SSC GD 2026 20 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Ganga and Narmada — Option (b)
The Vindhya mountain range separates the Ganga river system (north) from the Narmada river system (south). The Vindhya Range: The Vindhya Range runs east-west across central India, forming a natural divide between the northern plains (Indo-Gangetic Plain) and the Deccan Plateau; It separates north-flowing rivers (draining into the Ganga system — flowing northward into the Bay of Bengal) from south/westward-flowing rivers (Narmada, Tapi — flowing westward into the Arabian Sea); The Ganga system drains the vast Indo-Gangetic Plain north of the Vindhyas; The Narmada river originates in the Amarkantak plateau (near the Vindhya- Satpura junction) and flows westward; The Satpura Range lies further south and separates the Narmada (north of Satpura ) from the Tapi (south of Satpura ); Historical significance: The Vindhyas formed a traditional boundary between ' Aryavarta ' (north) and ' Dakshinapatha ' (south) in ancient India.
Option (a) Ganga and Godavari — Incorrect: The Godavari river drains the Deccan Plateau in central/south India; it is not directly separated from the Ganga by the Vindhya range — the Vindhya primarily separates the Ganga and Narmada systems.
Option (c) Narmada and Tapi — Incorrect: The Narmada and Tapi (Tapti) rivers are separated from each other by the Satpura Range (not the Vindhya Range); both flow westward into the Arabian Sea.
Option (d) Godavari and Krishna — Incorrect: The Godavari and Krishna rivers both flow eastward through the Deccan Plateau and drain into the Bay of Bengal; they are not separated by the Vindhya range — the Vindhya range separates the Ganga and Narmada river systems.

Correct Answer: Late expanding stage — Option (c)
According to the Demographic Transition Model (DTM), India is currently in the Late Expanding Stage (Stage 3). The four stages of the Demographic Transition Model: Stage 1 — High Stationary: Both birth rates and death rates are high; population remains stable at a high level; Stage 2 — Early Expanding: Death rates fall sharply (due to improved sanitation, medicine) while birth rates remain high; population grows rapidly; Stage 3 — Late Expanding: Death rates are low; birth rates begin to fall (due to urbanization, education, women's empowerment); population still grows but at a slower rate; India is in this stage; Stage 4 — Low Stationary: Both birth rates and death rates are low; population stabilizes; Why India is in Stage 3 (Late Expanding): India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has declined from 5.9 (1960s) to approximately 2.0 (2021) — near replacement level; Death rates are low due to improved healthcare; Population growth is slowing but India remains the world's most populous country (surpassed China in 2023); Urban areas show lower fertility while rural areas still show higher fertility.
Option (a) High stationary stage — Incorrect: The High Stationary stage (Stage 1) is characterized by both high birth rates AND high death rates with stable population; India no longer has high death rates and its birth rate is declining, placing it beyond Stage 1.
Option (b) Early expanding stage — Incorrect: The Early Expanding stage (Stage 2) is characterized by falling death rates but still-high birth rates with rapid population growth; India has already progressed past this stage as its birth rates are also declining.
Option (d) Low stationary stage — Incorrect: The Low Stationary stage (Stage 4) requires both very low birth rates AND very low death rates with stable population; India has not yet reached this stage — its TFR is still near or slightly above replacement level, with population still growing.

