SSC GD 2026 21 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Narmada, Tapi — Option (b)
Narmada and Tapi (Tapti) are the major peninsular rivers of India that flow westward and drain into the Arabian Sea. Narmada: The fifth-longest river in India (about 1,312 km); originates from Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh; flows westward through the Narmada-Son Rift Valley (a structural valley, unlike most Indian rivers that flow in alluvial plains); drains into the Gulf of Khambhat (Gulf of Cambay) in the Arabian Sea; forms the traditional boundary between North India and South India (Deccan/peninsular); Tapi (Tapti): About 724 km long; originates from Satpura Range in Betul district, Madhya Pradesh; flows parallel to and south of the Narmada through Maharashtra and Gujarat; also drains into the Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea) near Surat; Both rivers flow through rift valleys (grabens) formed by faulting — they are fault-guided rivers flowing westward, unlike most peninsular rivers (Krishna, Godavari, Kaveri, Mahanadi) which flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal.
Option (a) Krishna, Godavari — Incorrect: Krishna and Godavari are major peninsular rivers that flow EASTWARD and drain into the Bay of Bengal (not the Arabian Sea); Godavari (the 'Dakshin Ganga') originates in Nashik, Maharashtra and flows east through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh; Krishna originates near Mahabaleshwar and flows east through Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha — Incorrect: Mahanadi and Subarnarekha both flow EASTWARD and drain into the Bay of Bengal — Mahanadi through Odisha (Paradip) and Subarnarekha through Jharkhand/Odisha; they are NOT Arabian Sea-draining rivers.
Option (d) Kaveri, Periyar — Incorrect: Kaveri (Cauvery) flows eastward from the Western Ghats through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu into the Bay of Bengal; while Periyar is a river of Kerala that drains into the Arabian Sea (at Kochi), Kaveri does not; Narmada and Tapi are the correct pair of peninsular rivers draining into the Arabian Sea.

Correct Answer: All of these — Option (d)
The decline in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in India has been due to all three factors mentioned. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): Defined as the number of deaths of infants (under 1 year of age) per 1,000 live births in a given year; India's IMR has declined significantly over the decades — from about 146 per 1,000 live births in 1960 to around 28-32 per 1,000 live births in recent years; Factor 1 — Better neonatal care: Improved neonatal intensive care units (NICUs) in hospitals; newborn care corners in health facilities; Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and institutional delivery promotion; Kangaroo Mother Care for low birth weight babies; Factor 2 — Expansion of vaccination programs: The Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) covering vaccines for tuberculosis, polio, diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, hepatitis B, measles, etc.; expanded to include pentavalent, rotavirus, pneumococcal conjugate, and measles-rubella vaccines; vaccination prevents deaths from vaccine-preventable diseases; Factor 3 — Better maternal health: Antenatal care and checkups under schemes like PMSMA (Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan); better nutrition programs; reduced maternal mortality also benefits infant outcomes.
Option (a) Better neonatal care — Incorrect: This IS one factor contributing to declining IMR, but alone it is incomplete — all three factors (better neonatal care, vaccination programs, and better maternal health) have together driven the decline; the correct answer is 'All of these.'
Option (b) Expansion of vaccination programs — Incorrect: Vaccination is an important factor in IMR decline, but the question asks about the main factors (plural) — all three options contributed; selecting only one factor is incomplete.
Option (c) Better maternal health — Incorrect: Better maternal health is an important contributing factor, but not the only one; all three factors — neonatal care, vaccination, and maternal health — together explain the decline in IMR in India.

