SSC GD 2026 21 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Urea and Uric acid — Option (b)
The main nitrogenous waste products excreted by the human kidney are urea and uric acid. Urea: The primary nitrogenous waste in humans; produced in the liver through the urea cycle (ornithine cycle) from the breakdown of amino acids (deamination); urea is filtered from the blood by the kidneys and excreted in urine; approximately 25-30 grams of urea is excreted daily; Uric acid: Produced from the breakdown of purine nucleotides (adenine and guanine from DNA/RNA); also filtered and excreted by the kidneys; elevated uric acid levels cause gout (a painful joint condition due to uric acid crystal deposition); Other nitrogenous compounds in urine: Creatinine (from muscle metabolism), ammonia (very small amounts — toxic), urea (majority — about 80-90% of total nitrogen excretion); Types of excretion based on waste product: Ammonotelic (ammonia — aquatic animals like fish), Ureotelic (urea — mammals including humans, amphibians), Uricotelic (uric acid — birds, reptiles, insects — conserve water). Humans are primarily UREOTELIC but also excrete uric acid.
Option (a) Carbon dioxide and Oxygen — Incorrect: Carbon dioxide is a waste product of cellular respiration but is eliminated through the lungs (respiratory system), NOT the kidneys; oxygen is not a waste product — it is essential for life; the main nitrogenous wastes excreted by the kidney are urea and uric acid.
Option (c) Amino acids and Glucose — Incorrect: Amino acids and glucose are valuable nutrients that are normally reabsorbed back into the blood by the kidney tubules; they appear in urine only in disease conditions (like diabetes mellitus for glucose); they are NOT the main nitrogenous waste products excreted by the kidneys.
Option (d) Fatty acids and Glycerol — Incorrect: Fatty acids and glycerol are products of fat digestion and are metabolized for energy; they are not nitrogenous compounds and are NOT excreted as waste by the kidneys; the main nitrogenous wastes are urea and uric acid.

Correct Answer: Plastic — Option (c)
Plastic is the most common example of non-biodegradable waste. Definition of non-biodegradable waste: Waste that cannot be broken down or decomposed by microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) through natural biological processes; it persists in the environment for hundreds or thousands of years; Why plastic is non-biodegradable: Plastic is made of synthetic polymers (long chains of carbon and hydrogen atoms) that microorganisms cannot recognize or break down with their enzymes; most common plastics (polyethylene, polypropylene, PVC, PET, polystyrene) do not decompose naturally; Persistence: A plastic bag can take 10-1000 years to degrade; a plastic bottle may take 450+ years; Environmental impact: Plastic pollution in oceans, soil, and waterways is a major environmental crisis; microplastics (tiny plastic particles) have been found in human blood, lungs, and even breast milk; Photodegradation: Plastic can break into smaller pieces (microplastics) under UV light but this is NOT biodegradation — the chemical composition remains unchanged.
Option (a) Food scraps — Incorrect: Food scraps are BIODEGRADABLE waste — they can be broken down by microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) within days to weeks through natural decomposition; food waste is commonly composted to produce manure.
Option (b) Paper — Incorrect: Paper is BIODEGRADABLE — it is made from cellulose (plant fibers) and can be decomposed by microorganisms; paper decomposes within weeks to months; it is also recyclable.
Option (d) Dry leaves — Incorrect: Dry leaves are BIODEGRADABLE — they are natural organic matter that decomposes rapidly through the action of bacteria, fungi, and invertebrates; decomposed leaves form humus which enriches soil fertility.