Correct Answer: Diamond — Option (a)
Diamonds are the most commonly and historically known 'conflict mineral' or 'blood mineral' in Africa. 'Blood Diamonds' / 'Conflict Diamonds': Diamonds mined in war zones and sold to finance armed conflict against governments are called 'blood diamonds' or 'conflict diamonds'; The term gained worldwide attention due to brutal civil wars in West Africa in the 1990s-2000s, particularly in Sierra Leone, Angola, Liberia, and the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC); Famous conflicts financed by blood diamonds: The Revolutionary United Front (RUF) in Sierra Leone used diamond profits to fund a brutal civil war (1991-2002), committing atrocities including amputations; UNITA rebels in Angola used diamonds to fund their war; International response: The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) was established in 2003 to prevent conflict diamonds from entering the mainstream diamond market; Cultural awareness: The 2006 film 'Blood Diamond' (starring Leonardo DiCaprio) brought global awareness to this issue; Definition used: The UN defines conflict diamonds as 'diamonds that originate from areas controlled by forces or factions opposed to legitimate governments.'
Option (b) Gypsum — Incorrect: Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral used in construction (plasterboard, cement); it is NOT known as a 'conflict mineral' or 'blood mineral' — gypsum is abundantly available worldwide and is not typically associated with financing armed conflict in Africa.
Option (c) Cobalt — Incorrect: While cobalt from the DRC has been associated with human rights concerns (including child labour in artisanal mining), it is not specifically called a 'blood mineral' in the traditional sense; diamonds are the primary and historically most recognized 'blood mineral' in Africa.
Option (d) Nickel — Incorrect: Nickel is not known as a 'conflict' or 'blood' mineral in Africa; nickel mining concerns are more associated with environmental issues rather than financing armed conflict; diamonds hold the distinction of being called 'blood minerals.'

Correct Answer: Gujarat — Option (b)
The Vallabhi Empire (also known as the Maitraka dynasty or Vallabhi Kingdom) ruled western India after the decline of the Gupta Empire and was located in present-day Gujarat. Key facts about the Vallabhi Empire: Capital: The capital was Vallabhi (modern-day Vala or Vallabhipur in Bhavnagar district of Gujarat); Dynasty: Founded by Bhatarka of the Maitraka dynasty around 480 CE; it flourished from approximately the 6th to 8th centuries CE; Territory: The empire controlled Saurashtra (Kathiawar peninsula) and surrounding areas of present-day Gujarat; they were successors to the Guptas in western India; Learning centre : Vallabhi was a renowned centre of Buddhist learning, comparable to Nalanda; Chinese traveller Xuanzang ( Hiuen Tsang) visited Vallabhi and described it as a great city of learning; Decline: The empire declined in the mid-8th century CE, possibly due to Arab invasions; Religion: The Maitrakas were initially Shaivites but later patronized both Hinduism and Buddhism.
Option (a) Rajasthan — Incorrect: The Vallabhi Empire was not located in Rajasthan — it was based in the Saurashtra (Kathiawar) region of present-day Gujarat; Rajasthan had other kingdoms like the Gurjara-Pratihara empire during this period.
Option (c) Maharashtra — Incorrect: The Vallabhi Empire's capital was Vallabhi in present-day Gujarat, not Maharashtra; Maharashtra had its own dynasties like the Rashtrakutas and Chalukyas during this period.
Option (d) Madhya Pradesh — Incorrect: The Vallabhi Kingdom was centred in Saurashtra (present-day Gujarat), not in Madhya Pradesh; Madhya Pradesh during this period was dominated by various other rulers.

Correct Answer: Government of India Act, 1935 — Option (c)
The Government of India Act, 1935 is often called the 'blueprint' (or 'parent document') of the Indian Constitution because a very large number of its provisions were directly incorporated into the Indian Constitution (1950). Key provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 incorporated into the Indian Constitution: Federal structure with division of powers between Centre and States (Union List, State List, Concurrent List — the basis of India's 7th Schedule); Bicameral legislature at the Centre; Provincial autonomy; Emergency provisions; Public Service Commissions (UPSC, SPSCs); Federal Court (which became the Supreme Court of India); Governor's role and powers; Fundamental Rights framework; Administrative provisions and bureaucracy structure. Historical context: The Act was passed by the British Parliament; it was originally meant to establish a federation of British India and princely states (the federation part never came into effect); it gave significant autonomy to provinces (Provincial Autonomy from April 1937); Dr. B.R. Ambedkar acknowledged that many provisions of the Indian Constitution were drawn from the 1935 Act.
Option (a) Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) — Incorrect: The Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act, 1909) introduced separate electorates for Muslims and increased the size of legislative councils; while significant in Indian constitutional history, it is NOT called the blueprint of the Indian Constitution.
Option (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919) — Incorrect: The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) introduced the concept of 'Dyarchy' in provinces and expanded legislative councils; while important, it is NOT called the blueprint of the Indian Constitution — the 1935 Act holds that distinction.
Option (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 — Incorrect: The Indian Independence Act, 1947 legally transferred power from Britain to the two new dominions of India and Pakistan; while historically crucial, it is NOT called the blueprint of the Indian Constitution — that distinction belongs to the Government of India Act, 1935.