Correct Answer: Dana — Option (c)
Cyclone Dana struck Odisha and West Bengal in October 2024. Key facts about Cyclone Dana: Cyclone Dana was a severe cyclonic storm that made landfall on the Odisha coast (near Bhitarkanika and Kendrapara areas) in the night of October 24-25, 2024; It was a significant storm that caused widespread destruction in coastal Odisha and parts of West Bengal; Naming: Cyclone names in the North Indian Ocean are assigned by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) following a roster of names provided by member countries of WMO/ESCAP; 'Dana' was assigned by Qatar; Impact: Heavy rainfall, strong winds, flooding in coastal districts of Odisha ( Kendrapara , Bhadrak, Balasore, Puri) and West Bengal; large-scale evacuation of coastal populations; damage to crops, infrastructure, and homes; Response: Massive pre-emptive evacuation was carried out by the Odisha government (which is known for its effective disaster management); NDRF, ODRAF, Coast Guard, and Navy deployed; IMD issued timely warnings.
Option (a) Yaas — Incorrect: Cyclone Yaas made landfall in Odisha and West Bengal in May 2021 (not October 2024); it was a very severe cyclonic storm that struck near Balasore/ Dhamara on May 26, 2021.
Option (b) Gulab — Incorrect: Cyclone Gulab made landfall on the Andhra Pradesh-Odisha border in September 2021 (not October 2024); it struck near Kalingapatnam ; it was named by Pakistan.
Option (d) Shaheen — Incorrect: Cyclone Shaheen affected Oman and Pakistan in October 2021 (not Odisha/West Bengal in October 2024); Dana is the correct answer for the October 2024 cyclone that struck Odisha and West Bengal.

Correct Answer: Coal Bed Methane — Option (a)
In the context of mineral resources in India, CBM stands for Coal Bed Methane. About Coal Bed Methane (CBM): Coal Bed Methane is a form of natural gas (primarily methane, CH4) that is extracted from coal seams; It is a non-conventional hydrocarbon resource — the gas is trapped within coal seams and adsorbed (attached) to the coal matrix; How it forms: As coal is formed over millions of years under heat and pressure, it generates methane gas — this gas is stored within the micropores of the coal seam; Extraction: CBM is extracted by drilling wells into coal seams, reducing pressure by pumping out water, which causes methane to desorb from the coal and flow into the wellbore; India's CBM potential: India has significant CBM reserves estimated at about 2,600 BCM (billion cubic metres ); Major CBM basins: Damodar Valley (Jharkhand-West Bengal — Raniganj , Jharia coalfields), Son Valley (Madhya Pradesh), Godavari Valley (Andhra Pradesh), and Cambay Basin (Gujarat); Regulatory framework: CBM in India is regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas; ONGC and private companies like GEECL (Great Eastern Energy Corporation Ltd.) are involved in CBM production; Environmental benefit: CBM extraction from mines reduces the risk of methane explosions in underground mines and captures a greenhouse gas.
Option (b) Copper Bearing Mineral — Incorrect: CBM in the standard mineral resources terminology does NOT stand for 'Copper Bearing Mineral'; while India has copper resources (primarily in Rajasthan and Jharkhand), copper minerals are simply called copper ores or specific minerals like chalcopyrite — not 'CBM'; Coal Bed Methane is the correct expansion.
Option (c) Crude Biofuel Mixture — Incorrect: 'Crude Biofuel Mixture' is not a standard term in the context of India's mineral resources; CBM stands for Coal Bed Methane — a natural gas extracted from coal seams; biofuels are a separate category.
Option (d) Compressed Bauxite Material — Incorrect: 'Compressed Bauxite Material' is not a recognized term in mineral resources; bauxite is the ore of aluminium and is referred to simply as bauxite; CBM in the mineral resources context consistently refers to Coal Bed Methane. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Pushyabhuti — Option (c)
The Pushyabhuti dynasty (also known as the Vardhana dynasty) rose to prominence in northern India after the fall of the Gupta Empire. About the Pushyabhuti (Vardhana) dynasty: Founded by Pushyabhuti (or Prabhakaravardhana , c. 500 CE) with the capital at Sthanvisvara ( Thanesar , modern Haryana); The most famous ruler was Harshavardhana (Harsha, reigned 606-647 CE) who became one of the greatest rulers of ancient India; Harsha extended his empire to control most of northern India including Punjab, Kannauj, Bengal, Bihar, Odisha and parts of Madhya Pradesh; He moved his capital to Kannauj ( Kanauj ); Administration: Harsha maintained a large army (horses, elephants, infantry) and was known for efficient administration and personal tours of his empire; Cultural contributions: He was himself a scholar and playwright ( Priyadarshika , Ratnavali, Nagananda ); patronized scholars including the Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang ( Hiuen Tsang) who visited India during his reign; Decline: Harsha died in 647 CE without an heir; his empire disintegrated after his death; Pulakesi II of the Chalukya dynasty had earlier halted his southern expansion at the Narmada River.
Option (a) Chola — Incorrect: The Chola dynasty was a South Indian power (based in Tamil Nadu), NOT a northern Indian power that emerged after the Gupta Empire; the medieval Chola Empire rose to prominence much later (9th-13th centuries CE) in South India, not in the context of post-Gupta northern India. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Vakataka — Incorrect: The Vakataka dynasty was a contemporary and ally of the Gupta Empire (they were closely linked through marriage — Chandragupta II gave his daughter Prabhavati Gupta to Rudrasena II Vakataka ); the Vakatakas were based in central India (Deccan) and pre-dated/were contemporaneous with the Guptas, not the dynasty that emerged after the Gupta decline.
Option (d) Chera — Incorrect: The Chera dynasty was one of the ancient Tamil kingdoms (along with Chola and Pandya) of South India, based in modern Kerala; they were not a northern Indian power that emerged after the Gupta Empire's decline.

