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RRB Group D 2025-26 19 August 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 19 August 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Static GK, Chemistry, Biology, Physics.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 19 August 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (16) · Economics (3) · Static GK (1) · Chemistry (8) · Biology (6) · Physics (10)

Current Affairs (16)

State News · State schemes and events

Q1. To strengthen women's welfare and social security, the 'Saheli Pink Smart Card' scheme launched in March 2026 was launched by the government of which Union Territory?

  1. (a) National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT)
  2. (b) Puducherry
  3. (c) Chandigarh
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT)
Explanation:
TheSaheli Pink Smart Cardscheme, offering free digital bus travel to women and transgender commuters, was launched on2 March 2026in Delhi by Chief MinisterRekha Gupta, in the presence of President Droupadi Murmu. It is implemented by the Delhi Transport Corporation (DTC) in partnership with Airtel Payments Bank and Mufin Pay.
Minor note: news reports credit CM Rekha Gupta as having introduced the scheme, with President Murmu present at the event — but the correct Union Territory (Delhi/NCT) matches the given answer regardless.
Important Facts:
• The card was rolled out through 50 issuance centres across Delhi.
• It replaces the earlier free-travel scheme for women on DTC buses with a smart-card based system.
• Delhi's Chief Minister at the time was Rekha Gupta (BJP).
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q2. In 2026, who became the fastest Indian sprinter by completing the men's 100m final in 10.09 seconds at the Federation Cup held in Ranchi, Jharkhand?

  1. (a) Manikanta Hoblidhar
  2. (b) Amlan Borgohain
  3. (c) Gurindervir Singh
  4. (d) Animesh Kujur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gurindervir Singh

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Gurindervir Singh
Explanation:
Gurindervir Singh(Punjab) clocked10.09 secondsin the men's 100m final at the Federation Cup Athletics 2026 in Ranchi, breaking the national record and becoming the first Indian to run a sub-10.10s 100m, earning the tag 'India's fastest man'.
Important Facts:
• The previous national record (10.20s) was held by Amlan Borgohain.
• Gurindervir Singh represents the Indian Navy (as a Petty Officer).
• Tejaswin Shankar also improved his national decathlon mark at the same Federation Cup meet.
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q3. In February 2026, which economic institution announced expanded guidelines for digital lending transparency?

  1. (a) Reserve Bank of India
  2. (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
  3. (c) Competition Commission of India
  4. (d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reserve Bank of India

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
TheReserve Bank of India (RBI)is the regulator responsible for digital lending oversight in India. It has progressively tightened digital lending transparency norms — via the Digital Lending Directions, 2025 (effective through 2025–26) and subsequent circulars/amendments (e.g., on Default Loss Guarantee disclosure norms) continuing into February 2026 — aimed at borrower protection and transparency.
Could not find one single named 'February 2026 expanded guidelines' press event; however, RBI is unambiguously the correct regulator among the four options (SEBI=securities, CCI=competition, IRDAI=insurance), and RBI's digital lending regulatory activity was active and evolving in that period, so the answer is treated as confirmed on institutional grounds.
Important Facts:
• RBI's Digital Lending Directions, 2025 consolidated earlier digital lending guidelines from its Working Group on Digital Lending.
• The directions cover conduct standards, data protection, and loss-sharing (DLG) arrangements for banks/NBFCs/LSPs.
• SEBI, CCI, and IRDAI do not regulate digital lending transparency.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q4. At the India AI Impact Summit 2026, which two AI-based healthcare initiatives did Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda launch on 17 February 2026?

  1. (a) NIRAMAY and PRAGATI
  2. (b) SEHAT and VIKAS
  3. (c) SAHI and BODH
  4. (d) AROGYA and SAKSHAM
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) SAHI and BODH

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – SAHI and BODH
Explanation:
Union Health MinisterJ.P. NaddalaunchedSAHIandBODH— two initiatives to build a responsible AI ecosystem in healthcare — at theIndia AI Impact Summit 2026held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 17 February 2026.
Important Facts:
• The launch aimed to set guardrails/standards for AI use in the health sector.
• Minister of State for Health Anupriya Patel was also associated with unveiling the SAHI framework.
• The India AI Impact Summit 2026 was a multi-day event focused on inclusive AI growth.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q5. In May 2026, India elevated its bilateral relations with Italy to the unique status that was previously held only with South Korea. What is this status?