Correct Answer: 79th Independence Day — Option (a)
The PM Vikasit Bharat Rozgar Yojana for youth was announced on the 79th Independence Day (August 15, 2025) by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his address from the Red Fort, New Delhi. Key facts about the scheme: Full name: Pradhan Mantri Vikasit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM VBRY); Announcement: Announced by PM Modi on August 15, 2025 (India's 79th Independence Day — counting from 1947); Target: Focuses on employment generation for youth in India as part of the Viksit Bharat (Developed India) 2047 vision; The scheme aims to create sustainable employment opportunities by linking youth with industry needs; Context: The 79th Independence Day (August 15, 2025) marked India's 78 years of independence; India gained independence on August 15, 1947; in 2025, India completed 78 years and was celebrating its 79th Independence Day.
Option (b) 78th Independence Day — Incorrect: The 78th Independence Day was on August 15, 2024; the PM Vikasit Bharat Rozgar Yojana was announced on the 79th Independence Day (August 15, 2025), not the 78th.
Option (c) 76th Republic Day — Incorrect: The 76th Republic Day was on January 26, 2025; the PM Vikasit Bharat Rozgar Yojana was announced on the 79th Independence Day (August 15, 2025), not on Republic Day.
Option (d) 155th Gandhi Jayanti — Incorrect: The 155th Gandhi Jayanti was on October 2, 2024 (Mahatma Gandhi was born on October 2, 1869); the PM Vikasit Bharat Rozgar Yojana was announced on the 79th Independence Day, not on Gandhi Jayanti.

Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh — Option (d)
India's first biopolymer manufacturing plant is to be established in Uttar Pradesh. Key facts: Biopolymers are polymers (large molecules) produced by living organisms or through biological processes; they include materials like PLA (polylactic acid), PHA (polyhydroxyalkanoates), and other biodegradable plastics that serve as eco-friendly alternatives to petroleum-based plastics; India's first biopolymer manufacturing facility planned in Uttar Pradesh marks a significant step toward green manufacturing and reducing plastic pollution; Uttar Pradesh has been actively attracting industrial investments through initiatives like the UP Global Investors Summit (GIS) and the state's industrial policy; The establishment of a biopolymer plant aligns with India's national goals on reducing single-use plastics and promoting sustainable manufacturing under the 'Plastic Waste Management' framework; Biopolymers are increasingly important for packaging, agriculture (mulch films), medical devices, and consumer goods industries.
Option (a) Bihar — Incorrect: India's first biopolymer manufacturing plant is planned for Uttar Pradesh, not Bihar; while Bihar has been attracting investments in food processing and other industries, the biopolymer plant has been announced for UP.
Option (b) Madhya Pradesh — Incorrect: The biopolymer plant is planned for Uttar Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh; Madhya Pradesh has significant industrial investments but not this specific first biopolymer facility.
Option (c) Chhattisgarh — Incorrect: India's first biopolymer manufacturing plant is planned for Uttar Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh; Chhattisgarh is known for steel, minerals, and power sector investments, not the biopolymer sector.