Correct Answer: Switching from plastic bags to jute bags — Option (b)
Switching from plastic bags to jute bags is an example of 'Reducing' in waste management. The 3R Hierarchy of Waste Management: Reduce (Most preferred): Decreasing the amount of waste generated at source — choosing alternatives that produce less waste, buying less, minimizing packaging; Reuse: Using items again for the same or different purpose without reprocessing; Recycle (Least preferred among the three): Processing waste materials into new products. Why switching from plastic to jute is 'Reducing': When you switch from plastic bags to jute bags, you REDUCE the demand for and production of plastic (a non-biodegradable material); you generate less plastic waste; you are cutting down on material consumption at the source; 'Reducing' is the most effective R because it prevents waste from being created in the first place. The other options: Using a paint bucket multiple times = REUSE (using the same item again); Recycling old newspapers = RECYCLE (processing into new paper products); Throwing aluminium cans in trash = none of the 3Rs (wasteful practice).
Option (a) Using a paint bucket multiple times — Incorrect: This is an example of REUSE (not Reduce); reusing means using an item again for the same or another purpose without processing; using the same bucket repeatedly is reuse, while reducing involves generating less waste in the first place.
Option (c) Recycling old newspapers — Incorrect: This is an example of RECYCLING (not Reducing); recycling means processing waste materials into new products (old newspapers are pulped and made into new paper); it is the third R in the hierarchy, while 'Reducing' means minimizing waste generation. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Throwing aluminium cans in trash — Incorrect: This is NOT an example of any of the 3Rs — it is wasteful disposal; aluminium is highly recyclable and throwing it in trash represents a wasted opportunity for recycling, reusing, or reducing.

Correct Answer: Vascular tissue — Option (d)
Vascular tissue is NOT a type of animal tissue — it is a type of plant tissue. The four types of animal tissues (based on function): Epithelial tissue: Covers body surfaces, lines organs and cavities, provides protection; Connective tissue: Connects, supports, and binds other tissues — includes bone, cartilage, blood, adipose, and fibrous connective tissues; Muscular tissue: Specialized for contraction and movement — includes skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle; Nervous tissue: Specialized for transmitting electrical impulses — consists of neurons and glial cells. Vascular tissue in plants: In plants, vascular tissue refers to the transport system consisting of xylem (transports water and minerals from roots to leaves) and phloem (transports food/sugars from leaves to other parts); these are plant-specific tissues, NOT animal tissues.
Option (a) Epithelial tissue — Incorrect: Epithelial tissue IS one of the four types of animal tissue; it covers external body surfaces, lines internal organs, and forms glands; examples include skin epidermis, intestinal lining, and kidney tubule lining. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (b) Connective tissue — Incorrect: Connective tissue IS one of the four types of animal tissue; it includes bone, cartilage, blood, adipose tissue, and fibrous connective tissue that connect, support, and bind other tissues in the animal body.
Option (c) Muscular tissue — Incorrect: Muscular tissue IS one of the four types of animal tissue; it is specialized for contraction and movement and includes skeletal (voluntary), smooth (involuntary), and cardiac muscle.

Correct Answer: Amphibians — Option (d)
Animals that live both in water and on land are called Amphibians. Etymology: The word 'Amphibia' comes from the Greek words ' amphi ' (meaning 'both' or 'double') and 'bios' (meaning 'life') — literally meaning 'double life'; Characteristics of Amphibians: Can live both in water and on land; Cold-blooded (ectothermic) vertebrates; Undergo metamorphosis (larval stage in water, adult stage on land); Breathe through gills as larvae and through lungs and moist skin as adults; Examples: Frogs (Rana species), toads (Bufo species), salamanders (Ambystoma species), newts (Triturus species), caecilians (limbless amphibians); Life cycle: Eggs laid in water → tadpoles (aquatic, gill-breathing) → metamorphosis → adult frogs (terrestrial/semi-aquatic, lung-breathing); Ecological role: Act as bioindicators of environmental health; important in food chains (eat insects, are eaten by snakes and birds); Threats: Amphibians are among the most threatened vertebrate groups globally due to habitat destruction, climate change, and chytrid fungus disease.
Option (a) Mammals — Incorrect: Mammals are a class of vertebrates characterized by mammary glands (that produce milk), hair/fur, and warm-bloodedness; while some mammals (like whales, dolphins, seals) live in water, mammals are not the category specifically defined as living 'both in water AND on land' — that is Amphibians.