Correct Answer: Indian Independence Act, 1947 — Option (b)
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 provided the legal basis for the creation of Pakistan (and independent India). Key provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947: Passed by the British Parliament on July 18, 1947; Created two independent dominions: India (from the existing British India excluding the areas that became Pakistan) and Pakistan (comprising West Punjab, Sindh, Balochistan , North-West Frontier Province, and East Bengal); Effective from August 14, 1947 (Pakistan's independence) and August 15, 1947 (India's independence); Ended British suzerainty over princely states — they were free to join either dominion or remain independent; Established the position of Governor-General in each dominion (Lord Mountbatten for India, Muhammad Ali Jinnah for Pakistan); The British Crown's authority over British India ended; Background: The Act was based on the 3 June Plan (Mountbatten Plan) announced on June 3, 1947, which proposed the partition of British India; Lord Mountbatten announced the Partition Plan on June 3, 1947; the Indian Independence Act was the legislative instrument that gave it legal effect.
Option (a) Cabinet Mission Plan — Incorrect: The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) proposed a united India with a three-tier federal structure (groups of provinces); it was meant to AVOID partition, not create Pakistan; when it was rejected by the Congress and Muslim League couldn't agree, it ultimately paved the way for partition but was not the legal basis for Pakistan's creation.
Option (c) Government of India Act, 1935 — Incorrect: The Government of India Act, 1935 reorganized British India's governance structure (introduced provincial autonomy, All-India Federation concept) but it did NOT create Pakistan; it was the framework that India and Pakistan largely used as their provisional constitutions until their own constitutions were framed.
Option (d) Mountbatten Plan — Incorrect: The Mountbatten Plan (3 June Plan, 1947) was the political announcement/proposal for partition of British India — but it was NOT the legal/legislative instrument; the Indian Independence Act, 1947 passed by the British Parliament gave legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan and created the two dominions.