  1. (a) Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership
  2. (b) Special Strategic Partnership
  3. (c) Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
  4. (d) Green Technology and Innovation Strategic Partnership
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Special Strategic Partnership

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Special Strategic Partnership
Explanation:
In May 2026, India and Italy elevated their bilateral ties to a'Special Strategic Partnership'— a designation India previously held exclusively with South Korea — marking a significant upgrade covering defence, trade, and technology cooperation (including the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, IMEC).
Important Facts:
• 'Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership' is a separate, distinct designation India holds with Russia.
• The elevation included a push on a bilateral defence-industrial roadmap.
• This was reported around 21 May 2026.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q6. Who authored the book "The Sage who Reimagined Hinduism: The Life, Lessons and Legacy of Sree Narayana Guru", released by Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan in New Delhi?

  1. (a) Dr. Kiran Bedi
  2. (b) Dr. S. Jaishankar
  3. (c) Dr. Bibek Debroy
  4. (d) Dr. Shashi Tharoor
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dr. Shashi Tharoor

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Dr. Shashi Tharoor
Explanation:
Dr. Shashi Tharoorauthored *'The Sage Who Reimagined Hinduism: The Life, Lessons and Legacy of Sree Narayana Guru'*, which was released by Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan in New Delhi (around 19 February 2026).
Important Facts:
• Sree Narayana Guru was a major social reformer and philosopher from Kerala.
• Tharoor is a Member of Parliament from Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
• The book examines the Guru's philosophy of 'one caste, one religion, one God for mankind'.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q7. In March 2026, Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh was in the news because the total number of cheetahs in India increased to _____ following the birth of five cheetah cubs.

  1. (a) 67
  2. (b) 53
  3. (c) 32
  4. (d) 41
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 53

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 53
Explanation:
In March 2026, five cheetah cubs were born at Kuno National Park (Madhya Pradesh) under Project Cheetah, taking India's total cheetah population past 50 to53.
Important Facts:
• Project Cheetah began in 2022 with cheetahs translocated from Namibia and South Africa.
• The cheetah 'Gamini' had earlier given birth to cubs, contributing to population growth.
• Kuno National Park is the primary reintroduction site for cheetahs in India.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q8. In May 2026, under declarations of a Public Health Emergency of International Concern and a Public Health Emergency of Continental Security, which two countries were officially identified by the WHO and the Africa Centres for Disease Control and Prevention for an outbreak of Ebola virus disease (Bundibugyo strain)?

  1. (a) Democratic Republic of the Congo and Rwanda
  2. (b) Uganda and Tanzania
  3. (c) Kenya and Uganda
  4. (d) Democratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Democratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Democratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda
Explanation:
The 2026 outbreak of Ebola virus disease caused by the Bundibugyo strain was identified in theDemocratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda, prompting WHO and Africa CDC emergency declarations and disease outbreak news bulletins.
Important Facts:
• The Bundibugyo ebolavirus is one of several known Ebolavirus species, first identified in Uganda in 2007.
• WHO's Disease Outbreak News tracked multiple updates on this outbreak through 2026.
• Africa CDC can declare a 'Public Health Emergency of Continental Security' (PHECS) for the continent.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q9. At the EDP Lisbon Half Marathon held in Portugal in March 2026, a World Athletics Platinum Label road race, which Ugandan long-distance runner broke the men's half marathon world record?

  1. (a) Sabastian Sawe
  2. (b) Rhonex Kipruto
  3. (c) Jacob Kiplimo
  4. (d) Yomif Kejelcha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jacob Kiplimo

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Jacob Kiplimo
Explanation:
Uganda'sJacob Kiplimoreclaimed the men's half marathon world record with a time of57:20at the EDP Lisbon Half Marathon in March 2026.
Important Facts:
• Kiplimo is also a world record holder/former holder in the 5,000m and 10,000m on the track.
• The Lisbon Half Marathon is a World Athletics Platinum Label road race.
• Sabastian Sawe (Kenya) is a separate elite marathon/half-marathon runner, not the record-breaker here.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q10. Which national organization launched the Central Prabhari Officer (CPO) Portal in May 2026 for improving real-time governance and last-mile delivery?

  1. (a) National Statistical Office
  2. (b) NITI Aayog
  3. (c) National Development Council
  4. (d) Competition Commission of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) NITI Aayog

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – NITI Aayog
Explanation:
NITI Aayoglaunched theCentral Prabhari Officer (CPO) Portalin May 2026 (around 6 May 2026) to strengthen real-time governance and last-mile delivery, particularly under the Aspirational Districts Programme.
Important Facts:
• Central Prabhari Officers submit field observations/recommendations in real time via the portal.
• The portal supports monitoring of Aspirational Districts and Blocks.
• NITI Aayog is India's premier policy think tank, replacing the Planning Commission.
State News · State elections and results

Q11. Who took oath as Chief Minister of West Bengal at Brigade Parade Ground in Kolkata on 9 May 2026?

