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Environment and Protected Areas PYQs – Geography, SSC & Railway

137 Environment and Protected Areas (Geography) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 137 questionsSSC 73 · Railway 64
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SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q1. Which of the following statements best describes the mandate and global relevance of the Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), particularly in the context of international conservation frameworks?

  1. (a) ISSG is an autonomous UN agency under UNEP that coordinates global funding and eradication efforts for invasive species in tropical forests, especially under the REDD+ mechanism.
  2. (b) ISSG is a scientific network under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) that provides expertise on invasive species, maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, and supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity’s Aichi Targets and Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
  3. (c) ISSG is a non-governmental body under the Ramsar Convention responsible for monitoring aquatic invasive species exclusively in wetlands of international importance.
  4. (d) ISSG is a subsidiary body of the FAO that focuses on genetically modified invasive crops and their regulation under the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ISSG is a scientific network under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) that provides expertise on invasive species, maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, and supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity’s Aichi Targets and Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Answer: Option 2 — ISSG is a scientific network under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) …
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts under the IUCN Species Survival Commission (SSC), set up in 1994.
It runs the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD) — the source of the well-known list of "100 of the World's Worst Invasive Alien Species".
It also advises governments on Aichi Target 9 and Target 6 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (2022), which aims to cut the introduction of invasive alien species by 50 per cent by 2030.
Revision note — IUCN, invasive species and the CBD
• IUCN — founded 1948 at Fontainebleau, headquarters Gland, Switzerland; it publishes the Red List of Threatened Species (since 1964) with categories from Least Concern to Extinct; India joined in 1969.
• The Species Survival Commission is the largest of IUCN's seven commissions; the ISSG is one of its specialist groups, hosted in Auckland, New Zealand.
• An invasive alien species is a non-native species whose spread harms native biodiversity — Indian examples: Lantana camara, Parthenium (congress grass), water hyacinth, Prosopis juliflora, African catfish.
• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) — opened at the Rio Earth Summit 1992, in force 1993, secretariat Montreal; its Article 8(h) asks parties to control invasive alien species.
• Aichi Targets (2011–2020) were adopted at COP-10, Nagoya (2010); the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework was adopted at COP-15 (Montreal, December 2022) with the 30 by 30 target.
• COP-16 met at Cali, Colombia (2024) under the slogan "Peace with Nature".
• The other options belong to different bodies: REDD+ is a UNFCCC forest-carbon mechanism; Ramsar (1971) covers wetlands; the Cartagena Protocol (2000) on living modified organisms is under the CBD, not the FAO.
Do not mix these up
• IUCN vs UNEP — IUCN is a membership union of governments and NGOs (not a UN body); UNEP is the UN's environment programme (Nairobi, 1972).
• Cartagena Protocol vs Nagoya Protocol — both are under the CBD, but Cartagena (2000) deals with biosafety of living modified organisms; Nagoya (2010) with access and benefit-sharing of genetic resources.
Also asked from this topic: the conference from which the Convention on Biological Diversity resulted (Earth Summit, 1992); the venue of the CBD COP16 (Cali, Colombia); the IUCN Red List status of the dugong (Vulnerable).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 2 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q2. What is a key focus of the Draft Solid Waste Management Rules, 2024, compared to the 2016 rules?

  1. (a) Limiting regulations to urban areas
  2. (b) Circular economy and advanced recycling
  3. (c) Abolishing penalties
  4. (d) Ignoring e-waste
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Circular economy and advanced recycling

Answer: Option 2 — Circular economy and advanced recycling
The Draft Solid Waste Management Rules, 2024 were issued to move India from "collect and dump" to a circular economy — waste treated as a resource to be segregated, recycled and recovered.
The other three options describe the opposite of what any waste rule tries to do.
Revision note — Solid waste rules in India
• All waste rules are made under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000.
• They extended coverage beyond municipal areas to census towns, industrial townships and defence establishments.
• The 2016 rules made segregation at source into wet, dry and domestic hazardous waste the duty of every generator and introduced a user fee and spot fines for littering.
• The draft 2024 rules were published in December 2024, proposing four-stream segregation (adding sanitary waste), a centralised online portal for tracking waste, and the polluter pays principle.
• They were notified as the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, which require segregation into four streams at source and specifically incorporate the polluter pays principle.
• The 2016 family of rules also includes the Plastic Waste, E-Waste, Bio-Medical Waste, Construction and Demolition Waste and Hazardous Waste rules, all notified in 2016.
Do not mix these up
• Circular economy vs linear economy — a linear model is take, make, dispose; a circular model keeps material in use through reuse, recycling and recovery.
• Polluter pays vs precautionary principle — polluter pays makes the generator bear the cost of the damage; the precautionary principle acts before harm is proved.
Also asked from this topic: the streams of source segregation under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2026 (four, 2026); the principle those rules adopt so polluters bear the cost (polluter pays, 2026).

