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RRB Group D 2025-26 3 August 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 41 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 3 August 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Static GK, Chemistry, Biology, Physics.

📚 41 questions🗓️ 3 August 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (14) · Economics (3) · Static GK (1) · Chemistry (8) · Biology (7) · Physics (8)

Current Affairs (14)

State News · State schemes and events

Q1. Which of the following states organised the Idhu Namma Aattam (CM Youth Festival) held in 2026?

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: Option 4 — Tamil Nadu
"Idhu Namma Aattam" (CM Youth Festival) 2026 was organised byTamil Nadu→ Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Q2. As per National Sports Governance (National Sports Board) Rules, 2026, the National Sports Board shall consist of a ___________________.

  1. (a) Chairperson and five Members
  2. (b) Chairperson and three Members
  3. (c) Chairperson and four Members
  4. (d) Chairperson and two Members
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chairperson and two Members

Answer: Option 4 — Chairperson and two Members
Under the National Sports Governance (National Sports Board) Rules 2026, the Board has aChairperson and two Members→ Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q3. In 2026, the Padma Vibhushan was awarded to a notable figure who has made pioneering contributions to Hindustani classical music and is renowned globally as a violin maestro. Which personality is being described?

  1. (a) Bhimsen Joshi
  2. (b) Ravi Shankar
  3. (c) N Rajam
  4. (d) Zakir Hussain
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) N Rajam

Answer: Option 3 — N Rajam
The 2026 Padma Vibhushan violin maestro of Hindustani classical music isDr. N. Rajam→ Option 3.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q4. Who assumed the charge as Controller General of Defence Accounts (CGDA) in May 2026?

  1. (a) Anugraha Narayana Das
  2. (b) Vishvajit Sahay
  3. (c) Sanjay Jamuar
  4. (d) Dilip Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Anugraha Narayana Das

Answer: Option 1 — Anugraha Narayana Das
Anugraha Narayana Dastook charge as CGDA in May 2026 → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q5. Which venue hosted the India–AI Impact Summit 2026?

  1. (a) Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
  2. (b) India International Centre, New Delhi
  3. (c) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
  4. (d) Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi

Answer: Option 3 — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
The India–AI Impact Summit 2026 was hosted atBharat Mandapam, New Delhi→ Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q6. India’s 3D-printed Automatic Weather Stations, developed in 2025, are part of which national initiative aimed at improving weather forecasting?

  1. (a) National Climate Action Plan
  2. (b) National Weather Forecasting Mission
  3. (c) Mission Meghdoot
  4. (d) Mission Mausam
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mission Mausam

Answer: Option 4 — Mission Mausam
India's 3D-printed Automatic Weather Stations are part ofMission Mausam(weather-forecasting initiative) → Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q7. Which organization conducted the successful flight-test of the Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM) on June 15, 2026?

  1. (a) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
  2. (b) Indian Air Force (IAF)
  3. (c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  4. (d) Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)

Answer: Option 4 — DRDO
TheDRDOflight-tested the LRLACM (June 2026) → Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q8. When was the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) 5.0 launched by the Government of India?

  1. (a) January 2026
  2. (b) May 2026
  3. (c) March 2026
  4. (d) June 2026
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) May 2026

Answer: Option 2 — May 2026
ECLGS 5.0 was launched inMay 2026→ Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q9. _________ birth anniversary of Rabindranath Tagore was observed in India on May 7th, 2026.

  1. (a) 175th
  2. (b) 165th
  3. (c) 155th
  4. (d) 150th
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 165th

Answer: Option 2 — 165th
Rabindranath Tagore was born in 1861, so 7 May 2026 marks his165thbirth anniversary → Option 2.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q10. Which of the following received the 2026 UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize in recognition of its efforts to defend press freedom and condemn the deliberate targeting of journalists during the ongoing conflict in Sudan?

  1. (a) Committee to Protect Journalists
  2. (b) Sudanese Journalists Syndicate
  3. (c) International Federation of Journalists
  4. (d) Reporters Without Borders
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sudanese Journalists Syndicate

Answer: Option 2 — Sudanese Journalists Syndicate
The 2026 UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize went to theSudanese Journalists Syndicate→ Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Q11. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2026, into how many streams must solid waste be segregated at its source?