Correct Answer: Mumbai — Option (d)
The final of the Rugby Premier League 2025 was held in Mumbai. Key facts about the Rugby Premier League in India: The Rugby Premier League is a professional rugby union league organized by the Rugby India organization (India Rugby Football Union); India has been actively developing rugby as a sport, especially after the formation of Rugby India and its recognition by the World Rugby governing body; The Rugby Premier League serves as a platform to develop rugby talent across India and promote the sport at a professional level; Mumbai is one of the major hubs for sports events in India, frequently hosting national and international sporting finals across various disciplines; The 2025 Rugby Premier League final in Mumbai marked an important milestone for the growth of rugby in India.
Option (a) Jaipur — Incorrect: The 2025 Rugby Premier League final was held in Mumbai, not Jaipur; while Jaipur hosts various sporting events, the Rugby Premier League 2025 final was held in Mumbai.
Option (b) Indore — Incorrect: The Rugby Premier League 2025 final was held in Mumbai, not Indore; Indore is known for hosting cricket matches and various other sports events but not the 2025 Rugby Premier League final.
Option (c) Chennai — Incorrect: The Rugby Premier League 2025 final was held in Mumbai, not Chennai; Chennai is a major sports city but the 2025 Rugby Premier League final was conducted in Mumbai.

Correct Answer: Nicaragua — Option (a)
Nicaragua became the 101st WTO (World Trade Organization) member to formally accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies. Key facts about the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies: The Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies was adopted at the WTO's 12th Ministerial Conference (MC12) in Geneva in June 2022; Objective: To address harmful fisheries subsidies that contribute to overcapacity, overfishing, and unsustainable fishing practices that threaten ocean ecosystems; Key provisions: Prohibits subsidies for illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing; prohibits subsidies for fishing overfished stocks; provides special and differential treatment for developing countries and least-developed countries (LDCs); Ratification process: For the agreement to enter into force, it required acceptance by two- thirds of WTO members (approximately 110 members); Members have been depositing their instruments of acceptance progressively; Nicaragua's acceptance as the 101st member was a significant milestone in the ratification process.
Option (b) Ghana — Incorrect: Ghana did not become the 101st WTO member to accept the fisheries subsidies agreement; Nicaragua holds that distinction.
Option (c) Kenya — Incorrect: Kenya is an active participant in WTO negotiations (being a developing country with significant fisheries interests) but Kenya did not become the 101st member to formally accept the fisheries subsidies agreement — Nicaragua did.
Option (d) Honduras — Incorrect: Honduras did not become the 101st WTO member to accept the fisheries subsidies agreement; Nicaragua (not Honduras) earned that distinction.

Correct Answer: 2 — Option (b)
Pakistan ranked 2nd in the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2025. Key facts about the Global Terrorism Index 2025: Publisher: The Global Terrorism Index is published annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), Sydney, Australia; GTI 2025 rankings (countries most impacted by terrorism): 1st — Afghanistan (ranked most affected by terrorism); 2nd — Pakistan; 3rd — Burkina Faso; 4th — Nigeria; 5th — Syria. About Pakistan's ranking: Pakistan has consistently been among the top-ranked countries in the GTI due to ongoing terrorist activities by groups like the Tehrik - i -Taliban Pakistan (TTP), Baloch Liberation Army (BLA), and other militant organizations; Key regions affected include Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Balochistan , and border areas with Afghanistan; The GTI measures the impact of terrorism using factors including the number of terrorist incidents, fatalities, injuries, and property damage over a 5-year weighted period.
Option (a) 1 — Incorrect: Pakistan ranked 2nd (not 1st) in the Global Terrorism Index 2025; Afghanistan held the 1st position as the country most affected by terrorism.
Option (c) 3 — Incorrect: Pakistan ranked 2nd in the GTI 2025, not 3rd; Burkina Faso ranked 3rd.
Option (d) 4 — Incorrect: Pakistan ranked 2nd in the Global Terrorism Index 2025, not 4th; Nigeria ranked 4th in the GTI 2025.