Q3. According to the State of the Rhino 2024 report, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) Rhino poaching in Africa has decreased from 2022 to 2023
  2. (b) Greater one-horned rhino population has significantly declined in 2023
  3. (c) The number of white rhinos has increased, while Indian rhino population remained stable
  4. (d) All rhino species are now listed as critically endangered
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The number of white rhinos has increased, while Indian rhino population remained stable

Answer: Option 3 — The number of white rhinos has increased, while Indian rhino population remained stable
The International Rhino Foundation's State of the Rhino 2024 report put the white rhino at about 17,464, up from about 16,803 the year before — its first clear rise in a decade.
The greater one-horned (Indian) rhino held steady at roughly 4,014.
Revision note — The five rhino species and the 2024 report
• African poaching rose, not fell: about 586 rhinos were poached in Africa in 2023 against about 551 in 2022, most of them in South Africa.
• White rhino — about 17,464; IUCN status Near Threatened. Black rhino — about 6,400; Critically Endangered.
• Greater one-horned rhino — about 4,014; IUCN status Vulnerable. It is found only in India and Nepal.
• Javan rhino — about 76, and Sumatran rhino — fewer than 50; both Critically Endangered. So not all rhino species are critically endangered.
• In India the species is concentrated in Assam: Kaziranga National Park holds the largest population, followed by Jaldapara in West Bengal; others are Orang, Pobitora and Manas.
• World Rhino Day is observed on 22 September; India's recovery programme is Indian Rhino Vision 2020, run with the IRF, WWF-India and the Assam Forest Department.
Do not mix these up
• White rhino vs black rhino — both are grey; the white rhino has a wide, square lip for grazing, the black rhino a hooked, pointed lip for browsing.
• Greater one-horned vs Javan rhino — both carry a single horn, but the Javan rhino is smaller, confined to Ujung Kulon, Indonesia, and Critically Endangered.
Also asked from this topic: the animal Kaziranga National Park is famous for (one-horned rhinoceros); the second largest habitat of the one-horned rhino in India (Jaldapara National Park).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q4. Which of the following Elephant Reserves is correctly matched with its state?

  1. (a) Agasthiyamalai ER – Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Singhbhum ER – Odisha
  3. (c) Anamalai ER – Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Coimbatore ER – Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anamalai ER – Tamil Nadu

Answer: Option 3 — Anamalai ER – Tamil Nadu
The Anamalai Elephant Reserve lies in Tamil Nadu, around the Anamalai hills of the Western Ghats.
The other three are misplaced: Agasthiyamalai ER and Coimbatore ER are also in Tamil Nadu, while Singhbhum ER is in Jharkhand, not Odisha.
Revision note — Project Elephant and the Elephant Reserves
• Project Elephant was launched in 1992 as a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Singhbhum Elephant Reserve, Jharkhand (2001) was the first elephant reserve notified in India.
• India now has 33 Elephant Reserves; Tamil Nadu alone holds several — Nilgiri, Anamalai, Coimbatore, Srivilliputhur and Agasthiyamalai.
• The Asian elephant was declared India's National Heritage Animal in 2010; it is in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and is Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• Karnataka has the largest elephant population, followed by Assam and Kerala; the 2017 census counted about 29,964 elephants.
• Gaj Yatra, the awareness campaign for elephant corridors, was launched on World Elephant Day, 12 August 2017.
• MIKE — Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants — runs in India under CITES.
• For comparison, Project Tiger began in 1973, and the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (1986), India's first, spans Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.
Do not mix these up
• Project Tiger (1973) vs Project Elephant (1992) — different years, both run by the MoEFCC.
• Elephant Reserve vs National Park — an Elephant Reserve has no separate legal status under the Wild Life (Protection) Act; a national park and a sanctuary do.
Also asked from this topic: the year Project Elephant was launched (1992); the year Project Tiger was launched (1973); India's first biosphere reserve (Nilgiri, 1986).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 3 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q5. Which of the following places is NOT a vulture conservation breeding centre under the Bombay Natural History Society?

  1. (a) Pinjore (Haryana)
  2. (b) Buxa (West Bengal)
  3. (c) Rani, Guwahati (Assam)
  4. (d) Pachmarhi (Madhya Pradesh)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pachmarhi (Madhya Pradesh)

Answer: Option 4 — Pachmarhi (Madhya Pradesh)
The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) runs its Vulture Conservation Breeding Centres at Pinjore (Haryana), Rajabhatkhawa near Buxa (West Bengal) and Rani, Guwahati (Assam).
Pachmarhi is a hill station and biosphere reserve in the Satpuras, not a vulture breeding centre.
Revision note — Vulture conservation in India
• The BNHS, founded in 1883 and based in Mumbai, is India's oldest wildlife research body; its vulture recovery programme began in the late 1990s.
• Its three breeding centres are Pinjore, Haryana (2001) — the Jatayu Conservation Breeding Centre — Rajabhatkhawa in Buxa Tiger Reserve, West Bengal (2005) and Rani, Guwahati, Assam (2007).
• The crash was caused by the veterinary painkiller diclofenac, which causes kidney failure in vultures that feed on treated cattle carcasses. India banned its veterinary use in 2006.
• The White-rumped, Indian (long-billed) and Slender-billed vultures fell by over 97 per cent between the 1990s and 2007 and are all Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• The Action Plan for Vulture Conservation 2020–2025 of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change created Vulture Safe Zones and more breeding centres.
• India has nine vulture species, among them the Egyptian, Red-headed, Cinereous and Bearded (Lammergeier) vultures.
Do not mix these up
• Jatayu Conservation Breeding Centre, Pinjore vs Jatayu Earth's Centre, Kerala — the first breeds vultures; the second is a tourism rock sculpture in Kollam district.
• Pachmarhi vs Panna — Pachmarhi is a biosphere reserve in Madhya Pradesh; Panna is the tiger reserve famous for tiger reintroduction.
Also asked from this topic: the bird called nature's scavenger or sanitation worker (vulture, SSC GD 2026).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 3 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q6. Which is the primary legal act for air pollution control in India?