  1. (a) Two streams
  2. (b) Five streams
  3. (c) Four streams
  4. (d) Three streams
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Four streams

Answer: Option 3 — Four streams
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2026, waste is segregated at source intofour streams→ Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q12. Which nation ranked at the absolute bottom of the 2025/26 global Women, Peace and Security Index?

  1. (a) Yemen
  2. (b) Syria
  3. (c) Afghanistan
  4. (d) Somalia
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Afghanistan

Answer: Option 3 — Afghanistan
Afghanistanranked at the very bottom of the 2025/26 Women, Peace and Security Index → Option 3.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q13. Which two defense organisations successfully tested the Naval Anti-Ship Missile–Short Range (NASM-SR) in April 2026?

  1. (a) National Investigation Authority and Central Reserve Police Force
  2. (b) Defense Research and Development Organisation and the Indian Navy
  3. (c) Indian Army and Indian Air Force
  4. (d) Armed Forces Special Operations Division and Indian Coast Guard
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Defense Research and Development Organisation and the Indian Navy

Answer: Option 2 — DRDO and the Indian Navy
NASM-SR (April 2026) was tested byDRDO and the Indian Navy→ Option 2.
Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q14. Which port emerged as India’s largest automobile export hub setting a national record by shipping 6,008 cars in a single vessel in April 2026?

  1. (a) Visakhapatnam Port
  2. (b) Paradip Port
  3. (c) Kandla Port
  4. (d) Mundra Port
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mundra Port

Answer: Option 4 — Mundra Port
Mundra Portset the record shipping 6,008 cars in a single vessel (April 2026) → Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Economics (3)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q15. In the Union Budget 2026–2027, the announcement of establishing NIMHANS-2 in northern India is related to which sector?

  1. (a) Higher Education Policy Reform
  2. (b) Renewable Energy Development
  3. (c) Mental Health and Neurosciences Infrastructure
  4. (d) Agricultural Development
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mental Health and Neurosciences Infrastructure

Answer: Option 3 — Mental Health and Neurosciences Infrastructure
NIMHANS-2 relates tomental health and neurosciencesinfrastructure → Option 3.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q16. In the Union Budget 2026–27, what percentage share of the total public expenditure is constituted by the Gender Budget?

  1. (a) 6.80% of the total budget
  2. (b) 8.86% of the total budget
  3. (c) 9.37% of the total budget
  4. (d) 11.36% of the total budget
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 9.37% of the total budget

Answer: Option 3 — 9.37% of the total budget
The Gender Budget in Union Budget 2026–27 is about9.37%of total expenditure → Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q17. The Union Budget 2026–27 allocated how much funding over five years to support Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS) development?

  1. (a) ₹20,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹15,000 crore
  3. (c) ₹5,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹10,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ₹20,000 crore

Answer: Option 1 — ₹20,000 crore
The Budget 2026–27 allocated₹20,000 croreover five years for CCUS → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Static GK (1)

Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q18. The Australian Open 2026 belonged to which category of international sporting events?

  1. (a) Davis Cup international competition
  2. (b) ATP Finals championship event
  3. (c) UEFA Champions League
  4. (d) Grand Slam tennis tournament
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Grand Slam tennis tournament

Answer: Option 4 — Grand Slam tennis tournament
TheAustralian Openis one of the four tennisGrand Slamtournaments → Option 4.

Chemistry (8)

Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q19. Which process is commonly used to extract iron, a metal in the middle of the activity series, from its ore?

  1. (a) Reduction with carbon (coke)
  2. (b) Electrolytic reduction
  3. (c) Reduction with hydrogen
  4. (d) Thermal decomposition
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reduction with carbon (coke)

Answer: Option 1 — Reduction with carbon (coke)
Metals in themiddleof the activity series (like iron, zinc) are extracted byreducing their oxides with carbon (coke)in a blast furnace. (Highly reactive metals need electrolysis.) → Option 1.
Structure of Atom · Discovery of electron, proton and neutron

Q20. Which of the following statements about neutrons is correct?