Option (b) Terrestrial — Incorrect: Terrestrial animals live exclusively on land (not in water); the term 'terrestrial' means 'of the land' and does not include animals adapted for aquatic life.
Option (c) Aquatic — Incorrect: Aquatic animals live exclusively in water (fish, aquatic insects, etc.); the question asks about animals that live BOTH in water AND on land — these are specifically called Amphibians.

Correct Answer: They recycle nutrients back into the soil — Option (b)
The correct statement about decomposers is that they recycle nutrients back into the soil. About Decomposers: Decomposers are organisms (primarily bacteria and fungi) that break down dead and decaying organic matter (dead animals, dead plants, feces, fallen leaves) into simpler inorganic substances; They are also called saprotrophic organisms; Mode of nutrition: Heterotrophic (not autotrophic) — they get energy by breaking down dead organic matter; Nutrient recycling: When decomposers break down dead matter, they release nutrients (nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, carbon, etc.) back into the soil in forms that plants can absorb — this is called nutrient cycling/mineralization; Ecological importance: Decomposers are essential for maintaining the balance of ecosystems — without them, dead matter would accumulate indefinitely and nutrients would remain locked in organic matter; Examples: Bacteria (Bacillus, Pseudomonas), Fungi (Aspergillus, Penicillium), earthworms (also detritivores).
Option (a) They are autotrophs — Incorrect: Decomposers are HETEROTROPHS (not autotrophs); autotrophs (like plants and algae) produce their own food through photosynthesis; decomposers get energy by breaking down dead organic matter — they cannot synthesize their own food from inorganic sources.
Option (c) They produce food for plants — Incorrect: This is partially misleading; decomposers don't directly 'produce food for plants' — they RECYCLE NUTRIENTS back into the soil that plants then absorb; plants produce their own food (glucose) through photosynthesis.
Option (d) They eat living organisms — Incorrect: Decomposers feed on DEAD organic matter (not living organisms); organisms that eat living organisms are called predators or parasites; decomposers (bacteria, fungi) specifically break down dead and decaying matter. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Increasing surface area for absorption — Option (b)
The primary function of villi in the human small intestine is to increase the surface area available for absorption of digested nutrients. About intestinal villi: Villi (singular: villus) are tiny finger-like projections that line the inner wall of the small intestine; Height: Each villus is approximately 0.5 to 1.6 mm tall; Surface area enhancement: Villi increase the internal surface area of the small intestine dramatically — together with microvilli (on each villus cell, forming the 'brush border'), the total absorptive surface area of the small intestine is approximately 250-300 square metres (equivalent to a tennis court); Structure: Each villus contains: A network of blood capillaries (for absorbing glucose, amino acids, vitamins, and minerals into blood), A central lymph vessel called lacteal (for absorbing fatty acids and glycerol into the lymphatic system); Nutrients absorbed: Glucose and amino acids → absorbed into blood capillaries → portal vein → liver; Fatty acids and glycerol → absorbed into lacteals → lymphatic system → blood; Microvilli: Even smaller projections on the surface of each villus cell — further increasing surface area and containing brush border enzymes.
Option (a) Secreting digestive enzymes — Incorrect: While some enzyme secretion occurs in the small intestine (by intestinal glands and cells), this is NOT the PRIMARY function of villi; the primary function of villi is to increase surface area for absorption of nutrients.
Option (c) Neutralizing stomach acid — Incorrect: Neutralizing stomach acid is done by bicarbonate ions secreted by the pancreas (into the duodenum) and bile from the liver; villi do not neutralize stomach acid — their primary function is increasing surface area for absorption. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Breaking down food particles — Incorrect: Breaking down (digesting) food particles is done by digestive enzymes from the pancreas, liver (bile), and intestinal glands; villi's primary function is absorption (taking nutrients from the digested food into the body), not digestion.