  1. (a) Suvendu Adhikari
  2. (b) Sukanta Majumdar
  3. (c) Mamata Banerjee
  4. (d) Dilip Ghosh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Suvendu Adhikari

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Suvendu Adhikari
Explanation:
Suvendu Adhikaritook oath as Chief Minister of West Bengal at Brigade Parade Ground, Kolkata, on 9 May 2026, becoming the BJP's first Chief Minister of the state, in the presence of PM Modi and other senior leaders.
Important Facts:
• This ended the long tenure of Mamata Banerjee (TMC) as West Bengal CM.
• Suvendu Adhikari was earlier the Leader of Opposition in the West Bengal Assembly.
• He had switched from TMC to BJP before the 2021 assembly elections.
Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q12. Which Indian public sector bank announced the opening of its 10,000th branch in November 2025?

  1. (a) Axis Bank
  2. (b) HDFC Bank
  3. (c) Canara Bank
  4. (d) Indian Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Canara Bank

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Canara Bank
Explanation:
Canara Bankopened its10,000th branchat Budigere Cross, Bengaluru, on19 November 2025, coinciding with the bank's 120th Founders' Day celebrations.
Important Facts:
• Canara Bank was founded in 1906 by Ammembal Subba Rao Pai.
• Axis Bank and HDFC Bank are private sector banks, not public sector.
• Indian Bank is also a public sector bank but was not the one reaching 10,000 branches at that time.
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q13. In May 2026, Péter Magyar, who took oath as Prime Minister after the Tisza Party's electoral victory, became the Prime Minister of which European country?

  1. (a) Slovakia
  2. (b) Romania
  3. (c) Hungary
  4. (d) Poland
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hungary

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Hungary
Explanation:
Péter Magyar, leader of theTisza Party, was sworn in as Prime Minister ofHungaryon 9 May 2026, ending Viktor Orbán's 16-year rule, following a landslide victory in the April 2026 Hungarian parliamentary election.
Important Facts:
• Viktor Orbán had been Hungary's PM continuously since 2010 (and earlier 1998-2002).
• Magyar is a former member of Orbán's Fidesz party who later founded/led Tisza as an opposition force.
• The Tisza Party's rise reshaped Hungarian and broader EU politics.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q14. Which of these Indian institutes launched the Bharat Cancer Genome Atlas in February 2026 to create India's first comprehensive cancer genome database?

  1. (a) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
  3. (c) Apollo Proton Cancer Centre, Chennai
  4. (d) Gujarat Cancer & Research Institute, Ahmedabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Indian Institute of Technology, Madras

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
Explanation:
IIT Madraslaunched theBharat Cancer Genome Atlas (BCGA)in February 2026, releasing India's first comprehensive cancer genome database, including data on paediatric leukaemia, colorectal, and pancreatic cancers, to identify India-specific biomarkers.
Important Facts:
• The initiative also includes the 'Bharat Cancer Genome Grid (BCG2)'.
• It aims to enable India-specific cancer research rather than relying solely on Western genomic datasets.
• IISc Bengaluru and Apollo/Gujarat Cancer Institute were not the lead institutions for this specific atlas.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q15. The theme “Resourcing Viksit Bharat” was associated with which conference held in January 2026?

  1. (a) Raisina Dialogue 2026
  2. (b) SKOCH Summit 2026
  3. (c) Startup Mahakumbh 2026
  4. (d) India Digital Summit 2026
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) SKOCH Summit 2026

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – SKOCH Summit 2026
Explanation:
The104th SKOCH Summit 2026, held in January 2026, was themed'Resourcing Viksit Bharat', focusing on financing and resource strategies to achieve the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.
Important Facts:
• SKOCH Summits are held periodically by the SKOCH Group, a think tank/media group, on governance and development themes.
• Raisina Dialogue is a separate annual geopolitics conference.
• Startup Mahakumbh focuses on India's startup ecosystem.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q16. Which country hosted the 2026 Commonwealth Youth and Junior Weightlifting Championships conducted at the Tuanaimato Sports Complex in Apia during April–May 2026?