  1. (a) Neutrons are negatively charged and found in the outermost shell
  2. (b) Neutrons revolve around the nucleus like electrons
  3. (c) Neutrons have no charge and are found in the nucleus of an atom
  4. (d) Neutrons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Neutrons have no charge and are found in the nucleus of an atom

Answer: Option 3 — No charge and found in the nucleus
Neutrons areelectrically neutral (no charge)and lie in thenucleusalong with protons → Option 3.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures

Q21. A student mixes oil and water in a beaker and notices two separate layers. Which explanation best fits this observation?

  1. (a) Oil and water form a homogeneous mixture with a single phase
  2. (b) Oil and water form a heterogeneous mixture because their components are not uniformly distributed
  3. (c) Oil dissolves completely in water to form a uniform solution
  4. (d) Oil and water chemically react to form a new compound
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Oil and water form a heterogeneous mixture because their components are not uniformly distributed

Answer: Option 2 — Heterogeneous mixture (components not uniformly distributed)
Oil and water areimmiscibleand form two visible layers — aheterogeneous mixture→ Option 2.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q22. Given that the atomic masses of C = 12 u, O = 16 u and H = 1 u, which of the following options correctly represents the molecular masses of CO₂ and H₂O?

  1. (a) CO₂ = 46 u ; H₂O = 20 u
  2. (b) CO₂ = 32 u ; H₂O = 18 u
  3. (c) CO₂ = 44 u ; H₂O = 18 u
  4. (d) CO₂ = 44 u ; H₂O = 16 u
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) CO₂ = 44 u ; H₂O = 18 u

Answer: Option 3 — CO₂ = 44 u ; H₂O = 18 u
CO₂ = 12 + 2(16) = 44 u; H₂O = 2(1) + 16 = 18 u → Option 3.
Carbon and its Compounds · Ethanol and ethanoic acid

Q23. Refer to the two statements given below and choose the CORRECT option.Statement A: Ethanoic acid reacts with bases to form a salt and water.Statement B: This reaction is classified as an oxidation reaction.

  1. (a) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
  2. (b) Both statements A and B are correct.
  3. (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
  4. (d) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

Answer: Option 3 — A correct, B incorrect
A: ethanoic acid + base → salt + water —correct (neutralisation).
B: this is aneutralisationreaction, NOT an oxidation reaction —incorrect.
So A correct, B incorrect → Option 3.
Carbon and its Compounds · Ethanol and ethanoic acid

Q24. Which of the following statements is true about ethanoic acid?

  1. (a) It has a soapy feel and bitter taste
  2. (b) It does not dissolve in water
  3. (c) It is used to sweeten food due to its sugar content
  4. (d) It turns blue litmus red and reacts with carbonates to produce CO₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It turns blue litmus red and reacts with carbonates to produce CO₂

Answer: Option 4 — Turns blue litmus red and reacts with carbonates to give CO₂
Ethanoic acid (acetic acid) is a weak acid: itturns blue litmus redandreacts with carbonates to release CO₂→ Option 4.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Oxidation, reduction and redox reactions

Q25. A student observes the following reaction during heating of copper powder in air.2Cu + O₂ → 2CuOLater, hydrogen gas is passed over the black copper oxide and reddish-brown copper is obtained.CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂OWhich substance is o̲x̲i̲d̲i̲z̲e̲d̲ ̲i̲n̲ ̲f̲i̲r̲s̲t̲ ̲r̲e̲a̲c̲t̲i̲o̲n̲ ̲a̲n̲d̲ ̲r̲e̲d̲u̲c̲e̲d̲ ̲i̲n̲ ̲s̲e̲c̲o̲n̲d̲ ̲r̲e̲a̲c̲t̲i̲o̲n̲?

  1. (a) Copper in first reaction and Copper oxide in second reaction
  2. (b) Hydrogen in first reaction and Copper oxide in second reaction
  3. (c) Copper oxide in first reaction and Copper in second reaction
  4. (d) Oxygen in first reaction and Copper oxide in second reaction
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Copper in first reaction and Copper oxide in second reaction

Answer: Option 1 — Copper in the first reaction and Copper oxide in the second
Reaction 1: 2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO — Cu gains oxygen ⟹Cu is oxidised.
Reaction 2: CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O — CuO loses oxygen ⟹CuO is reduced.
→ Option 1.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q26. Why is baking soda preferred over sodium carbonate in fire extinguishers?