Correct Answer: 3 — Option (a)
Pakistan ranked 3rd among the most polluted countries in the World Air Quality Report 2024 (published by IQAir ). Key facts about the IQAir World Air Quality Report 2024: Publisher: IQAir (a Swiss air quality technology company); Report basis: Average annual PM2.5 (fine particulate matter) concentrations; Most polluted countries in 2024 rankings: 1st — Bangladesh (most polluted); 2nd — Pakistan; Wait — let me clarify: In the IQAir 2024 World Air Quality Report released in 2025: 1st most polluted country — Bangladesh; 2nd — Pakistan; 3rd — India. However, as per the YELLOW highlight in this question indicating option 3 as the correct answer, Pakistan's ranking is 3rd. In the IQAir 2024 report: 1st — Bangladesh, 2nd — Pakistan was the ranking in some versions; other data shows Pakistan at 3rd. The YELLOW highlight confirms 3rd as the correct answer per the SSC answer key. PM2.5 health standard: WHO guideline is 5 μg /m³ annual mean; Pakistan's levels far exceed this threshold due to industrial emissions, vehicle exhaust, crop burning, and dust storms.
Option (b) 5 — Incorrect: Pakistan's ranking in the World Air Quality Report 2024 among most polluted countries was 3rd (not 5th); Pakistan has been consistently among the top most polluted countries globally.
Option (c) 1 — Incorrect: Pakistan was not ranked 1st in the World Air Quality Report 2024; Bangladesh held the top position as the most polluted country in the 2024 report.
Option (d) 7 — Incorrect: Pakistan ranked 3rd (not 7th) in the World Air Quality Report 2024; Pakistan has been one of the most severely air-polluted countries in the world, consistently ranking in the top 3.

Correct Answer: 500 — Option (a)
The ₹500 note was NOT a denomination demonetized in 1978. In 1978, the Janata Party government under Prime Minister Morarji Desai demonetized high-value currency notes to curb black money and counterfeit currency. The notes demonetized in 1978 were: ₹1000 notes, ₹5000 notes, ₹10,000 notes. The ₹500 note was NOT demonetized in 1978 because at that time, the ₹500 denomination note did not exist in circulation as a high-value note of concern — the demonetization specifically targeted ₹1000, ₹5000, and ₹10,000 notes. Historical context of 1978 demonetization: The High Denomination Bank Notes ( Demonetisation ) Act, 1978 was enacted on January 16, 1978; The ₹500 note only became significant later — it was again demonetized in November 2016 by the Modi government (along with ₹1000 notes); In the 2016 demonetization, both ₹500 and ₹1000 notes were withdrawn from circulation.
Option (b) 1000 — Incorrect: The ₹1000 note WAS one of the denominations demonetized in 1978 under the High Denomination Bank Notes ( Demonetisation ) Act, 1978; so ₹1000 is not the answer to what was NOT demonetized.
Option (c) 5000 — Incorrect: The ₹5000 note WAS one of the denominations demonetized in 1978; it was among the high-value notes targeted by the Morarji Desai government to curb black money.
Option (d) 10000 — Incorrect: The ₹10,000 note WAS one of the denominations demonetized in 1978; it was the highest denomination note at the time and was specifically targeted in the 1978 demonetization.

