkanes
C4H10 corresponds to butane, a saturated alkane (all single bonds, no double bonds, non-cyclic since CnH2n+2 is the acyclic saturated formula). Butane exhibits chain isomerism, existing as two distinct structures:
• n-Butane: a straight (unbranched) chain of 4 carbon atoms
• Isobutane (2-methylpropane): a branched chain structure
Since there is no carbon-carbon double bond and it is not cyclic, and it has exactly two possible structures (not just one), option 4 correctly describes it.
Correct Answer: It can exist as two different isomers with straight or branched chains
Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q37. The combustion of carbon allotropes, like diamond and graphite, produces:

  1. (a) only carbon dioxide and heat
  2. (b) only carbon dioxide
  3. (c) carbon dioxide, heat and light
  4. (d) only carbon dioxide and light
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) carbon dioxide, heat and light

Concept: Combustion of Carbon
Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon. When carbon burns in the presence of sufficient oxygen, it undergoes complete combustion: C + O₂ → CO₂. This reaction is exothermic (releases heat) and is also accompanied by a visible flame (light), so combustion of carbon produces carbon dioxide, heat, AND light together — this is the standard textbook description of carbon combustion.
Correct Answer: carbon dioxide, heat and light
Structure of Atom · Bohr's model

Q38. According to Bohr’s Atomic Model, the orbit closest to the nucleus is called:

  1. (a) L-shell
  2. (b) K-shell
  3. (c) N-shell
  4. (d) M-shell
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) K-shell

Concept: Bohr's Atomic Model — Shells
In Bohr's model, electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed circular orbits (energy shells), labelled K, L, M, N, ... starting from the shell closest to the nucleus. TheK-shell(n = 1) is the innermost orbit, closest to the nucleus.
Correct Answer: K-shell
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of bases and alkalis

Q39. What is a common observable change when a non-metallic oxide is bubbled through a base?

  1. (a) The temperature of the solution falls sharply
  2. (b) The solution turns bright red in color
  3. (c) A gas is evolved rapidly during the reaction
  4. (d) There is a decrease in alkalinity of the solution
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) There is a decrease in alkalinity of the solution

Concept: Reaction of a Non-Metallic Oxide with a Base
Non-metallic oxides (e.g., CO₂, SO₂) are acidic in nature. When such an acidic oxide is bubbled through a basic (alkaline) solution, it neutralizes some of the base, forming a salt (e.g., a carbonate) and water. As the base is consumed in this neutralization reaction, thealkalinity of the solution decreases.
There is no rapid evolution of gas (the gas is being absorbed, not released), no sharp temperature drop (neutralization is typically mildly exothermic), and no colour change to bright red under normal conditions.
Correct Answer: There is a decrease in alkalinity of the solution
Environmental Chemistry · Ozone layer and its depletion

Q40. If the ozone layer becomes thinner, which of the following could happen on Earth?

  1. (a) Reduction in oxygen levels
  2. (b) Cooling of the Earth’s atmosphere only
  3. (c) Increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching Earth
  4. (d) Decrease in sunlight reaching plants
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching Earth

Concept: Ozone Layer Depletion
The ozone layer in the stratosphere absorbs most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation before it reaches the Earth's surface. If the ozone layer becomes thinner, more UV radiation penetrates to the surface, which can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and damage to plants and marine ecosystems.
Correct Answer: Increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching Earth
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q41. Which sequence best describes the steps for obtaining a pure metal from its ore?

  1. (a) Ore is enriched, then metal is extracted, and finally purification is performed.
  2. (b) Ore is purified, then metal is extracted, and finally enrichment is performed.
  3. (c) Ore is melted, then metal is extracted, and finally enrichment is performed.
  4. (d) Metal is extracted, then ore is enriched, and finally purification is performed.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ore is enriched, then metal is extracted, and finally purification is performed.

Concept: Extraction of Metals from Ores
The general sequence for obtaining a pure metal from its ore is:
• 1. Enrichment/concentration of the ore — removing gangue (impurities) to concentrate the ore
• 2. Extraction of the metal — converting the concentrated ore to the metal (via reduction, roasting/calcination followed by reduction, or electrolysis)
• 3. Purification/refining of the metal — obtaining a pure metal, e.g., by electrolytic refining
Correct Answer: Ore is enriched, then metal is extracted, and finally purification is performed.
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q42. A student mixes lead metal with iron(II) sulfate solution and observes no visible change. Which statement best explains this observation?

  1. (a) Lead reacts vigorously with iron(II) sulfate forming a new compound.
  2. (b) Lead is less reactive than iron and cannot displace it from its compound.
  3. (c) The reaction is reversible, so no net change is observed.
  4. (d) Lead is more reactive than iron and displaces it from the solution.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lead is less reactive than iron and cannot displace it from its compound.

Concept: Reactivity Series and Displacement Reactions
In the reactivity series of metals, the order (from more to less reactive) around this region is: ... Zn > Fe > Pb > Cu ... Since iron (Fe) is more reactive than lead (Pb), lead cannot displace iron from iron(II) sulfate solution. A more reactive metal is needed to displace a less reactive metal from its salt solution — here it's the reverse, so no reaction (no visible change) occurs.
Correct Answer: Lead is less reactive than iron and cannot displace it from its compound.
Structure of Atom · Atomic number and mass number

Q43. What role do electrons play in the overall charge of an atom?

  1. (a) They make the atom positively charged
  2. (b) They are present inside the nucleus with neutrons
  3. (c) They balance the positive charge of protons to make atoms neutral
  4. (d) They add significant mass to the atom
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They balance the positive charge of protons to make atoms neutral

Concept: Atomic Structure and Charge Neutrality
An atom contains protons (positive charge) and neutrons (no charge) in the nucleus, and electrons (negative charge) orbiting outside the nucleus. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals the number of protons, so the negative charge of the electrons exactly balances/cancels the positive charge of the protons, making the overall atom electrically neutral.
Correct Answer: They balance the positive charge of protons to make atoms neutral
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Pure substances and mixtures

Q44. Which of the following is a pure substance?

  1. (a) Only compound
  2. (b) Only mixture
  3. (c) Only element
  4. (d) Both compound and element
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both compound and element

Concept: Pure Substances vs Mixtures
A pure substance has a fixed, definite composition and uniform properties throughout. Pure substances are classified into two categories:
• Elements — made of only one type of atom (e.g., oxygen, iron)
• Compounds — made of two or more elements chemically combined in a fixed ratio (e.g., water, salt)
Mixtures (made of two or more substances not chemically combined, in variable proportions) are NOT pure substances. Hence both compounds and elements qualify as pure substances.
Correct Answer: Both compound and element
Environmental Chemistry · Ozone layer and its depletion

Q45. Why is depletion of the ozone layer by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) considered dangerous for organisms?

  1. (a) It leads to an increase in atmospheric oxygen levels
  2. (b) It leads to an decrease in rainfall
  3. (c) It leads to the generation of infrared radiation
  4. (d) It leads to penetration of UV rays into the atmosphere
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It leads to penetration of UV rays into the atmosphere

Concept: Ozone Depletion by CFCs
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) released into the atmosphere break down ozone (O₃) molecules in the stratosphere, thinning the protective ozone layer. Since ozone normally absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun, its depletion allows increasedpenetration of UV raysto reach the Earth's surface. This increased UV exposure is dangerous for organisms as it can cause skin cancer, cataracts, weakened immunity, and damage to plant life and aquatic ecosystems.
Correct Answer: It leads to penetration of UV rays into the atmosphere
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