  1. (a) It releases carbon dioxide easily with acid
  2. (b) It reacts violently producing heat
  3. (c) It forms insoluble residue
  4. (d) It produces hydrogen gas rapidly
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It releases carbon dioxide easily with acid

Answer: Option 1 — It releases CO₂ easily with acid
Baking soda (NaHCO₃) reacts with acids toquickly release CO₂, which smothers the fire → Option 1.

Biology (7)

Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q27. What does the splitting of water molecules during photosynthesis produce?

  1. (a) Nitrogen and oxygen
  2. (b) Nitrogen and carbon
  3. (c) Oxygen and carbon
  4. (d) Hydrogen and oxygen
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hydrogen and oxygen

Answer: Option 4 — Hydrogen and oxygen
In photosynthesis, thephotolysis (splitting) of waterproduceshydrogen (used to reduce CO₂) and oxygen (released)→ Option 4.
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q28. What is the main environmental concern associated with non-biodegradable waste?

  1. (a) It accumulates and causes pollution
  2. (b) It improves soil fertility
  3. (c) It breaks down easily in nature
  4. (d) It is quickly recycled by organisms
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It accumulates and causes pollution

Answer: Option 1 — It accumulates and causes pollution
Non-biodegradable waste isnot decomposedby microbes, so itaccumulates in the environment and causes pollution→ Option 1.
Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q29. To increase the width or girth of a tree trunk, cells must divide around the stem in a ring-like manner. Which tissue performs this function?

  1. (a) Apical meristem
  2. (b) Sclerenchyma
  3. (c) Intercalary meristem
  4. (d) Lateral meristem
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Lateral meristem

Answer: Option 4 — Lateral meristem
Increase in girth/width of a stem is due to thelateral meristem(cambium), which divides in a ring around the stem → Option 4.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Animal kingdom - non-chordates

Q30. An earthworm and crab both have segmented bodies, but only one has a hard outer covering. Which benefit does this outer covering provide in terrestrial environments?

  1. (a) Facilitates single opening for digestion
  2. (b) Prevents water loss and offers protection
  3. (c) Allows more flexible movement
  4. (d) Provides tentacles for prey capture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prevents water loss and offers protection

Answer: Option 2 — Prevents water loss and offers protection
The crab's hardexoskeleton (cuticle)preventswater lossand givesprotection, an advantage on land → Option 2.

Q31. Which molecule is immediately synthesized using energy released during cellular respiration in animal cells?

  1. (a) Guanosine Diphosphate (GDP)
  2. (b) Nicotinamide adenine Dinucleotide (NAD)
  3. (c) Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP)
  4. (d) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Answer: Option 4 — ATP (Adenosine triphosphate)
The energy released in cellular respiration is stored immediately inATP→ Option 4.
Reproduction · Human male reproductive system

Q32. All of the following structures belong to the male reproductive system, EXCEPT _______.

  1. (a) Vas deferens
  2. (b) Fallopian tube
  3. (c) Scrotum
  4. (d) Penis
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fallopian tube

Answer: Option 2 — Fallopian tube
Thefallopian tubebelongs to thefemalereproductive system. Vas deferens, scrotum and penis are male organs → Option 2.
Ecology and Environment · Ecological terms (biome, niche, habitat, adaptation)

Q33. An ornithologist observes that birds in mountainous regions have more robust chest muscles and larger wings compared to those in forests. Which structural adaptation is being demonstrated?

  1. (a) Facilitating sustained flight in thin air
  2. (b) Improving camouflage
  3. (c) Increasing egg production
  4. (d) Enhancing nest building
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Facilitating sustained flight in thin air

Answer: Option 1 — Facilitating sustained flight in thin air
At high altitude the air is thin, so stronger chest muscles and larger wings help birdssustain flight— a structural adaptation → Option 1.

Physics (8)

Work, Energy and Power · Work and its sign

Q34. A student applies a constant force on a box at an angle to the horizontal, and the box moves in a straight horizontal line on a rough surface. Which statement correctly describes the work done by the applied force on the box?