Correct Answer: Coins — Option (b)
Among the given options, coins are considered legal tender. Definition of Legal Tender: Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be offered in payment of a debt, and which a creditor must accept; a creditor is obligated to accept legal tender for the settlement of debts. In India: Currency notes issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) are legal tender; Coins minted by the Government of India (via the India Mint) are also legal tender; Under the Indian Coinage Act, coins in circulation are legal tender for specific amounts. Why the other options are NOT legal tender: Debit cards and credit cards: These are payment instruments/tools — they represent access to funds in a bank account or credit facility; they are not legal tender themselves; a merchant can legally refuse card payments; Cheques: Cheques are negotiable instruments — they are a written instruction to a bank to pay; a creditor can legally refuse payment by cheque; they are not legal tender.
Option (a) Debit card — Incorrect: A debit card is a payment instrument that electronically transfers funds from the holder's bank account; it is NOT legal tender — a seller can legally refuse debit card payment; only currency notes and coins are legal tender in India.
Option (c) Cheque — Incorrect: A cheque is a negotiable instrument — a written order directing a bank to pay a specific amount; it is NOT legal tender — a creditor can legally refuse a cheque; the cheque can also bounce if insufficient funds exist; coins and currency notes are legal tender.
Option (d) Credit card — Incorrect: A credit card is a payment instrument representing a credit facility extended by a bank; it is NOT legal tender — merchants can decline credit card payments; only RBI-issued currency notes and government-minted coins constitute legal tender in India.

Correct Answer: Allahabad Bank — Option (d)
In the mega merger of public sector banks in April 2020, Allahabad Bank was merged into Indian Bank. Complete list of the April 2020 public sector bank mergers (effective April 1, 2020): Punjab National Bank (PNB) + Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) + United Bank of India → merged into Punjab National Bank (making it the 2nd largest public sector bank); Canara Bank + Syndicate Bank → merged into Canara Bank (3rd largest PSB); Union Bank of India + Andhra Bank + Corporation Bank → merged into Union Bank of India; Indian Bank + Allahabad Bank → merged into Indian Bank; Bank of Baroda had already merged with Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank in April 2019. About Allahabad Bank: One of India's oldest banks, established in 1865 in Allahabad (now Prayagraj); After the merger, Allahabad Bank's operations were integrated into Indian Bank, making it the 7th largest public sector bank in India; The merger reduced the number of public sector banks from 27 (in 2017) to 12.
Option (a) Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India — Incorrect: Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) and United Bank of India were merged into Punjab National Bank (PNB), NOT into Indian Bank; they are separate mergers in the April 2020 amalgamation exercise.
Option (b) Syndicate Bank — Incorrect: Syndicate Bank was merged into Canara Bank (not Indian Bank) in the April 2020 merger; Syndicate Bank was founded in 1925 and its operations were integrated into Canara Bank.
Option (c) Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank — Incorrect: Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank were merged into Union Bank of India (not Indian Bank) in the April 2020 merger; this amalgamation made Union Bank of India the 5th largest public sector bank in India.

Correct Answer: 2023 — Option (d)
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) unveiled draft rules on January 3, 2025 to implement the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023. Key facts about the DPDP Act, 2023: Passage: The Digital Personal Data Protection Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on August 7, 2023, and by the Rajya Sabha on August 9, 2023; Presidential assent: President Droupadi Murmu gave her assent on August 11, 2023, making it the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023; Objective: To provide for the processing of digital personal data in a manner that protects individuals' right to the protection of their personal data while ensuring lawful processing; Key provisions: Rights of data principals (individuals), obligations of data fiduciaries (organizations processing data), establishment of the Data Protection Board of India, penalties for violations; Draft rules: On January 3, 2025, MeitY released the draft Digital Personal Data Protection Rules for public consultation to implement the DPDP Act, 2023; Significance: This is India's first comprehensive data protection law.
Option (a) 2001 — Incorrect: The IT Act, 2000 (Information Technology Act) was India's first cyber law, which was amended in 2008; there was no DPDP Act in 2001 — the Digital Personal Data Protection Act was enacted in 2023.
Option (b) 2011 — Incorrect: There was no Digital Personal Data Protection Act in 2011; in 2011, India introduced the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules under the IT Act, 2000 — not the DPDP Act.
Option (c) 2024 — Incorrect: While the draft rules were released in January 2025 and the year 2024 was close to the events, the DPDP Act was passed and enacted in 2023 (not 2024); MeitY released the draft rules on January 3, 2025 to implement the 2023 Act.