Correct Answer: Chhatri — Option (c)
Chhatri is the architectural element characteristically used in Rajput tombs and memorials. About Chhatri: A chhatri (literally meaning 'umbrella' in Hindi) is an elevated, dome-shaped pavilion or kiosk supported by pillars — a distinctive element of Rajput and Mughal architecture; Used as: Cenotaphs (memorial structures built at cremation sites), tombs, palace rooftops, and decorative architectural elements; Design: Typically consists of four to eight pillars supporting a dome or flat roof, often open on the sides; Famous examples: The Chhatris of Jaipur at Gaitore (royal cremation ground of the Kachwaha rulers); The Chhatris of Orchha (Bundela rulers); The Chhatris of Shekhawati (Rajasthan); Significance: Chhatris are built to honor the memory of kings, queens, and nobles at their cremation sites; they are a defining feature of the Rajput architectural style; Geographic spread: Found throughout Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and other regions once ruled by Rajput clans.
Option (a) Garbhagriha — Incorrect: Garbhagriha (literally 'womb chamber') is the innermost sanctum of a Hindu temple where the main deity's idol is placed; it is an essential element of temple architecture (not specifically of Rajput tombs/memorials). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Baoli (Stepwell) — Incorrect: A Baoli (or Vav) is a type of stepwell — a water structure built for storing and accessing water; while Rajput rulers built beautiful stepwells, baolis are not specifically associated with tombs and memorials — chhatris are.
Option (d) Gopuram — Incorrect: Gopuram is the monumental gateway tower found at the entrance of South Indian Hindu temples (especially in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala); it is a feature of Dravidian temple architecture, NOT of Rajput tombs and memorials.

Correct Answer: V.K. Pandian — Option (c)
V.K. Pandian (Vishwanath Kumar Pandian) retired from active politics in June 2024 following the BJD's defeat in the Odisha state assembly elections. Key facts about V.K. Pandian: Full name: Vishwanath Kumar Pandian; IAS background: He was a 2000-batch IAS officer from the Tamil Nadu cadre who was on deputation to Odisha; He served as Private Secretary and later as the political advisor to Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik for many years; He resigned from the IAS in 2023 to formally join the BJD (Biju Janata Dal) and Naveen Patnaik's political activities; Election outcome: In the June 2024 Odisha assembly elections, the BJD was comprehensively defeated by the BJP — Mohan Majhi became Chief Minister; Retirement: Following the election defeat, V.K. Pandian announced his retirement from politics entirely in June 2024, stating he would no longer remain in active politics; He was widely seen as Naveen Patnaik's political successor and trusted lieutenant.
Option (a) Naveen Patnaik — Incorrect: Naveen Patnaik (long-serving Chief Minister of Odisha) did not formally retire from active politics in June 2024; while he lost the election and stepped down as CM, he remained active in the opposition; V.K. Pandian specifically announced his retirement from all political activities. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Baijayant Panda — Incorrect: Baijayant 'Jay' Panda is a BJP politician (Vice-President of the BJP) — he did not retire from active politics in June 2024; V.K. Pandian is the correct answer.
Option (d) Dharmendra Pradhan — Incorrect: Dharmendra Pradhan is a senior BJP leader and Union Cabinet Minister from Odisha; he did not retire from active politics in June 2024 — he remained active in the BJP government.

Correct Answer: Daljit Singh Chaudhary — Option (a)
Daljit Singh Chaudhary was appointed as the Director General (DG) of the Border Security Force (BSF) in August 2024. Key facts: Daljit Singh Chaudhary is a 1990-batch IPS officer from the Rajasthan cadre; He was appointed as the DG of BSF in August 2024; About BSF: The Border Security Force (BSF) was established on December 1, 1965, after the 1965 Indo-Pak War; It is the primary border guarding force for India's borders with Pakistan (on the western side) and Bangladesh (on the eastern side); Headquartered in New Delhi; It is one of India's Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) under the Ministry of Home Affairs; BSF's role: Guarding India's international borders, preventing trans-border crimes, unauthorized entry/exit, and maintaining peace along India's borders; Strength: The BSF is one of the world's largest border security forces with approximately 2.65 lakh (265,000) personnel.