Correct Answer: Demographic Mission — Option (a)
The 'Demographic Mission' was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Independence Day (August 15, 2025) to deal with the issue of illegal immigration in India. Key details: PM Modi announced this mission from the ramparts of the Red Fort in his Independence Day address on August 15, 2025; The mission was specifically framed to address the challenge of illegal immigration (infiltration) into India; It aims to protect India's demographic composition and national security from the threats posed by illegal migrants; Background: Illegal immigration, particularly from Bangladesh, has been a longstanding concern in India — it affects states like Assam, West Bengal, and other border states; Operation Sindoor (May 2025) had already heightened India's security consciousness; The Demographic Mission represents a policy push to identify, verify, and handle illegal immigrants through systematic processes.
Option (b) Bharat Suraksha Abhiyan — Incorrect: While 'Bharat Suraksha Abhiyan' sounds like a plausible security initiative, the specific mission announced on Independence Day 2025 to address illegal immigration was the 'Demographic Mission' — not the Bharat Suraksha Abhiyan.
Option (c) National Unity and Integrity Mission — Incorrect: The 'National Unity and Integrity Mission' was not the specific mission announced on Independence Day 2025 to deal with illegal immigration; the correct answer is the 'Demographic Mission.'
Option (d) Population Stabilization Mission — Incorrect: A 'Population Stabilization Mission' relates to controlling population growth, which is a different concern from illegal immigration; the mission specifically announced on Independence Day 2025 to address illegal immigration was the 'Demographic Mission.' The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Only I — Option (a)
Only Statement I ('Job Security') is NOT a pillar of the DAJA campaign. Statement II ('Cultural Inclusion') IS a pillar of the DAJA campaign. About the DAJA Campaign: DAJA is a campaign/initiative aimed at social development and inclusion in India; Its pillars focus on aspects like cultural inclusion, social empowerment, and community development — but 'Job Security' (which pertains to employment/ labour policy) is not listed among its core pillars; The DAJA framework encompasses cultural and social dimensions of development rather than employment security guarantees; Interpretation of the statements: Statement I — Job Security is NOT a pillar of DAJA (TRUE — Job Security falls under labour and employment policy, not within the DAJA campaign's pillars); Statement II — Cultural Inclusion IS a pillar of DAJA (TRUE — Cultural Inclusion is indeed one of the pillars of the DAJA campaign's social development approach); Since only Statement I is not a pillar (Statement II is a pillar), the answer is 'Only I.'
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Cultural Inclusion (Statement II) IS a pillar of the DAJA campaign; it is Statement I (Job Security) that is NOT a pillar; therefore 'Only II' is incorrect.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: This would mean both Job Security and Cultural Inclusion are NOT pillars of DAJA; however, Cultural Inclusion IS a pillar of DAJA; only Job Security is not a pillar; therefore 'Both I and II' is incorrect. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: This would mean both statements ARE pillars of DAJA (neither is absent); however, Job Security is NOT a pillar of DAJA; therefore 'Neither I nor II' is incorrect.

Correct Answer: 1993 — Option (c)
In 1993, the Government of India constituted the Malhotra Committee (officially the 'Committee on Reforms in the Insurance Sector') to recommend reforms for the insurance sector. Key details of the Malhotra Committee: Constituted: 1993; Chairman: R.N. Malhotra, former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI); Report submitted: January 1994; Mandate: To examine the structure of the insurance industry, assess whether the existing insurance companies were meeting the needs of the economy, and to recommend policy reforms; Key recommendations: Private sector should be allowed to enter the insurance market (breaking the LIC monopoly); Foreign companies should be allowed with a joint venture partner; A statutory regulatory body should be set up for the insurance sector; Policyholders' interests should be protected; Impact: The committee's recommendations led to the passage of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Act, 1999, which established the IRDA (now IRDAI) as the statutory regulator for the Indian insurance sector; Private and foreign companies (with 26% FDI cap, later increased) were allowed to enter the market.
Option (a) 1983 — Incorrect: The Malhotra Committee on insurance sector reforms was NOT constituted in 1983; it was set up in 1993; in 1983, the insurance sector was still under the nationalized LIC (Life Insurance Corporation, nationalized 1956) and GIC (General Insurance Corporation, nationalized 1972). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) 1963 — Incorrect: The Malhotra Committee was not formed in 1963; in 1963, R.N. Malhotra was not yet the RBI Governor; the committee was constituted in 1993 and submitted its report in 1994.
Option (d) 1999 — Incorrect: 1999 is the year when the IRDA Act was passed (based on the Malhotra Committee recommendations), NOT the year when the Malhotra Committee itself was constituted; the committee was set up in 1993.