  1. (a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
  2. (b) Environment Protection Act
  3. (c) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
  4. (d) Forest Rights Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

Answer: Option 1 — Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 is the dedicated central law for preventing and controlling air pollution.
It is enforced through the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the State Pollution Control Boards.
Revision note — India's major environmental laws
• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 — the first of the series; it created the CPCB and the State Pollution Control Boards.
• Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 — passed to give effect to the Stockholm Conference of 1972; noise was added as an air pollutant by the 1987 amendment.
• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 — the umbrella law, enacted after the Bhopal gas tragedy of December 1984; later rules, such as the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, are issued under it.
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 and the Forest Rights Act, 2006 deal with species, diversion of forest land, and the rights of forest dwellers.
• National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) were notified for 12 pollutants in 2009; the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched in 2019.
• The National Green Tribunal was set up under the NGT Act, 2010, with its principal bench at New Delhi.
Do not mix these up
• Air Act, 1981 vs Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 — the Air Act is specific to air; the 1986 Act is the general umbrella law covering air, water, soil and noise together.
• Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 vs Forest Rights Act, 2006 — the 1980 Act restricts diversion of forest land; the 2006 Act recognises the rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
Also asked from this topic: the Act dealing specifically with air pollution (Air Act, 1981); the year NAAQS covered 12 pollutants (2009); the parent Act of the Environment Audit Rules, 2025 (EPA, 1986).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 9 September 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q7. Which of the following statements best reflects the scope, powers, and limitations of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, in India's environmental governance framework?

  1. (a) The Act empowers only the Central Pollution Control Board to lay down standards for discharge of environmental pollutants and excludes the Ministry of Environment from enforcement functions.
  2. (b) The Act, enacted under Article 21 of the Constitution, enables state governments to declare ecologically sensitive areas (ESAs) without central approval, ensuring decentralised environmental protection.
  3. (c) The Act allows the Central Government to take all necessary measures for environmental protection, including issuing directions that override other laws, but lacks provisions for penal action against non-compliance.
  4. (d) The Act enables the Central Government to delegate powers to any authority, including creation of Environment Tribunals, and provides the legal basis for notifications such as EIA and Coastal Regulation Zones.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Act enables the Central Government to delegate powers to any authority, including creation of Environment Tribunals, and provides the legal basis for notifications such as EIA and Coastal Regulation Zones.

Answer: Option 4 — the Act lets the Centre delegate powers to any authority, including Environment Tribunals, and is the legal basis for the EIA and CRZ notifications
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is an umbrella law.
Section 3(3) lets the Centre constitute any authority it needs, and Section 3 read with Rule 5 of the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986 is the legal source of the EIA and CRZ notifications.
Revision note — Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
• Passed on 23 May 1986 and brought into force on 19 November 1986 — the legislative answer to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy of December 1984.
• Enacted under Article 253, Parliament's power to legislate to implement an international agreement, here the Stockholm Conference of 1972.
• Nodal ministry: MoEFCC. Section 3 gives the Centre power to take all measures and to lay down standards.
• Section 5 is the power to issue directions — closure of a unit, stoppage of its power or water supply.
• The Act is not toothless: Section 15 carried imprisonment up to 5 years, converted by the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 into monetary penalties of ₹1 lakh to ₹15 lakh.
• Notifications made under it: EIA Notification 2006, CRZ Notification 2019, Eco-Sensitive Zone notifications, the Green Credit Programme (2023) and the Environment Audit Rules, 2025.
• Eco-Sensitive Zones — buffer areas around national parks and sanctuaries — are notified by the Central Government, not by a state acting on its own.
Do not mix these up
• EP Act, 1986 vs NGT Act, 2010 — the EP Act is the executive umbrella law; the NGT Act creates the adjudicating tribunal, whose orders are appealable only to the Supreme Court.
• Article 253 vs Article 48A — the Act rests on Article 253; Article 48A is only a Directive Principle on protecting the environment, and Article 51A(g) the matching Fundamental Duty.
• EP Act vs Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981 — discharge standards under the EP Act are laid down by the Central Government; the CPCB sets standards under the Water and Air Acts.
Also asked from this topic: the parent Act of the Green Credit Programme and of the Environment Audit Rules, 2025 (Environment (Protection) Act, 1986); the meaning of an Eco-Sensitive Zone (a buffer zone).
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 25 August 2026 Shift 2 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q8. The Paris Climate Agreement, from which the United States announced its withdrawal on 7 January 2026, was adopted under the framework of which international convention?