Option (b) Virendra Bansal — Incorrect: Virendra Bansal was not appointed as the DG of BSF in August 2024; Daljit Singh Chaudhary was appointed to this position. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) M.R. Kumar — Incorrect: M.R. Kumar is associated with other government positions (he was Chairman of LIC — Life Insurance Corporation of India); he was not appointed as DG of BSF in August 2024.
Option (d) Nikhil Joshi — Incorrect: Nikhil Joshi was not appointed as the Director General of the Border Security Force in August 2024; the correct answer is Daljit Singh Chaudhary.

Correct Answer: Common Cause and Lokniti — Option (a)
The 'Status of Policing in India Report' (SPIR) 2025 was published by Common Cause in collaboration with Lokniti -CSDS. About the publishers: Common Cause: A non-governmental organization (NGO) based in New Delhi, founded in 1980 by H.D. Shourie; it works on issues of public interest, good governance, and citizens' rights; Lokniti : The Lokniti Programme (Network for Research on Comparative Democracy) is a research programme of the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS), New Delhi — it focuses on political science and democratic processes research; About SPIR: The Status of Policing in India Report (SPIR) is a comprehensive research report that examines police-citizen relationships, police functioning, public trust in police, and policing challenges across India; It covers aspects like public perception of police, use of force, communal bias, police accountability, and working conditions of police personnel; It is based on surveys conducted with citizens, police personnel, and experts across multiple states.
Option (b) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is a government policy think-tank that publishes reports on economic development, governance, and social indicators; it does NOT publish the Status of Policing in India Report — that is a publication of Common Cause and Lokniti -CSDS.
Option (c) DARPG — Incorrect: DARPG (Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances) focuses on administrative reforms and grievance redressal; it does NOT publish the Status of Policing in India Report.
Option (d) Ministry of Home Affairs — Incorrect: The Ministry of Home Affairs oversees internal security and police forces but does NOT publish the Status of Policing in India Report; that report is published by the civil society organizations Common Cause and Lokniti -CSDS. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Maharashtra — Option (d)
The Aravalli Green Wall Project does NOT cover Maharashtra. About the Aravalli Green Wall Project: The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a government initiative to create a dense green corridor (ecological barrier) along the Aravalli hill range to combat desertification and land degradation; It is inspired by Africa's 'Great Green Wall' initiative (a massive reforestation project across the Sahel region of Africa); States covered by the project: The Aravalli range runs through FOUR states — Gujarat (southwest), Rajasthan (central), Haryana (northeast), and touches Delhi NCT; The project covers these states along the Aravalli hills to create a green belt preventing desert expansion; Why Maharashtra is NOT covered: The Aravalli range does not extend into Maharashtra — the range ends in Delhi/Haryana in the north and Palanpur /Gujarat in the southwest; Maharashtra is far south and east of the Aravalli range; Objectives: Afforestation and reforestation along the Aravalli range, preventing the Thar Desert from expanding eastward, restoring degraded land, improving groundwater recharge, and increasing green cover.
Option (a) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana IS covered by the Aravalli Green Wall Project — the Aravalli range passes through the Mewat (Nuh), Faridabad, Gurgaon, and Mahendragarh districts of Haryana; Maharashtra is the state NOT covered.
Option (b) Rajasthan — Incorrect: Rajasthan IS the primary state covered by the Aravalli Green Wall Project — the Aravalli range runs through most of Rajasthan (from Sirohi in the southwest to Khetri in the northeast); Maharashtra is the state NOT covered.
Option (c) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat IS covered by the Aravalli Green Wall Project — the Aravalli range extends into the Palanpur and Sabarkantha areas of northern Gujarat; the candidate incorrectly selected this option; Maharashtra is the state NOT covered.