  1. (a) Vanuatu
  2. (b) Tonga
  3. (c) Fiji
  4. (d) Samoa
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Samoa

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Samoa
Explanation:
Samoahosted the 2026 Commonwealth Youth and Junior Weightlifting Championships (alongside the Oceania Championships and an IWF World Cup) at the Tuanaimato Sports Complex in Apia during April–May 2026.
Important Facts:
• Samoa has a strong weightlifting tradition and has hosted multiple regional/international weightlifting events.
• Apia is the capital city of Samoa.
• The event combined World Cup, Oceania, and Commonwealth championship competitions.

Economics (3)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q17. In January 2026, the One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) initiative mainly aimed to improve access to which resource?

  1. (a) National digital television channels
  2. (b) Government land record databases
  3. (c) International academic research journals
  4. (d) Public sector employment portals
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) International academic research journals

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – International academic research journals
Explanation:
TheOne Nation One Subscription (ONOS)initiative of the Government of India provides researchers, faculty and students at government higher-education and R&D institutions with seamless access to over 13,000 international peer-reviewed e-journals from major global publishers.
ONOS was formally launched on 1 January 2025; reports around early 2026 (e.g., first-year usage data of 11–12 crore article downloads) continued to highlight the scheme, so the 'January 2026' framing likely refers to this ongoing coverage rather than a fresh launch — the substantive fact (its purpose = access to research journals) is well confirmed.
Important Facts:
• ONOS is implemented by the Department of Higher Education via the INFLIBNET Centre (UGC).
• It covers over 6,300 government higher education institutions.
• The scheme recorded over 11–12 crore research article accesses in its first year.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q18. What is the name of the initiative proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27 to strengthen the ecosystem for the production of biologics and biosimilars in India?

  1. (a) Pharma Vision 2030
  2. (b) BioIndia Mission
  3. (c) National Biologics Development Scheme
  4. (d) Biopharma SHAKTI
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Biopharma SHAKTI

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Biopharma SHAKTI
Explanation:
The Union Budget 2026–27 proposed the'Biopharma SHAKTI'scheme, with an outlay of around ₹10,000 crore, to strengthen India's ecosystem for biologics and biosimilars production and position India as a global biopharma hub.
Important Facts:
• The scheme was announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on 1 February 2026.
• It aims to boost domestic manufacturing capacity for complex biologic drugs.
• It complements existing PLI schemes for pharmaceuticals.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q19. Under the Union Budget 2026–27, customs duty exemptions on specified imported medicines and drugs were announced mainly to provide relief to patients suffering from which of the following diseases?

  1. (a) Dengue
  2. (b) Diabetes
  3. (c) Cancer
  4. (d) Tuberculosis
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cancer

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Cancer
Explanation:
In the Union Budget 2026–27, basic customs duty was exempted on 17 additional drugs and medicines forcancerpatients (along with medicines for certain rare diseases), continuing a trend from the 2024 and 2025 budgets of easing import duties on life-saving cancer drugs.
Important Facts:
• Union Budget 2024-25 had exempted customs duty on 3 cancer drugs.
• Union Budget 2025-26 fully exempted 36 life-saving medicines from customs duty.
• The 2026-27 budget extended relief to cover 7 rare diseases as well.

Static GK (1)

Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q20. Which of the following flagship government initiatives does the 'Sundays on Cycle' campaign in February 2026 directly support, aiming to foster active community participation and healthy living?

  1. (a) Khelo India Mission
  2. (b) National Health Mission
  3. (c) Fit India Movement
  4. (d) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fit India Movement

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Fit India Movement
Explanation:
'Sundays on Cycle'is a recurring weekly cycling initiative organised under theFit India Movement(Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports) to promote community participation in physical activity. Editions continued into 2026, with the 62nd edition led by Union Minister Mansukh Mandaviya in February 2026.
Important Facts:
• The Fit India Movement was launched by PM Modi in August 2019.
• 'Sundays on Cycle' has drawn over 22 million cumulative participants across editions.
• It is distinct from Khelo India, which focuses on competitive sports infrastructure and talent.

Chemistry (8)

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q21. Which of the following is a characteristic property of a suspension?

  1. (a) Its components cannot be separated
  2. (b) It is a true solution
  3. (c) It only burns with a blue flame
  4. (d) Its particles can be seen with the naked eye
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Its particles can be seen with the naked eye

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Its particles can be seen with the naked eye
Explanation:
A suspension is aheterogeneousmixture in which relatively large solute particles remainvisible to the naked eyeand are not truly dissolved. These particles scatter light, settle down on standing, and can be separated by filtration.
Important Facts:
• Suspension particles are larger than 1000 nm (e.g., muddy water, chalk in water).
• Suspensions show the Tyndall effect and can be separated by simple filtration.
• A true solution is homogeneous with particles too small to be seen (unlike a suspension).
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q22. Consider the following reactions:(I) Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)(II) AgNO₃(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO₃(aq)(III) CaCO₃(s) —Heat→ CaO(s) + CO₂(g)(IV) Fe(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)Which of the above reactions are precipitation reactions?