  1. (a) United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
  2. (b) Convention on Biological Diversity
  3. (c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
  4. (d) Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Explanation:
The Paris Agreement (2015) was adopted under the framework of theUnited Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The US had announced withdrawal from the Paris Agreement again under the Trump administration, effective around early 2026.
Important Facts:
• UNFCCC was adopted at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit; its Conference of Parties (COP) oversees agreements like the Paris Agreement.
• The Paris Agreement's core goal is to limit global warming to well below 2°C, pursuing 1.5°C.
• The Vienna Convention and Montreal Protocol deal with ozone layer protection, a separate framework.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 21 August 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q9. What is the primary objective of India’s National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) by 2025–26?

  1. (a) Achieving up to 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in targeted cities
  2. (b) Banning all diesel-operated public transport in urban regions
  3. (c) Introducing carbon taxes on household electricity consumption
  4. (d) Replacing thermal power plants with hydroelectric stations nationwide
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Achieving up to 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in targeted cities

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Achieving up to 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in targeted cities
Explanation:
Confirmed via PIB press releases and Vajiram & Ravi — the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), revised in 2022, targets up to a40% reduction in PM10 concentrationsby 2025–26 (revised from an earlier 20–30% target by 2024) across the 131+ non-attainment/targeted cities.
Important Facts:
• NCAP was launched in January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• It uses 2017 as the base year for measuring reduction in particulate matter concentration.
• It does not involve banning diesel transport, carbon taxes, or replacing thermal plants — those are unrelated to NCAP's stated objective.

Q10. A wildlife reserve in the Western Ghats is losing forest cover rapidly. Which statement best explains why this region is a global conservation priority?

  1. (a) It is a dry desert ecosystem that has few species
  2. (b) It is a vast region with only widely distributed species
  3. (c) It is a biodiversity hotspot with many endemic species
  4. (d) It is a crucial path used by migratory birds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is a biodiversity hotspot with many endemic species

Western Ghats as a conservation priority
The Western Ghats is recognized as one of the world's biodiversity hotspots, characterized by extremely high species richness and a large number of endemic species (species found nowhere else).
This combination of high endemism and habitat loss makes it a global conservation priority, not because it is a desert or purely a migratory bird corridor.
Correct Answer: It is a biodiversity hotspot with many endemic species
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 13 August 2026 Shift 2 · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q11. Amrabad Tiger Reserve, which was in the news in April 2026 for the rehabilitation of tribal families, is located in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Telangana
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Telangana

Answer: Option 2 – Telangana.
• Amrabad Tiger Reserve is inTelangana.

Q12. A conservation biologist is prioritizing areas for protection. She notices a region with many species unique to that area, and much of its habitat has been destroyed. Based on definition, which term best describes this region?

  1. (a) Biodiversity hotspot
  2. (b) Biodiverse ecosystem
  3. (c) Endemic region
  4. (d) Ecological niche
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biodiversity hotspot

Answer: Option 1 – Biodiversity hotspot.
• A region rich inendemic speciesbut withmuch habitat lostis defined as abiodiversity hotspot.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 9 August 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q13. According to the NITI Aayog study titled "Scenarios Towards Viksit Bharat and Net Zero", India aims to achieve Net Zero greenhouse gas emissions by what target year?

  1. (a) 2060
  2. (b) 2050
  3. (c) 2070
  4. (d) 2047
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2070

Answer: Option 3 — 2070
India targetsNet Zero by 2070→ Option 3.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 5 August 2026 Shift 3 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q14. The BBNJ High Seas Treaty, which entered into force in January 2026, is primarily intended to achieve which of the following objectives?

  1. (a) Allocation of exclusive fishing rights to coastal states in the high seas
  2. (b) Expansion of deep-sea mineral extraction without environmental restrictions
  3. (c) Conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction
  4. (d) Regulation of international air traffic over maritime regions beyond territorial waters
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction

Answer: Option 3 — Conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity beyond national jurisdiction
TheBBNJ (High Seas) Treatyprotects marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction → Option 3.

Q15. The Pitti Island in Lakshadweep is notable for which feature?