Correct Answer: 4 — Option (c)
The SLV-3 (Satellite Launch Vehicle-3) was a 4-stage, all-solid- fuelled rocket. Key facts about SLV-3: SLV-3 was India's first experimental satellite launch vehicle (SLV); It was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) under the leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (who later served as India's 11th President); The '3' in SLV-3 refers to the payload capability (approximately 40 kg to Low Earth Orbit); Rocket stages: SLV-3 had 4 stages, all using solid propellants (no liquid stages); Stage 1 — Largest solid motor providing main thrust; Stage 2 — Second solid motor; Stage 3 — Third solid motor; Stage 4 — Fourth solid motor (uppermost stage with payload); Flight history: First successful launch: July 18, 1980 — SLV-3 E2 successfully placed the Rohini satellite (RS-1) into orbit; This made India the 6th country in the world to develop a launch vehicle and put a satellite into orbit; 3 more flights followed; Significance: SLV-3 was the foundation for India's subsequent rocket programs — ASLV, PSLV, and GSLV.
Option (a) 2 — Incorrect: SLV-3 was a 4-stage rocket, not a 2-stage rocket; a 2-stage configuration would not have provided sufficient velocity to achieve orbital insertion for the Rohini satellite.
Option (b) 3 — Incorrect: SLV-3 was a 4-stage solid-propellant rocket, not a 3-stage rocket; the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, which came later) has 4 stages with alternating solid and liquid stages.
Option (d) 5 — Incorrect: SLV-3 was a 4-stage rocket, not a 5-stage rocket; no Indian orbital launch vehicle has used 5 stages.

Correct Answer: Phag (Fag) — Option (b)
Phag (also called Fag) folk songs are sung in Chhattisgarh to welcome the arrival of spring (Vasant Ritu). Key facts about Phag : ' Phag ' (or Phaag ) songs are folk songs associated with the season of spring and the festival of Holi; In Chhattisgarh, phag songs are sung during Holi and the spring season to celebrate the arrival of flowers, new leaves, and warmth; The songs are full of joy, color, and festivity — expressing the exuberance of spring; Musical style: Phag songs are typically sung in groups, often with men and women singing separately or together; Instruments: Accompanied by traditional instruments like dholak, mandar, and harmonium; Themes: Love, nature, colors of Holi, joy of spring; Similar traditions: Phag songs exist in other states too (Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh) but they are distinctively associated with Chhattisgarh's spring celebration; Regional significance: Chhattisgarh has a rich tradition of folk music including Pandwani , Rai, and Phag .
Option (a) Rai — Incorrect: Rai is also a folk dance/music tradition from Chhattisgarh/Bundelkhand (and is associated with the Bedia community), but it is NOT specifically associated with the arrival of spring — Phag (Fag) is the folk song tradition specifically for welcoming spring in Chhattisgarh.
Option (c) Kavini — Incorrect: Kavini is a term more associated with Tamil/South Indian poetic tradition; it is NOT a Chhattisgarh folk song tradition associated with the spring season.
Option (d) Kolatam — Incorrect: Kolatam (also known as Kolannalu or Kolattam ) is a stick dance/folk tradition from Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (not Chhattisgarh); it is performed during festivals but is not specifically associated with welcoming spring in Chhattisgarh. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: West Bengal — Option (d)
The 'Gajan' folk songs and festival depicting dialogues between deities are traditionally associated with West Bengal. Key facts about Gajan: Gajan is a Hindu festival celebrated primarily in rural West Bengal (and parts of Odisha and Bangladesh); It is dedicated to deities Shiva (Mahadeva), Neel (a form of Shiva), and Dharmaraj; The festival involves religious performances including songs and dramatic enactments depicting dialogues between deities; Timing: Gajan is celebrated in the Bengali month of Chaitra (usually March-April), just before the Bengali New Year (Poila Baisakh); Features: Devotees called 'sannyasis' or 'bhaktas' observe fasts, perform rituals, and enact scenes from mythology; they undergo various austerities including fire-walking, skewering, and swinging from hooks as acts of devotion; Folk songs and performances: Gajan songs describe stories of Shiva, his interactions with other deities, and mythological narratives; These are performed in village squares and temple courtyards; Significance: Gajan marks the end of the agricultural year and is deeply embedded in Bengal's rural cultural identity.