  1. (a) Only I and III
  2. (b) Only I and II
  3. (c) Only II and IV
  4. (d) Only III and IV
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only I and II

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only I and II
Explanation:
Aprecipitation reactionis one in which two soluble salts react to form aninsoluble solid (precipitate). Reaction I formsBaSO₄(insoluble) and Reaction II formsAgCl(insoluble) — both precipitation reactions. Reaction III is athermal decompositionreaction, and Reaction IV is adisplacement (redox)reaction, not classified as precipitation.
Important Facts:
• Precipitation reactions are a type of double displacement (metathesis) reaction.
• CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ on heating is a decomposition reaction.
• Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu is a single displacement reaction (Fe displaces Cu).
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q23. The formula unit mass of ammonium sulphate, (NH₄)₂SO₄, is:

  1. (a) 132 u
  2. (b) 114 u
  3. (c) 118 u
  4. (d) 136 u
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 132 u

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – 132 u
Explanation:
Formula unit mass of (NH₄)₂SO₄ = 2×(N) + 8×(H) + 1×(S) + 4×(O) = 2(14) + 8(1) + 32 + 4(16) = 28 + 8 + 32 + 64 =132 u.
Important Facts:
• Atomic masses used: N = 14 u, H = 1 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u.
• Formula unit mass is used for ionic compounds (instead of molecular mass).
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Ions and radicals

Q24. What is formed when a non-metal gains electrons?

  1. (a) Cation
  2. (b) Neutral
  3. (c) Anion
  4. (d) Proton
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anion

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Anion
Explanation:
When a non-metal atomgains electrons, it acquires a netnegative charge, forming a negatively charged ion called ananion(e.g., Cl⁻, O²⁻). Losing electrons instead produces a positively chargedcation.
Important Facts:
• Metals typically lose electrons to form cations.
• Non-metals typically gain electrons to form anions, achieving a stable octet.
Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q25. Which equation correctly represents the reaction between calcium and cold water?

  1. (a) Ca + H₂O → CaH₂ + O₂
  2. (b) Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂
  3. (c) Ca + H₂O → CaOH₂ + H₂
  4. (d) 2Ca + H₂O → 2CaOH + H₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂
Explanation:
Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas:Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂↑. This is a correctly balanced equation (1 Ca, 4 H, 2 O on each side).
Important Facts:
• This reaction is moderately vigorous; the released heat is not enough to ignite the H₂ gas.
• Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂) is also known as slaked lime.
Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q26. Carbon forms millions of stable compounds, unlike most other elements. Which combination of properties best explains this behavior?

  1. (a) High chemical reactivity and tetravalency together
  2. (b) Presence of isotopes and nuclear stability
  3. (c) Low atomic mass and small atomic size
  4. (d) Strong covalent bonding and tetravalency together
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Strong covalent bonding and tetravalency together

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Strong covalent bonding and tetravalency together
Explanation:
Carbon has 4 valence electrons, giving ittetravalency(forms 4 covalent bonds), and its small size allows it to formstrong covalent bonds, including with itself (catenation). This combination of tetravalency and strong covalent bonding lets carbon form long chains, rings, and branched structures, resulting in millions of stable compounds.
Important Facts:
• Catenation (self-linking) is exceptionally strong in carbon due to strong C-C bonds.
• Carbon is not highly chemically reactive under normal conditions — its stability comes from strong covalent bonds, not high reactivity.
Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q27. Which pH range is best for most plants to grow in garden soil?

  1. (a) Between pH 6 and pH 7.5
  2. (b) Between pH 4 and pH 5
  3. (c) Between pH 8.5 and pH 9.5
  4. (d) Between pH 3 and pH 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Between pH 6 and pH 7.5

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Between pH 6 and pH 7.5
Explanation:
Most garden plants grow best inslightly acidic to neutral soil, typically in thepH range of 6 to 7.5, as this range allows optimal availability of essential nutrients to plant roots.
Important Facts:
• Very acidic (pH 3-5) or very alkaline (pH 8.5-9.5) soils can limit nutrient uptake and harm most plants.
• Some specific plants (e.g., blueberries) prefer more acidic soil, but this is an exception, not the general rule.
Carbon and its Compounds · Hydrocarbons - alkanes, alkenes, alkynes

Q28. What is the general formula for alkanes with 'n' carbon atoms?