  1. (a) It hosts India’s largest military base
  2. (b) It contains active volcanoes
  3. (c) It is uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary
  4. (d) It is the gateway to the Andaman Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary

Pitti Island - Lakshadweep
Location: Small coral island in Lakshadweep archipelago
Key Features:
• Uninhabited island (no human settlement)
• Declared as abird sanctuary
• Important nesting site for seabirds and terns
• Protected area for marine biodiversity
Answer: Option 3 → It is uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 2 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q16. Consider the following statements:1. Project Elephant was launched in 1992 to protect elephants in India.2. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 to conserve tigers in India3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is located in West Bengal, India.4. Keoladeo National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh.Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) 1, 2, 3
  2. (b) 1, 3, 4
  3. (c) 2, 3, 4
  4. (d) 2, 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3

Wildlife Conservation Projects & Protected Areas
Statement 1:Project Elephant launched in 1992 ✓
Correct. Launched by MoEF to protect elephants, their habitat and corridors.
Statement 2:Project Tiger launched in 1973 ✓
Correct. Launched on April 1, 1973 with 9 tiger reserves initially.
Statement 3:Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve in West Bengal ✓
Correct. Located in Ganges delta, West Bengal. UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Statement 4:Keoladeo National Park in Madhya Pradesh ✗
Incorrect. Keoladeo (Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary) is inRajasthan, not MP.
Answer: Option 1 → 1, 2, 3
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 June 2026 Shift 2 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q17. Which of the following international agreements aims to phase out ozone-depleting substances?

  1. (a) Montreal Protocol
  2. (b) Ramsar Convention
  3. (c) Paris Agreement
  4. (d) Kyoto Protocol
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Montreal Protocol

Topic: International Environmental Agreements
Montreal Protocol (1987)- Specifically designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS) like CFCs, halons, and HCFCs.
Other agreements have different purposes:
Ramsar Convention - Wetlands conservation
Paris Agreement - Climate change mitigation
Kyoto Protocol - Greenhouse gas emissions reduction
Answer: Option 1 → Montreal Protocol
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q18. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has notified Eco-Mark rules in _____.

  1. (a) January 2024
  2. (b) September 2024
  3. (c) January 2025
  4. (d) September 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) September 2024

Correct Answer: September 2024 — Option (b)
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ) notified the Eco-Mark rules in September 2024. About Eco-Mark: The Eco-Mark scheme is India's environmental labelling programme for consumer products; It was originally launched by the Government of India in 1991 to provide incentives to producers/importers to reduce adverse environmental impact; Eco-Mark label: A label given to products that meet specified environmental standards throughout their product life cycle (production, use, and disposal); The potter's earthen pot logo is used as the Eco-Mark symbol; Products covered: A wide range of consumer products including soaps, detergents, paper, cosmetics, lubricating oils, packaging materials, textiles, food items, etc.; MoEFCC notified revised Eco-Mark rules in September 2024: The new rules updated and strengthened the existing framework for awarding the Eco-Mark to environment-friendly products; New rules aim to align India's eco-labelling with international standards; The scheme is administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) on behalf of MoEFCC ; Significance: Eco-Mark helps consumers identify environmentally friendly products; Promotes sustainable production and consumption patterns; Part of India's green economy initiatives.
Option (a) January 2024 — Incorrect: The Eco-Mark rules were notified by MoEFCC in September 2024, not January 2024.
Option (c) January 2025 — Incorrect: The MoEFCC notified Eco-Mark rules in September 2024, not January 2025. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) September 2025 — Incorrect: The Eco-Mark rules notification by MoEFCC was in September 2024, not September 2025.
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 2 · Ramsar sites and wetlands

Q19. Which of the following is the first Ramsar site of Jharkhand?

  1. (a) Udhwa Lake
  2. (b) Khecheopalri Wetland
  3. (c) Sakkarkoil Bird Sanctuary
  4. (d) Therthangal Bird Sanctuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Udhwa Lake

Correct Answer: Udhwa Lake — Option (a)
Udhwa Lake is the first Ramsar site of Jharkhand. About Udhwa Lake: Location: Sahebganj district, Jharkhand, on the banks of the Ganges (Ganga) river; Udhwa Lake was designated as Jharkhand's first Ramsar site; It is a natural floodplain wetland along the Ganga; Importance: It is a significant bird habitat — home to a large number of migratory birds, especially from Siberia and Central Asia; Species: Hosts various waterfowl, waders, herons, egrets, and other migratory birds; About the Ramsar Convention: International treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands; Named after Ramsar, Iran, where it was signed in 1971; India is a signatory (ratified 1982); A Ramsar site gets international recognition and protection; India has a growing list of Ramsar sites (75+ as of 2024); About other options: Khecheopalri Wetland: A sacred lake in Sikkim — a Ramsar site but not in Jharkhand; Sakkarkoil Bird Sanctuary: Located in Tamil Nadu — not related to Jharkhand's Ramsar sites; Therthangal Bird Sanctuary: Also in Tamil Nadu — not related to Jharkhand.
Option (b) Khecheopalri Wetland — Incorrect: Khecheopalri (also spelled Khicheodpalri ) is a lake in Sikkim — it is sacred to Buddhists and Hindus; while it has ecological significance, it is NOT in Jharkhand and is NOT Jharkhand's first Ramsar site.
Option (c) Sakkarkoil Bird Sanctuary — Incorrect: Sakkarkoil ( Sakkarakottai ) Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu — it is not a Ramsar site of Jharkhand; Jharkhand's first Ramsar site is Udhwa Lake. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Therthangal Bird Sanctuary — Incorrect: Therthangal Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu — it is not connected to Jharkhand; Udhwa Lake in Sahebganj , Jharkhand is the state's first Ramsar site.
SSC GD 2026 – 21 May 2026 Shift 1 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q20. The Aravalli Green Wall Project does NOT cover which of the following states?