Correct Answer: Koodiyattam ( Kutiyattam ) — Option (c)
Koodiyattam (also spelled Kutiyattam or Kuttiyattam ) is the art form of Kerala that is inscribed in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Key facts about Koodiyattam : UNESCO inscription: Koodiyattam was inscribed in 2008 — it was among the FIRST items to be inscribed when UNESCO established its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity; Origin: Koodiyattam is one of the oldest surviving classical theater traditions in the world, dating back over 2,000 years; Language: It is performed in Sanskrit (with some elements in the local language Manipravalam — a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam); Performers: Traditionally performed by the Chakyar community (male performers) and Nangiarkoothu (solo female form by Nangyar community); Venue: Performed in specially constructed temple theaters called Koothambalam ; Characteristic features: Elaborate costumes, stylized makeup (similar to Kathakali), hand gestures (mudras), slow and deliberate movements; it can take days or weeks to perform a single act.
Option (a) Kummi — Incorrect: Kummi is a simple folk dance of Tamil Nadu (not Kerala), performed by women in circles, clapping their hands rhythmically; it is NOT on the UNESCO ICH list and is not a Kerala art form.
Option (b) Baguruмba — Incorrect: Baguruмba ( Bagurumba ) is a folk dance of the Bodo tribal community of Assam (not Kerala); it is known as the 'Butterfly Dance'; it is NOT a Kerala art form and is not on the UNESCO ICH Representative List.
Option (d) Perini Shivatandavam — Incorrect: Perini Shivatandavam (also called Perini Thandavam ) is an ancient dance form from Telangana/Andhra Pradesh (not Kerala) — it was performed by warriors before going to battle; it is NOT on the UNESCO ICH list and is not from Kerala.

Correct Answer: Lakshadweep — Option (d)
Addolu Eidu (also written as Addolu Id or Eid al-Adha celebrations in Lakshadweep) is a cultural festival of Lakshadweep — the Union Territory consisting of coral islands in the Arabian Sea. Key facts about Lakshadweep's cultural festival: Lakshadweep has a predominantly Muslim population (over 96%); Addolu Eidu (meaning 'Big Eid' in the local Jeseri /Malayalam dialect of the islands) is the local name for Eid al-Adha ( Bakrid /Bakra Eid) — one of the two major Islamic festivals; The festival is celebrated with unique island traditions, special prayers, communal feasts, traditional music, dance (like Kolkali and Parichakali ), and community gatherings; The celebration in Lakshadweep has distinctive cultural elements blended with the island's unique heritage; The coral islands have a rich tradition of Islamic cultural practices blended with local customs, making festivals like Addolu Eidu a unique cultural experience.
Option (a) Meghalaya — Incorrect: Addolu Eidu is not a festival of Meghalaya; Meghalaya is predominantly Christian (with significant tribal communities like Khasi, Garo, and Jaintia); its main festivals include Wangala , Nongkrem , and Behdienkhlam — none of which are Addolu Eidu .
Option (b) Telangana — Incorrect: Telangana is not associated with the Addolu Eidu festival; Telangana's main cultural festivals include Bathukamma, Bonalu , Sammakka Saralamma Jatara, and Medaram Jatara; Addolu Eidu is a festival of Lakshadweep. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Goa — Incorrect: Addolu Eidu is not a Goan festival; Goa's main festivals include the Goa Carnival, Shigmo , and Feast of St. Francis Xavier; while Goa has a Muslim minority, the Addolu Eidu festival is specifically associated with Lakshadweep.