  1. (a) CₙH₂ₙ
  2. (b) CₙH₂ₙ₊₁
  3. (c) CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
  4. (d) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
Explanation:
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with only single bonds, following the general formulaCₙH₂ₙ₊₂(e.g., methane CH₄, ethane C₂H₆, propane C₃H₈).
Important Facts:
• Alkenes (one double bond) follow CₙH₂ₙ.
• Alkynes (one triple bond) follow CₙH₂ₙ₋₂.

Biology (6)

Control and Coordination · Peripheral and autonomic nervous system

Q29. Which type of nerves arise from the brain in humans?

  1. (a) Motor nerves
  2. (b) Cranial nerves
  3. (c) Autonomic nerves
  4. (d) Spinal nerves
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cranial nerves

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Cranial nerves
Explanation:
Cranial nervesare the 12 pairs of nerves that arise directly from thebrain(mainly the brainstem) and supply the head, neck, and some thoracic/abdominal organs. Spinal nerves, by contrast, arise from the spinal cord.
Important Facts:
• Humans have 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
• Examples of cranial nerves: Olfactory, Optic, Vagus, Facial.
• Motor and autonomic nerves are functional classifications, not origin-based.
Ecology and Environment · Biogeochemical cycles

Q30. In which combined form is oxygen found in the air besides free O₂?

  1. (a) Nitrogen gas
  2. (b) Carbon dioxide
  3. (c) Methane
  4. (d) Argon
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Carbon dioxide

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Besides free (uncombined) oxygen gas (O₂), oxygen also exists in air in acombined formas part ofcarbon dioxide (CO₂), and also as water vapour (H₂O). Nitrogen, methane, and argon do not contain oxygen.
Important Facts:
• Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and ~0.04% CO₂ (plus trace gases like argon).
• Oxygen is also combined in atmospheric water vapour.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q31. A desert plant absorbs carbon dioxide at night and uses it during the day for photosynthesis. Which property of photosynthesis does this illustrate?

  1. (a) Carbon dioxide is not required for photosynthesis in desert plants
  2. (b) Photosynthesis can involve intermediate compounds stored for later use
  3. (c) Water is unnecessary for photosynthesis in desert plants
  4. (d) Photosynthesis occurs only at night in desert plants
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Photosynthesis can involve intermediate compounds stored for later use

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Photosynthesis can involve intermediate compounds stored for later use
Explanation:
This describesCAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism)photosynthesis, found in many desert plants. These plants open their stomata atnightto absorb CO₂ (minimizing water loss in daytime heat) andstore it as an intermediate organic acid, which is then usedduring the dayfor the light-dependent photosynthetic reactions when stomata remain closed.
Important Facts:
• CAM plants include cacti, pineapple, and other succulents adapted to arid conditions.
• This adaptation conserves water by avoiding daytime stomatal opening.
• CO₂ and water are both still essential for photosynthesis in these plants.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Excretory system - kidney and nephron

Q32. Which organ directly filters nitrogenous waste from human blood?

  1. (a) Liver
  2. (b) Lungs
  3. (c) Kidneys
  4. (d) Heart
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kidneys

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Kidneys
Explanation:
Thekidneysfilter nitrogenous wastes (like urea, uric acid, and creatinine) directly from the blood through structural/functional units callednephrons, forming urine that is eventually excreted.
Important Facts:
• The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron.
• The liver produces urea (from ammonia) but does not filter it from blood — that is the kidney's role.
• Lungs remove CO₂, not nitrogenous waste.
Human Body - General Facts · Skeletal system and bones

Q33. Which of the following is NOT a part of the musculoskeletal system?

  1. (a) Muscles
  2. (b) Bones
  3. (c) Tendons
  4. (d) Nephrons
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nephrons

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Nephrons
Explanation:
Nephronsare the microscopic filtering units of thekidney(excretory system), not part of the musculoskeletal system. Muscles, bones, and tendons are all structural/functional components of the musculoskeletal system.
Important Facts:
• The musculoskeletal system includes bones, muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joints.
• Nephrons belong to the urinary/excretory system.
Reproduction · Vegetative propagation

Q34. Farmers use cutting, grafting, and tissue culture to grow many plants with the same useful traits. These methods are preferred as:

  1. (a) They produce genetically identical plants.
  2. (b) They depend on pollinating insects.
  3. (c) They stop flowering in plants.
  4. (d) They always create new varieties.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They produce genetically identical plants.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – They produce genetically identical plants.
Explanation:
Cutting, grafting, and tissue culture are methods ofasexual (vegetative) propagation. Since no gametes/fertilization are involved, the offspring aregenetically identical (clones)to the parent plant, preserving desirable traits exactly — which is why they are preferred over sexual reproduction for propagating useful varieties.
Important Facts:
• Vegetative propagation does not depend on pollinating insects (that's needed for sexual reproduction).
• These methods preserve existing traits rather than creating new varieties.
• Tissue culture (micropropagation) can rapidly produce many identical plantlets from a small tissue sample.