  1. (a) Haryana
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: Maharashtra — Option (d)
The Aravalli Green Wall Project does NOT cover Maharashtra. About the Aravalli Green Wall Project: The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a government initiative to create a dense green corridor (ecological barrier) along the Aravalli hill range to combat desertification and land degradation; It is inspired by Africa's 'Great Green Wall' initiative (a massive reforestation project across the Sahel region of Africa); States covered by the project: The Aravalli range runs through FOUR states — Gujarat (southwest), Rajasthan (central), Haryana (northeast), and touches Delhi NCT; The project covers these states along the Aravalli hills to create a green belt preventing desert expansion; Why Maharashtra is NOT covered: The Aravalli range does not extend into Maharashtra — the range ends in Delhi/Haryana in the north and Palanpur /Gujarat in the southwest; Maharashtra is far south and east of the Aravalli range; Objectives: Afforestation and reforestation along the Aravalli range, preventing the Thar Desert from expanding eastward, restoring degraded land, improving groundwater recharge, and increasing green cover.
Option (a) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana IS covered by the Aravalli Green Wall Project — the Aravalli range passes through the Mewat (Nuh), Faridabad, Gurgaon, and Mahendragarh districts of Haryana; Maharashtra is the state NOT covered.
Option (b) Rajasthan — Incorrect: Rajasthan IS the primary state covered by the Aravalli Green Wall Project — the Aravalli range runs through most of Rajasthan (from Sirohi in the southwest to Khetri in the northeast); Maharashtra is the state NOT covered.
Option (c) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat IS covered by the Aravalli Green Wall Project — the Aravalli range extends into the Palanpur and Sabarkantha areas of northern Gujarat; the candidate incorrectly selected this option; Maharashtra is the state NOT covered.
SSC GD 2026 – 20 May 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q21. The Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) agreement
is an international treaty under _____.

  1. (a) UNCLOS
  2. (b) WTO
  3. (c) WEO
  4. (d) UNESCO
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) UNCLOS

Correct Answer: UNCLOS — Option (a)
The BBNJ Agreement (Agreement under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea on the Conservation and Sustainable Use of Marine Biological Diversity of Areas beyond National Jurisdiction) is an international treaty under UNCLOS (United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea). It is also known as the 'High Seas Treaty' or 'Ocean Treaty'. The agreement was adopted at the UN in March 2023 after nearly two decades of negotiations. It establishes a legal framework for: Protection of marine biodiversity in the high seas (areas beyond national jurisdiction); Creation of Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in international waters; Regulation of Marine Genetic Resources (MGR) and benefit-sharing; Environmental Impact Assessments for activities in the high seas; Capacity building and technology transfer. India signed the BBNJ Agreement in September 2023.
Option (b) WTO — Incorrect: The WTO (World Trade Organization) deals with international trade rules; the BBNJ Agreement is a marine biodiversity treaty under UNCLOS, not WTO.
Option (c) WEO — Incorrect: WEO is not a standard acronym for a major international organization relevant to the BBNJ Agreement; the treaty is under UNCLOS.
Option (d) UNESCO — Incorrect: UNESCO deals with education, science, culture, and communication; while UNESCO has programs related to marine science, the BBNJ Agreement is specifically under the UNCLOS framework.
SSC GD 2026 – 9 May 2026 Shift 3 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q22. As per the resolution made at COP-26, India is targeting 500 GW of non-fossil fuel electricity capacity by _____.

  1. (a) 2027
  2. (b) 2030
  3. (c) 2035
  4. (d) 2040
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2030

Correct Answer: 2030 — Option (b)
At COP-26 (26th Conference of Parties, held in Glasgow, Scotland in November 2021), India announced its ' Panchamrit ' (five elements) climate commitments: (1) Achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel electricity capacity by 2030; (2) Meet 50% of energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030; (3) Reduce total projected carbon emissions by 1 billion tonnes by 2030; (4) Reduce the carbon intensity of the economy by 45% by 2030 (compared to 2005 levels); (5) Achieve net zero carbon emissions by 2070. These commitments were submitted as India's updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) under the Paris Agreement.
Option (a) 2027 — Incorrect: India's target for 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity is 2030, not 2027.
Option (c) 2035 — Incorrect: The 500 GW non-fossil fuel target year is 2030, not 2035.
Option (d) 2040 — Incorrect: India's Panchamrit commitment at COP-26 set 2030 as the target year for 500 GW non-fossil fuel electricity capacity.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q23. Which animal is targeted in Project Hangul?