Option (a) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Gajan is NOT associated with Maharashtra; Maharashtra's folk traditions include Lavani, Tamasha, Povada , and Gondhal — none of which are Gajan; Gajan is specifically a West Bengal folk festival. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Punjab — Incorrect: Gajan is not associated with Punjab; Punjab's folk traditions include Bhangra, Giddha , and Boliyan ; Gajan is a specific folk festival and musical tradition of West Bengal.
Option (c) Nagaland — Incorrect: Nagaland's folk traditions are those of the Naga tribes (Hornbill Festival, war dances, Rengma Naga folk songs, etc.); Gajan is not associated with Nagaland — it is a West Bengali folk tradition.

Correct Answer: P.T. Usha — Option (a)
The nickname ' Payyoli Express' is associated with P.T. Usha ( Pilavullakandi Thekkeparambil Usha). Key facts about P.T. Usha: Born: June 27, 1964 in Payyoli , Kozhikode district, Kerala; Nickname: ' Payyoli Express' (named after her hometown of Payyoli ) and 'Queen of Indian Track'; Sport: Track and field (sprinting and middle distance); Career highlights: She dominated Indian athletics in the 1980s; She came agonizingly close to an Olympic medal — at the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics, she missed the bronze medal in the 400m hurdles by just 1/100th of a second (finishing 4th); Multiple gold medals at Asian Games (1982 Delhi, 1986 Seoul — 4 gold medals, 1 silver at 1986 Seoul Asian Games); Multiple gold medals at Asian Athletics Championships; She set numerous national records over 100m, 200m, 400m, 800m, and 400m hurdles; Awards: Padma Shri (1985), Arjuna Award (1984), Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, and later Padma Vibhushan (2024); Current role: She was nominated as a Member of the Rajya Sabha in 2022 and was elected as President of the Athletics Federation of India.
Option (b) Roshan Mistry — Incorrect: Roshan Mistry is not the athlete with the ' Payyoli Express' nickname; P.T. Usha earned this nickname from her hometown of Payyoli , Kerala.
Option (c) Milkha Singh — Incorrect: Milkha Singh (1929-2021) was nicknamed the 'Flying Sikh' — one of India's greatest male sprinters who also missed an Olympic medal at the 1960 Rome Olympics (finished 4th in the 400m); ' Payyoli Express' is P.T. Usha's nickname, not Milkha Singh's.
Option (d) Dutee Chand — Incorrect: Dutee Chand is an Indian sprinter from Odisha, known for her legal battle against hyperandrogenism regulations; her nicknames include 'Chakka Duta' (Wheel Dove) but not ' Payyoli Express' — that belongs to P.T. Usha. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Maharishi Valmiki — Option (d)
Maharishi Valmiki is known as 'Adi Kavi' ( आदि कवि — the first poet/primeval poet) in Indian literature. About Valmiki: Maharishi Valmiki is regarded as the first poet in Sanskrit literature; He is the author of the Ramayana — one of the two great epics of ancient India (the other being the Mahabharata); The Ramayana is called 'Adi Kavya' ( आदि काव्य — the first poem/first epic); The Ramayana consists of approximately 24,000 verses (shlokas) organized into 7 Kandas (books): Bala Kanda, Ayodhya Kanda, Aranya Kanda, Kishkindha Kanda, Sundara Kanda, Yuddha Kanda, and Uttara Kanda; Legend of Valmiki: According to tradition, Valmiki was moved to compose the Ramayana after witnessing a hunter kill a male bird from a mating pair of kraunchas (herons), which made its mate cry in grief; his grief ( shoka ) spontaneously became a verse (shloka) — this spontaneous grief-inspired verse is considered the origin of Sanskrit poetic meter (the anushtubh meter); Valmiki Jayanti: Celebrated on the full moon day (Purnima) in the month of Ashwina (October).