Correct Answer: Surplus budget — Option (b)
When tax collection (government revenue) exceeds necessary expenditure, the budget is called a Surplus Budget. Types of Government Budget based on revenue-expenditure balance: Surplus Budget: Revenue > Expenditure; Government collects more (through taxes, fees, etc.) than it spends; indicates fiscal strength but may also indicate under-spending on public services; can be used to repay public debt; Deficit Budget: Revenue < Expenditure; Government spends more than it collects; government must borrow to cover the shortfall; India has typically run deficit budgets; common in developing economies investing in growth; Types of deficit: Fiscal deficit, Revenue deficit, Primary deficit; Balanced Budget: Revenue = Expenditure; government collects exactly as much as it spends; theoretically ideal but rare in practice; Zero-Based Budget (ZBB): A budgeting technique where every expense must be justified for each new period, starting from a 'zero base' — NOT related to the revenue-expenditure balance; used in financial planning/management.
Option (a) Deficit budget — Incorrect: A deficit budget is the opposite scenario — when government expenditure EXCEEDS revenue (tax collection is LESS than expenditure); India has historically maintained fiscal deficit budgets; the question describes revenue exceeding expenditure, which is a Surplus Budget.
Option (c) Balanced budget — Incorrect: A balanced budget is when revenue EQUALS expenditure (neither surplus nor deficit); the question describes a situation where tax collection EXCEEDS expenditure — this is a Surplus Budget, not a balanced budget.
Option (d) Zero budget — Incorrect: 'Zero budget' or 'Zero-Based Budgeting' (ZBB) is a budgeting methodology where every budget item must be freshly justified each period (starting from zero); it is not a type of budget defined by the relationship between revenue and expenditure; the correct answer for revenue exceeding expenditure is Surplus Budget.

Correct Answer: 0.5% — Option (a)
India's share of service exports in global service exports in 1993 was approximately 0.5%. Historical context: In 1993, India's service exports were relatively modest — before the IT and software services boom that transformed India's export profile; Economic Liberalization: India began economic liberalization in 1991 (after the balance of payments crisis) — the IT sector was just beginning to scale up; India's service exports in 1993 were dominated by traditional services; Growth of Indian service exports: After liberalization, India's IT/BPO sector grew dramatically — by 2005-06, India had become one of the world's top service exporters; India's share of global service exports has since grown significantly (to about 3-4% by the early 21st century, and even higher in IT services); India's journey in services: From a 0.5% share in 1993 to becoming a major global hub for IT services, BPO, financial services, and professional services represents one of the most dramatic economic transformations in the post-liberalization era; Key reference: This data point is often cited in discussions of India's economic liberalization and its impact on service sector growth.
Option (b) 5% — Incorrect: India's share of global service exports in 1993 was much lower than 5%; it was approximately 0.5%; a 5% share would have made India a very significant service exporter even in 1993, which was not the case before the IT boom.
Option (c) 8% — Incorrect: India's share of global service exports in 1993 was approximately 0.5%, far below 8%; an 8% share would represent a major global service exporter — India only achieved significant shares after the IT services revolution of the late 1990s and 2000s.
Option (d) 12% — Incorrect: 12% is far above India's actual share of global service exports in 1993; India's share was approximately 0.5% in 1993; even today India's share of total world service exports is in the 3-4% range (though its share in IT services specifically is much higher). The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Housing prices — Option (d)
The RESIDEX is India's residential property price index, related to housing prices. About RESIDEX: RESIDEX (Residential Property Price Index) is an index that tracks the movement and trends in residential real estate prices in India; Launched by: National Housing Bank (NHB) in 2007 (India's apex housing finance institution, wholly owned by the Reserve Bank of India); Current manager: Later, the management of RESIDEX was transferred to NHB's subsidiary; Coverage: Tracks property prices across multiple cities in India (initially covering 5 cities, later expanded to cover 50+ cities); Types of indices under RESIDEX: RESIDEX (Residential Price Index — tracks residential property transaction prices), Construction Cost Index (CCI — tracks input costs for construction), Rental Rate Index (RRI — tracks residential rental rates), Land Price Index (LPI — tracks land prices), Housing Price Index (HPI); Purpose: To provide credible data on housing price trends for homebuyers, investors, policymakers, and financial institutions; transparency in the real estate market; helps in monetary policy decisions by RBI; Significance: RESIDEX data helps identify housing bubbles, affordability trends, and regional variations in property prices across Indian cities.
Option (a) Stock market performance — Incorrect: Stock market performance in India is tracked by indices like SENSEX (BSE Sensitive Index, Bombay Stock Exchange) and NIFTY 50 (National Stock Exchange) — NOT RESIDEX; RESIDEX specifically tracks residential property prices.
Option (b) Industrial production — Incorrect: Industrial production in India is measured by the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) published by the National Statistical Office (NSO) — not RESIDEX; RESIDEX tracks housing/property prices.
Option (c) Agricultural commodity — Incorrect: Agricultural commodity prices in India are tracked through various systems like AGMARKNET, Minimum Support Price (MSP) data from government, and commodity exchanges — not RESIDEX; RESIDEX is specifically for residential real estate/housing prices.