  1. (a) Red panda
  2. (b) Indian Bison
  3. (c) Kashmir Stag
  4. (d) Himalayan Musk deer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kashmir Stag

Project Hangul
Hangul is the local name forKashmir Stag.
It is a critically endangered deer species found in
Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir.
Project Hangul was launched to conserve this species.
Answer: Option 3 → Kashmir Stag

Q24. Which of the following national parks are located in Gujarat?
I. Gir National Park
II. Bandipur National Park

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

Correct Answer: Only I — Option (a)
Gir National Park (also known as Gir Forest National Park) is located in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat and is the only natural habitat of the Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica) in the world. It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1965 and declared a national park in 1975.
Bandipur National Park is located in Karnataka (not Gujarat), on the foothills of the Nilgiri Hills. It is a Project Tiger reserve and part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Bandipur is in Karnataka, not Gujarat.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Only Gir is in Gujarat; Bandipur is in Karnataka.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Gir National Park is indeed in Gujarat.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q25. 'Agenda 21' — a comprehensive action plan for sustainable development — was adopted at which international conference?

  1. (a) 1992 – Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro
  2. (b) 1972 – Stockholm Conference
  3. (c) 2016 – Kigali Agreement
  4. (d) 1961 – Vienna Convention
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1992 – Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro

Topic: Agenda 21 – Sustainable Development
Agenda 21is a comprehensive action plan for sustainable development adopted at theUnited Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as theEarth Summit, held inRio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
It addresses environmental and developmental issues for the 21st century.
Answer: Option 1 → 1992 – Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro

Q26. Kaziranga National Park is famous for which animal?

  1. (a) Bengal Tiger
  2. (b) Elephant
  3. (c) Asiatic Lion
  4. (d) One-horned Rhinoceros
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) One-horned Rhinoceros

Correct Answer: One-horned Rhinoceros — Option (d)
Kaziranga National Park in Assam is world-famous for the Indian One-horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis). It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and hosts about two-thirds of the world's total population of the Great Indian One-horned Rhinoceros. Kaziranga is also home to tigers, elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer. The park's successful conservation efforts have brought the rhino back from near extinction, with the population growing from just a few dozen in the early 20th century to over 2,600 today.
Option (a) Bengal Tiger — Incorrect: While Kaziranga does have one of the highest densities of Bengal tigers, it is primarily and internationally famous for the One-horned Rhinoceros.
Option (b) Elephant — Incorrect: Kaziranga has a significant elephant population, but the park's claim to fame is the One-horned Rhinoceros.
Option (c) Asiatic Lion — Incorrect: The Asiatic Lion is found exclusively in the Gir Forest National Park of Gujarat; it has no presence in Kaziranga.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q27. Which of the following was the first international agreement to establish legally binding emission reduction targets specifically for developed countries?

  1. (a) Basel Convention
  2. (b) Kyoto Protocol
  3. (c) Rio Declaration
  4. (d) Paris Agreement
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kyoto Protocol

Topic: International Environmental Agreements
Kyoto Protocol (1997)was the first legally binding international treaty that set specific emission reduction targets for developed countries.
Other options:
Basel Convention → Controls hazardous waste movement
Rio Declaration → Non-binding principles (1992)
Paris Agreement → Came later (2015), applies to all countries
Answer: Option 2 → Kyoto Protocol
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 2 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q28. Which global event first initiated coordinated international action on environmental protection and development?

  1. (a) Rio Conference, 1992
  2. (b) Doha Climate Meeting, 2012
  3. (c) Stockholm Conference, 1972
  4. (d) Johannesburg Summit, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stockholm Conference, 1972

Topic: International Environmental Conferences
Stockholm Conference, 1972was the first major UN conference on environmental issues.
Key Facts:
• First global summit to make environment a major issue
• Led to creation of UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme)
• Established principles for international environmental governance
Other conferences came later:
Rio (1992) - Earth Summit, Agenda 21
Johannesburg (2002) - World Summit on Sustainable Development
Doha (2012) - Climate change extension
Answer: Option 3 → Stockholm Conference, 1972
SSC GD 2026 – 5 May 2026 Shift 3 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q29. What does the term 'Eco-Sensitive Zone' (ESZ) mean?

  1. (a) Pollution-affected area
  2. (b) Mining zone
  3. (c) Wildlife corridors
  4. (d) Buffer zones around protected areas
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Buffer zones around protected areas

Correct Answer: Buffer zones around protected areas — Option (d)
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs), also called Eco-Fragile Zones, are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ) under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. ESZs are buffer zones around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries — typically within 10 km of the boundary of the protected area. Their purpose is to create a transition zone between the core protected area and the surrounding region, regulate human activities (mining, quarrying, construction, industries), and minimize the negative impact on wildlife and ecosystems.
Option (a) Pollution-affected area — Incorrect: ESZs are not pollution-affected areas; they are protective buffer zones specifically designed to protect biodiversity.
Option (b) Mining zone — Incorrect: Mining is typically prohibited or heavily restricted in ESZs; ESZs are conservation zones, not mining zones.
Option (c) Wildlife corridors — Incorrect: Wildlife corridors are strips of habitat connecting fragmented areas, different from ESZs which are specifically buffer zones around protected areas.
SSC GD 2026 – 4 May 2026 Shift 1 · Environmental movements of India

Q30. The Chipko Movement is associated with:

  1. (a) Forest conservation
  2. (b) Air pollution
  3. (c) Wildlife trafficking
  4. (d) River pollution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Forest conservation

Correct Answer: Forest conservation — Option (a)
The Chipko Movement (1973) was a non-violent environmental movement that began in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand (then Uttar Pradesh). Villagers, led notably by Sunderlal Bahuguna and Gaura Devi, hugged trees (' chipko ' means 'to hug/stick') to prevent them from being felled by commercial contractors. The movement is a landmark in the history of forest conservation and environmental activism in India.
Option (b) Air pollution — Incorrect: The Chipko Movement had nothing to do with air pollution.
Option (c) Wildlife trafficking — Incorrect: The movement was about saving trees, not about wildlife trafficking.
Option (d) River pollution — Incorrect: The Chipko Movement was about forest conservation, not river conservation.