Option (a) Raskhan — Incorrect: Raskhan (Syed Ibrahim Khan, 1548-1628) was a Muslim devotee of Krishna who composed Hindi Braj Bhasha poetry; he is renowned for his devotional poetry about Krishna but is NOT called 'Adi Kavi' in Indian literature.
Option (b) Chanakya — Incorrect: Chanakya (also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta , c. 350-275 BCE) was an ancient Indian economist, philosopher, and political strategist who authored the Arthashastra ; he is known as the 'Indian Machiavelli' or father of political science/economics in India, NOT as 'Adi Kavi.'
Option (c) Vishakhadatta — Incorrect: Vishakhadatta was a Sanskrit playwright known for the historical drama ' Mudrarakshasa ' (about Chandragupta Maurya's rise to power with Chanakya's help); he is NOT called 'Adi Kavi' — Maharishi Valmiki holds that title.

Correct Answer: CSD (Council for Social Development) — Option (a)
The India Social Development Report (ISDR) is one of the major publications of the Council for Social Development (CSD). About CSD: The Council for Social Development (CSD) is an autonomous, non-governmental research institution based in New Delhi; Established: 1962; It conducts multidisciplinary research on issues of social development, social policy, poverty, inequality, education, health, and governance in India; Its objectives include research, training, documentation, and policy advocacy for social development; About the India Social Development Report (ISDR): Published periodically by CSD since 2005; It provides a comprehensive assessment of India's social development — covering education, health, nutrition, poverty, inequality, social security, and related themes; It analyzes social development data and trends and makes policy recommendations; It is considered an important reference document for policymakers, researchers, and civil society organizations.
Option (b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment — Incorrect: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is a government ministry that implements welfare schemes for marginalized communities; while it publishes its own reports, the India Social Development Report is specifically a publication of the Council for Social Development (CSD — an autonomous research institution). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog is India's premier policy think-tank; while it publishes numerous policy and development reports (like the SDG India Index, Composite Water Management Index), the India Social Development Report is a specific publication of the Council for Social Development (CSD), not NITI Aayog.
Option (d) CPCB — Incorrect: CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change that monitors and regulates pollution; it has no connection to the India Social Development Report — that is published by CSD.

Correct Answer: A.P.J. Abdul Kalam — Option (c)
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam served as the 11th President of India from July 25, 2002 to July 25, 2007. Key facts about A.P.J. Abdul Kalam: Full name: Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam; Born: October 15, 1931 in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu; Died: July 27, 2015 in Shillong, Meghalaya (while delivering a lecture at IIM Shillong); Known as: 'People's President', 'Missile Man of India'; Before Presidency: He was a distinguished scientist and aerospace engineer; played a pivotal role in India's civilian space program (ISRO) and military missile development (DRDO); Chief architect of India's Pokhran-II nuclear tests (1998); Developed India's first satellite launch vehicle (SLV-3) and the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP); Awards: Padma Bhushan (1981), Padma Vibhushan (1990), Bharat Ratna (1997 — India's highest civilian honor); As President: He was the first scientist and bachelor to become India's President; known for his accessibility and connect with youth; authored several books including 'Wings of Fire', 'India 2020', and 'Ignited Minds'.
Option (a) Pratibha Patil — Incorrect: Pratibha Patil served as the 12th President of India (from 2007 to 2012) — she was India's first female President; A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was the 11th President (2002-2007). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Pranab Mukherjee — Incorrect: Pranab Mukherjee served as the 13th President of India (from 2012 to 2017); he previously held many senior Cabinet positions including Finance Minister and External Affairs Minister; the 11th President was A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.
Option (d) Shankar Dayal Sharma — Incorrect: Shankar Dayal Sharma served as the 9th President of India (from 1992 to 1997); K.R. Narayanan was the 10th President (1997-2002); A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was the 11th President (2002-2007).