Correct Answer: Goa — Option (a)
Dashavatar is a traditional folk dance-drama form associated with Goa (and the Konkan coastal region of Maharashtra). Key facts about Dashavatar : Dashavatar (meaning 'Ten Avatars') is a traditional folk theatre/dance form that depicts the ten incarnations ( Dashavatar ) of Lord Vishnu: Matsya (fish), Kurma (tortoise), Varaha (boar), Narasimha (man-lion), Vamana (dwarf), Parashurama, Rama, Krishna, Buddha, and Kalki; Performance: It is performed in temples during religious festivals, especially during Shigmo (the Goan version of Holi) and other occasions; elaborate costumes, masks, and makeup are used; the performances can last all night; Regional association: It is primarily associated with Goa and the Konkan region (coastal Maharashtra including Malvan area); Origin: Has roots in the Bhakti tradition and is performed in honor of Lord Vishnu and other deities; Traditional context: Performed during the Shigmo festival and at local temple festivals ( jatras ); Cultural significance: Listed as an important form of intangible cultural heritage in the Goa-Konkan region.
Option (b) Chhattisgarh — Incorrect: Chhattisgarh has its own rich folk traditions including Pandwani , Raut Nacha, Sua Dance, Karma Dance, and Phag songs — but Dashavatar is NOT associated with Chhattisgarh; it is a folk theatre form of Goa and the Konkan region. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana's folk traditions include Saang (a folk theatre form), Phag , and various folk dances like Dhamal and Gugga — but Dashavatar is not a Haryana folk form; it belongs to Goa.
Option (d) Himachal Pradesh — Incorrect: Himachal Pradesh has folk traditions like Nati (a group folk dance), Kullu Dussehra performances, and Losar Shona Chuksam — but Dashavatar is not associated with Himachal Pradesh; it is a folk dance-drama of Goa.

Correct Answer: Jalandhar — Option (c)
The Harballabh Sangeet Mela ( Harballabh Sangeet Sammelan) is celebrated in Jalandhar, Punjab. Key facts about Harballabh Sangeet Mela: It is one of the oldest ongoing classical music festivals in India and possibly in the world; Named after: Sant Harballabh (Swami Harballabh), a 19th-century saint and musician who was a devotee of Goddess Devi (Shakti); Venue: Held at the Devi Talab Mandir (Devi Talab Temple) complex in Jalandhar, Punjab; Timing: Traditionally held in December (around December 23-25) every year; Duration: Typically a 3-day festival; Music tradition: Focuses on Hindustani classical music — vocalists and instrumentalists perform throughout the day and night; Notable feature: No payment is given to performers — they participate purely as an act of devotion (seva) to the Goddess; History: The festival has been held continuously for over 150 years (started in the mid-19th century); Significance: It attracts some of the finest classical musicians from across India.
Option (a) Gwalior — Incorrect: Gwalior is famous for its own music heritage — the Gwalior Gharana (one of the oldest schools of Hindustani classical music) and the Tansen Sangeet Samaroh (held in Gwalior at the tomb of Tansen, the legendary musician at Akbar's court) — but NOT the Harballabh Sangeet Mela; that is held in Jalandhar. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Bhopal — Incorrect: Bhopal hosts various cultural festivals but is not the city where the Harballabh Sangeet Mela is held; the Harballabh festival is in Jalandhar, Punjab.
Option (d) Varanasi — Incorrect: Varanasi (Banaras) is a major center of classical music ( Benaras Gharana) and hosts festivals like the Sankat Mochan Sangeet Samaroh — but the Harballabh Sangeet Mela specifically is held in Jalandhar, Punjab, not Varanasi.