Physics (10)

Pressure, Fluids and Properties of Matter · Thrust and pressure

Q35. In terms of potential, why does water not flow in a perfectly horizontal tube?

  1. (a) Because there is no pressure difference between the two ends
  2. (b) Because there is no tank connected
  3. (c) Because the tube is made of plastic
  4. (d) Because gravity does not act on horizontal water
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Because there is no pressure difference between the two ends

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Because there is no pressure difference between the two ends
Explanation:
Fluid flows from a region of higher potential (pressure/height) to lower potential. In a perfectlyhorizontal tube, both ends are at the same height, so there isno pressure difference(no potential gradient) to drive the flow, and the water remains static.
Important Facts:
• Fluid flow requires a pressure or potential difference between two points.
• Gravity does act on the water, but it contributes equally at both ends of a horizontal tube.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q36. If the velocity-time graph of a moving object shows a straight line parallel to the time axis, what can be concluded about the object's acceleration?

  1. (a) The object has negative acceleration
  2. (b) The object has uniform acceleration
  3. (c) The object has zero acceleration
  4. (d) The object has changing acceleration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The object has zero acceleration

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The object has zero acceleration
Explanation:
A straight lineparallel to the time axison a velocity-time graph means the velocity staysconstantover time. Since acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, a constant velocity implieszero acceleration.
Important Facts:
• Slope of a v-t graph gives acceleration.
• A straight line with a slope indicates uniform (non-zero) acceleration; a horizontal line indicates zero acceleration.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Prism and dispersion of light

Q37. Why does the beam of light emerging from a prism show different colours instead of a single white band?

  1. (a) All colours emerge parallel to each other
  2. (b) Some colours get absorbed
  3. (c) Each colour bends at a different angle
  4. (d) All colours bend at the same angle
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Each colour bends at a different angle

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Each colour bends at a different angle
Explanation:
White light is made of several colours (wavelengths). Each colour has adifferent refractive indexin glass, so each colourbends (refracts) by a different anglewhen passing through a prism. This causes the colours to spread out (disperse) into a spectrum (VIBGYOR) instead of exiting as a single white band.
Important Facts:
• This phenomenon is called dispersion of light.
• Violet bends the most and red the least, since violet has the shortest wavelength and highest refractive index.
• A rainbow forms due to dispersion, refraction, and internal reflection of sunlight in water droplets.
Modern Physics and Electronics · Electromagnetic spectrum and radiations

Q38. A scientist is investigating why certain EM waves from the Sun do not reach the Earth's surface. Which property of gamma rays primarily explains their absence at ground level?

  1. (a) They are reflected by Earth's surface
  2. (b) They are scattered by clouds
  3. (c) They are absorbed by upper atmosphere
  4. (d) They have long wavelength
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They are absorbed by upper atmosphere

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – They are absorbed by upper atmosphere
Explanation:
Gamma rays (and X-rays, most UV) from the Sun areabsorbed by the upper layers of the atmosphere(ozone layer and ionosphere), so they do not reach the Earth's surface in significant amounts. This absorption protects life on Earth from their harmful, high-energy ionizing radiation.
Important Facts:
• Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength and highest frequency/energy in the EM spectrum (not long wavelength).
• The ozone layer mainly absorbs harmful UV radiation; the upper atmosphere absorbs gamma/X-rays.
• Radio waves and visible light pass through the atmosphere with little absorption.
Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q39. A group of engineers has been tasked with designing a lecture hall for maximum speech intelligibility. Which combination of features should they prioritize to minimize reverberation?