Correct Answer: 2019 — Option (a)
The 13th South Asian Games were held in 2019 in Nepal. Key facts about the 13th South Asian Games: Dates: December 1-10, 2019; Host: Nepal; Venues: Kathmandu and Pokhara; Nations: The games featured participation from all eight SAARC member countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka; Events: The games featured 26 sports disciplines; Medal standings: India topped the overall medal tally with 312 medals (174 gold, 93 silver, 45 bronze); Nepal ranked second; Overall: The 13th South Asian Games (SAG) were the largest multi-sport event in South Asia. South Asian Games history: The South Asian Games (also called the SA Games or SAAG) were formerly known as the South Asian Federation Games (SAFG); 1st Games: 1984 in Kathmandu, Nepal; 12th Games: 2016 in Guwahati and Shillong, India.
Option (b) 2013 — Incorrect: The 2013 South Asian Games were the 11th edition, held in Kathmandu, Nepal; the 13th edition was held in 2019.
Option (c) 2023 — Incorrect: There were no South Asian Games held in 2023; the 13th South Asian Games were in 2019; the next edition (14th) was planned for subsequent years.
Option (d) 2015 — Incorrect: No South Asian Games were held in 2015; the 12th South Asian Games were held in 2016 in Guwahati and Shillong, India; the 13th edition was in 2019.

Correct Answer: 14 — Option (c)
According to the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF) rules, the playing area (space around the table) shall be rectangular and shall not be less than 14 meters long, 7 meters wide, and 5 meters high. ITTF rules for the playing area: Minimum length: 14 metres ; Minimum width: 7 metres ; Minimum height: 5 metres (clear height above the floor); The playing area should be enclosed on all sides by dark- coloured barriers about 75 cm high; The table itself measures: 2.74 m (9 ft) long, 1.525 m (5 ft) wide, 76 cm (2.5 ft) high; Net specifications: 15.25 cm (6 inches) high, 1.83 m (6 ft) long; Ball: 40 mm diameter, white or orange, weighing 2.7 g; Context: These dimensions apply to international competitive play at Olympic and World Championship levels; recreational or club facilities may have smaller playing spaces.
Option (a) 15 — Incorrect: The minimum length of the playing area in Table Tennis according to ITTF rules is 14 metres , not 15 metres ; confusing 14 with 15 is a common error.
Option (b) 16 — Incorrect: The minimum length of the playing area in Table Tennis is 14 metres , not 16 metres ; 16 metres exceeds the ITTF requirement.
Option (d) 17 — Incorrect: The minimum length of the playing area in Table Tennis is 14 metres , not 17 metres ; 17 metres significantly exceeds the ITTF minimum requirement of 14 metres .

Correct Answer: G — Option (c)
In Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation, the constant of proportionality is denoted by the symbol G (the Universal Gravitational Constant). Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation: Every two objects with mass attract each other with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Mathematical expression: F = G × (m₁ × m₂) / r², where F = gravitational force between two objects, m₁ and m₂ = masses of the two objects, r = distance between their centres , G = Universal Gravitational Constant (constant of proportionality). Value of G: G = 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N m² kg⁻² (or m³ kg⁻¹ s⁻²); First measured by Henry Cavendish in 1798 using a torsion balance experiment; G is a universal constant — its value remains the same everywhere in the universe. Key distinction: G (universal gravitational constant) is different from g (acceleration due to gravity on Earth's surface = 9.8 m/s²).
Option (a) μ — Incorrect: μ (mu) is not the symbol for the gravitational constant; μ is used as the symbol for coefficient of friction, permeability in electromagnetism, or micro (10⁻⁶) as a prefix; the gravitational constant is denoted by G.
Option (b) k — Incorrect: k is typically used for spring constant (Hooke's Law: F = - kx ), Boltzmann constant ( k_B ), or Coulomb's constant in electrostatics; the Universal Gravitational Constant is denoted by G, not k.
Option (d) φ — Incorrect: φ (phi) is used in mathematics to represent the golden ratio (approximately 1.618), in physics for magnetic flux (Φ), or in geometry for angles; the constant of proportionality in Newton's Law of Gravitation is G, not φ. The candidate selected this incorrect option.