Correct Answer: 1904 — Option (a)
The first World Wrestling Championship was held in 1904. Key historical facts: The first World Wrestling Championships (in Greco-Roman style) were held in 1904 in connection with the World Exhibition in Vienna, Austria; Greco-Roman wrestling was also part of the 1896 Athens Olympics (the first modern Olympics), making it one of the earliest organized international wrestling competitions; United World Wrestling (UWW), formerly FILA (Fédération Internationale des Luttes Associées ), is the international governing body for the sport; World Championships history: Greco-Roman World Championships began in 1904; Freestyle Wrestling World Championships for men began in 1951; Freestyle Wrestling World Championships for women began in 1987; Olympic tradition: Wrestling was one of the original sports of the ancient Olympic Games in Greece, and has been a part of the modern Olympics since 1896; India and wrestling: Wrestling ( Kushti ) has a rich tradition in India; Indian wrestlers have won medals at the Olympics and World Championships — notably Sushil Kumar (two Olympic medals), Bajrang Punia, Vinesh Phogat, and Sakshi Malik.
Option (b) 1960 — Incorrect: The first World Wrestling Championship was NOT held in 1960; it was held in 1904 (Greco-Roman); 1960 is not associated with the founding of World Wrestling Championships. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 1920 — Incorrect: The first World Wrestling Championship was held in 1904, not 1920; 1920 is associated with the Antwerp Summer Olympics.
Option (d) 1919 — Incorrect: The first World Wrestling Championship was held in 1904, not 1919; 1919 is the year when the Treaty of Versailles was signed ending World War I.

Correct Answer: Deuce — Option (a)
In tennis, when both players have won three points each in a game (score is 40-40), it is called 'Deuce.' Tennis scoring system: Love = 0 points; 15 = 1 point; 30 = 2 points; 40 = 3 points; Deuce = when both players reach 40-40 (each has won 3 points); After Deuce: The next point wins 'Advantage' (Adv); If the player with Advantage wins the next point, they win the game; If they lose the next point, the score returns to Deuce; A player must win by 2 consecutive points after Deuce; Origin of 'Deuce': From the French word 'deux' (meaning 'two') — indicating that one player must win two consecutive points to win the game; Tennis terminology: Love (0 points): Origin debated — possibly from the French ' l'oeuf ' (egg/zero); Deuce (40-40): Must win by 2; Advantage: Point won after Deuce; Break: Winning the opponent's service game; Ace: Unreturnable serve; Let: Serve that hits the net and lands in; Fault: Serve that doesn't land in the correct service box.
Option (b) Love — Incorrect: 'Love' in tennis means zero (0 points) — not the 40-40 situation; for example, '40-love' means one player has 3 points and the other has 0 points.
Option (c) Slice — Incorrect: 'Slice' in tennis refers to a type of shot where the ball is hit with underspin/backspin (cutting across the ball) — it is a stroke technique, NOT a scoring term; the 40-40 situation is called 'Deuce.'
Option (d) Smash — Incorrect: 'Smash' (overhead smash) in tennis is a powerful shot hit from above the head similar to a serve, used to put away high balls — it is a shot type, not a scoring term; the 40-40 score situation is called 'Deuce.'

Correct Answer: Australia — Option (a)
The Global Terrorism Index is published by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), which is headquartered in Sydney, Australia. About the Global Terrorism Index (GTI): Published annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP); Measures: The GTI quantifies the impact of terrorism in 163 countries, including the number of incidents, fatalities, injuries, and property damage; Rankings: Countries are scored and ranked — higher scores indicate greater impact of terrorism; Recent trends: Historically conflict-affected regions like Afghanistan, Iraq, Syria, Sub-Saharan Africa have topped the list; India's ranking varies; About IEP: The Institute for Economics and Peace is an independent, non-partisan think-tank; Headquarters: Sydney, Australia (with offices in New York, Brussels, The Hague, Mexico City, and Harare); Founded by: Steve Killelea (Australian businessman and philanthropist) in 2008; Other IEP publications: Global Peace Index (GPI — annual ranking of countries by their level of peacefulness), Ecological Threat Register (ETR), and Positive Peace Index.
Option (b) USA — Incorrect: The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) is headquartered in Sydney, Australia — not in the USA; while IEP has an office in New York (USA), its headquarters and founding are Australian. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Germany — Incorrect: The IEP is not headquartered in Germany; it is an Australian organization based in Sydney; Germany hosts other think-tanks and international organizations but not the IEP.
Option (d) Sweden — Incorrect: Sweden is home to other important international research institutions (like SIPRI — Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, which publishes data on military spending and arms transfers) but NOT the IEP; the IEP that publishes the Global Terrorism Index is based in Sydney, Australia.