  1. (a) The sum of the horizontal and vertical components of the force, multiplied by the total distance traveled
  2. (b) The total applied force, including both horizontal and vertical components, multiplied by the distance moved
  3. (c) Only the vertical component of the applied force, multiplied by the distance moved vertically
  4. (d) Only the horizontal component of the applied force, multiplied by the distance moved in the same direction, gives the work done
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only the horizontal component of the applied force, multiplied by the distance moved in the same direction, gives the work done

Answer: Option 4 — Only the horizontal component × distance in that direction
Work = force componentalong the displacement× displacement. As the box moves horizontally, only thehorizontal componentof the force does work (the vertical component is perpendicular to motion) → Option 4.
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q35. Which of the following statements best defines uniform circular motion?

  1. (a) Motion along a circular path with constant velocity and zero acceleration.
  2. (b) Motion along a circular path with constant speed and changing direction of velocity.
  3. (c) Motion along a circular path with changing speed but constant velocity.
  4. (d) Motion along a straight path with constant speed and constant velocity.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Motion along a circular path with constant speed and changing direction of velocity.

Answer: Option 2 — Constant speed and changing direction of velocity
Uniform circular motion:thespeed is constantbut thedirection of velocity changes continuously, so velocity is not constant and there is (centripetal) acceleration → Option 2.
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q36. A cyclist covers a distance of 30 kilometers in 1.5 hours. What is the average speed of the cyclist?

  1. (a) 20 kilometers per hour
  2. (b) 2 kilometers per hour
  3. (c) 15 kilometers per hour
  4. (d) 45 kilometers per hour
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 20 kilometers per hour

Answer: Option 1 — 20 km/h
Average speed = distance/time = 30/1.5 =20 km/h→ Option 1.
Electricity · Conductors, insulators and semiconductors

Q37. Which material would be the best choice for electrical transmission lines?

  1. (a) Aluminium
  2. (b) Glass
  3. (c) Tungsten
  4. (d) Rubber
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Aluminium

Answer: Option 1 — Aluminium
Transmission lines need agood conductor that is light and cheap:aluminium→ Option 1. (Glass/rubber are insulators; tungsten is used in bulb filaments.)
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Laws of refraction and Snell's law

Q38. A student observes that a swimming pool appears shallower than its actual depth. Which concept best explains this effect?

  1. (a) Refraction of light at the water-air boundary
  2. (b) Scattering of light by water molecules
  3. (c) Reflection of light from the pool floor
  4. (d) Internal reflection of light within the water
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Refraction of light at the water-air boundary

Answer: Option 1 — Refraction of light at the water–air boundary
Light from the pool bottom bends away from the normal when leaving water, making the pool lookshallower— this isrefraction→ Option 1.
Work, Energy and Power · Potential energy

Q39. An object of mass m is raised vertically through a height h near the Earth's surface. What is its gravitational potential energy?

  1. (a) mh/g
  2. (b) mg/h
  3. (c) hg/m
  4. (d) mgh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) mgh

Answer: Option 4 — mgh
Gravitational potential energy =mgh(mass × g × height) → Option 4.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q40. An electric heater is rated 2000 W and is used for 2 hours. How much energy is consumed in joules?

  1. (a) 14,400,000 joules
  2. (b) 7,200,000 joules
  3. (c) 3,600,000 joules
  4. (d) 720,000 joules
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 14,400,000 joules

Answer: Option 1 — 14,400,000 joules
Energy = Power × time = 2000 W × (2 × 3600 s) = 2000 × 7200 =1,44,00,000 J→ Option 1.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Concave mirror - image formation and uses

Q41. A student observes that moving the object from beyond the center of curvature toward the focus of a concave mirror causes the image to change. What change is observed?

  1. (a) The image becomes larger and moves away from the mirror
  2. (b) The image remains the same size and position
  3. (c) The image becomes smaller and moves toward the mirror
  4. (d) The image becomes smaller and moves away from the mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The image becomes larger and moves away from the mirror

Answer: Option 1 — Image becomes larger and moves away from the mirror
For a concave mirror, as the object moves from beyond C toward F, thereal image moves awayfrom the mirror and growslarger→ Option 1.
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