  1. (a) Soft wall coverings, acoustic ceiling tiles, and cushioned seating
  2. (b) High ceiling with reflective panels
  3. (c) Polished stone floors and glass walls
  4. (d) Cushioned seating with bare walls and floors
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Soft wall coverings, acoustic ceiling tiles, and cushioned seating

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Soft wall coverings, acoustic ceiling tiles, and cushioned seating
Explanation:
Reverberation (persistence of sound due to multiple reflections) is minimized by usingsound-absorbing materials.Soft wall coverings, acoustic ceiling tiles, and cushioned/upholstered seatingall absorb sound energy rather than reflecting it, reducing echo and improving speech clarity.
Important Facts:
• Hard, smooth, reflective surfaces (glass, polished stone, bare walls) increase reverberation.
• Auditoriums and concert halls use acoustic tiles, carpets, and curtains to control reverberation time.
• Excessive reverberation reduces speech intelligibility by overlapping successive sounds.
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's second law and momentum

Q40. If a car and a truck are pushed with the same force, which will accelerate more according to the second law of motion?

  1. (a) The car will accelerate more
  2. (b) Both will accelerate equally
  3. (c) The truck will accelerate more
  4. (d) Neither will accelerate
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The car will accelerate more

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The car will accelerate more
Explanation:
By Newton's second law,a = F/m. For the same applied force F, acceleration isinversely proportional to mass. Since a car has much less mass than a truck, thecar will accelerate morethan the truck under the same force.
Important Facts:
• Newton's Second Law: F = ma, so a = F/m.
• Greater mass means greater inertia and hence smaller acceleration for a given force.
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q41. During an experiment, a student gradually lowers the angle of an ideal ramp while pulling a toy cart to the same height. What observation should the student expect?

  1. (a) The force required remains constant.
  2. (b) The cart gains less potential energy.
  3. (c) The force required decreases.
  4. (d) The force required increases.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The force required decreases.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The force required decreases.
Explanation:
For an ideal (frictionless) ramp, the work done to raise the cart to a fixed height is constant:Work = Force × distance along the ramp = mgh(a fixed value). As the ramp angle is lowered, the length of the incline needed to reach the same heightincreases, so theforce required decreasesproportionally (a mechanical advantage effect of the inclined plane).
Important Facts:
• An inclined plane is a simple machine: lower angle → longer path → less force needed for the same work.
• The work done and the potential energy gained (mgh) remain the same regardless of the ramp's angle (ideal case).
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q42. If a copper wire and an iron wire of the same length and cross-sectional area are compared, which wire will have higher resistance?

  1. (a) Equal in both
  2. (b) Cannot be determined
  3. (c) Iron wire
  4. (d) Copper wire
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Iron wire

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Iron wire
Explanation:
Resistance R = ρL/A, where ρ is resistivity. For the same length (L) and area (A), resistance depends only onresistivity.Iron has a much higher electrical resistivity (~10 × 10⁻⁸ Ωm) than copper (~1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ωm), so theiron wire has higher resistance.
Important Facts:
• Copper is a better electrical conductor than iron, which is why copper is used in electrical wiring.
• Resistivity is a material property independent of the wire's dimensions.
Work, Energy and Power · Conservation and transformation of energy

Q43. A ball rolls down a hill without any friction and reaches the bottom. Which of the following statements best describes how energy is transformed as the ball moves?

  1. (a) As the ball rolls, its total energy increases
  2. (b) The ball's potential energy decreases while its kinetic energy increases
  3. (c) As the ball moves, both potential and kinetic energy increase
  4. (d) As the ball moves downward, its kinetic energy keeps decreasing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The ball's potential energy decreases while its kinetic energy increases

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – The ball's potential energy decreases while its kinetic energy increases
Explanation:
By the law of conservation of energy, in the absence of friction, the ball'stotal mechanical energy remains constant. As the ball rolls down, itsheight decreases, so itspotential energy decreases, and this lost potential energy is converted intokinetic energy, which correspondinglyincreases.
Important Facts:
• Total mechanical energy (PE + KE) stays constant in the absence of friction.
• PE = mgh decreases as height decreases; KE = ½mv² increases as speed increases.
Sound and Waves · Wave characteristics (frequency, wavelength, amplitude, time period)

Q44. A wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a wavelength of 1.7 m. What does their product represent?

  1. (a) The period of the wave
  2. (b) The amplitude of the wave
  3. (c) The speed of the wave
  4. (d) The loudness of the wave
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The speed of the wave

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The speed of the wave
Explanation:
The wave equation states thatwave speed (v) = frequency (f) × wavelength (λ). Thus, the product of frequency (200 Hz) and wavelength (1.7 m) gives thespeed of the wave(= 340 m/s, approximately the speed of sound in air).
Important Facts:
• v = f × λ is a fundamental relation for all types of waves.
• The period (T) is the reciprocal of frequency: T = 1/f.
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