Correct Answer: Increases — Option (b)
When the temperature of a substance increases, the kinetic energy of its particles increases. Fundamental relationship: Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles (atoms, molecules, ions) of a substance — this is a foundational principle of the Kinetic Theory of Matter; As temperature rises, particles absorb thermal energy and move faster (in gases and liquids) or vibrate more rapidly (in solids); Mathematical relationship: The average kinetic energy (KE) is directly proportional to the absolute temperature: KE = (3/2) kT , where k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the absolute temperature in Kelvin; States of matter implications: In gases: higher temperature → faster molecular motion → more frequent and forceful collisions → higher pressure (at constant volume); In liquids: higher temperature → faster motion → eventually evaporation occurs; In solids: higher temperature → more vigorous vibrations → thermal expansion; Practical applications: Thermometers measure temperature based on expansion due to increased particle kinetic energy; temperature is the macroscopic measure of the microscopic kinetic energy of particles.
Option (a) Decreases — Incorrect: Kinetic energy does NOT decrease when temperature increases — it increases; kinetic energy decreases when temperature falls (cooling); if a substance is cooled to absolute zero (0 Kelvin or -273.15°C), particle motion theoretically stops — this is the minimum kinetic energy state.
Option (c) Remains constant — Incorrect: Kinetic energy does NOT remain constant when temperature changes; by definition, temperature IS the measure of average kinetic energy — if temperature changes, kinetic energy must change; kinetic energy would only remain constant if temperature remained constant.
Option (d) It converts to potential energy — Incorrect: Kinetic energy does not simply convert to potential energy when temperature increases; potential energy (due to intermolecular forces) does change during phase transitions (e.g., melting or boiling) when temperature remains constant and energy goes into overcoming intermolecular forces — but during simple heating (not phase change), kinetic energy increases.

Correct Answer: Bhutan — Option (a)
Bhutan is the Himalayan nation that has been exploring cryptocurrency mining using its abundant hydropower resources to boost its economy. Key facts about Bhutan's crypto initiative: Bhutan has significant hydroelectric power resources due to its mountainous terrain and rivers — it generates surplus electricity (much of which is exported to India); Druk Holdings & Investments (DHI), the investment arm of the Royal Government of Bhutan, has been involved in Bitcoin mining operations; Bhutan began mining Bitcoin secretly around 2019-2020 and this was revealed publicly around 2023; DHI has partnered with companies (including BitDeer ) to set up data centers for cryptocurrency mining; Bhutan held a significant Bitcoin portfolio worth hundreds of millions of dollars as revealed in 2023; The mining operations use Bhutan's clean, renewable hydroelectric power — making it 'green' cryptocurrency (with a much lower carbon footprint than coal-powered crypto mining); Rationale: Bhutan's hydropower generates surplus electricity, especially in summer; Bitcoin mining provides a monetization avenue for this surplus power and diversifies Bhutan's economy (which relies heavily on hydropower exports to India and tourism).
Option (b) Nepal — Incorrect: While Nepal also has significant hydropower potential, it is Bhutan (specifically through Druk Holdings & Investments) that has been actively exploring and implementing cryptocurrency mining using hydropower; Nepal has focused more on expanding power exports to India rather than crypto mining. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Pakistan — Incorrect: Pakistan is not a Himalayan nation known for exploring green cryptocurrency mining with hydropower; Pakistan faces energy shortages and crypto activities have been restricted there at various times.
Option (d) India — Incorrect: While India has hydropower resources and cryptocurrency awareness, the specific initiative of a Himalayan nation using surplus hydropower for green cryptocurrency mining to boost the national economy refers specifically to Bhutan — not India.