Q31. In 2025, which state government announced the creation of a new eco-sensitive zone around the Bannerghatta National Park?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Karnataka

Topic: Eco-Sensitive Zone - Bannerghatta National Park
Bannerghatta National Parkis located in Karnataka, near Bangalore.
In 2025,Karnataka governmentannounced creation of eco-sensitive zone around this park.
Purpose: Protect wildlife habitat and regulate activities around the park.
Answer: Option 4 → Karnataka
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 3 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q32. Which global event in 1992 popularized sustainable development?

  1. (a) Paris Agreement
  2. (b) Montreal Protocol
  3. (c) Kyoto Protocol
  4. (d) Rio Earth Summit
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rio Earth Summit

Topic: Sustainable Development - Global Events
Rio Earth Summit (1992)- United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
Key outcome: Agenda 21 - comprehensive action plan for sustainable development adopted by 178 governments.
This summit popularized the concept of sustainable development globally and established it as a priority for international policy.
Other options: Paris Agreement (2015), Montreal Protocol (1987 - ozone layer), Kyoto Protocol (1997 - climate change).
Answer: Option 4 → Rio Earth Summit

Q33. Which national park in India has been declared a UNESCO World Heritage since 1987 for its unique mangrove ecosystem?

  1. (a) Sundarbans National Park
  2. (b) Kaziranga National Park
  3. (c) Gir National Park
  4. (d) Jim Corbett National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sundarbans National Park

Sundarbans National Park- West Bengal
Declared UNESCO World Heritage Site in1987
Famous for world's largestmangrove forest ecosystem
Home to Royal Bengal Tigers and diverse aquatic species
Other parks: Kaziranga (grasslands), Gir (lions), Corbett (first national park)
Answer: Option 1 → Sundarbans National Park
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 2 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q34. How often does India submit its Biennial Update Reports (BURs) to the UNFCCC?

  1. (a) Every five years
  2. (b) Every year
  3. (c) Every two years
  4. (d) Every three years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Every two years

India submits BURs to the UNFCCC every TWO years.
Key Facts:
• UNFCCC = United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (1992).
• BURs are submitted by developing countries to update greenhouse gas inventories.
• India has submitted 4 BURs so far (BUR-1 in 2015, BUR-4 in 2024).
• Developed countries submit Biennial Reports (BRs) also every 2 years.
• NDC (Nationally Determined Contribution) updates: every 5 years.
Answer: Option 3 → Every two years

Q35. Which distinguishing feature primarily differentiates a biosphere reserve from a national park in India, as per conservation and management objectives?

  1. (a) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) allow research, tourism, and local livelihoods in designated buffer and transition zones.
  2. (b) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) covers a smaller geographical area than national parks.
  3. (c) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) does not aim at conservation of biological diversity.
  4. (d) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) focuses exclusively on protection of wild animals.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) allow research, tourism, and local livelihoods in designated buffer and transition zones.

The key difference is that Biosphere Reserves (BRs) integrate conservation with sustainable use.
BRs have zonation: core, buffer, and transition areas allowing research, tourism, and local livelihoods.
National parks mainly focus on strict protection of biodiversity with limited human activity.
Therefore, BRs support both conservation and local community involvement, unlike national parks.

Q36. In February 2025, the Union Minister of External Affairs and Heads of Missions from 61 countries visited Kaziranga National Park, located in which state of India?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Manipur
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Assam

Kaziranga National Park is located in the state of Assam, India.
It is known for its population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
In February 2025, a visit by the Union Minister of External Affairs and Heads of Missions from 61 countries took place at Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
This highlights Assam as the correct answer.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q37. When was Namami Gange Programme launched to clean the Ganga river?

  1. (a) 2015
  2. (b) 2020
  3. (c) 2014
  4. (d) 2017
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2014

TheNamami Gange Programmewas launched by theGovernment of India in 2014to clean and conserve theGanga River. It is aCentral Sector Schemeaimed at reducing pollution, improving sewage treatment, and rejuvenating the ecosystem of the river.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q38. Which international agreement aims to limit global temperature rise below 2°C?

  1. (a) Montreal Protocol
  2. (b) Kyoto Protocol
  3. (c) Paris Agreement
  4. (d) Rio Declaration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Paris Agreement

The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
It is an international treaty on climate change adopted in 2015 under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
The agreement sets goals to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and strengthen countries' abilities to deal with the impacts of climate change.
Montreal Protocol deals with ozone layer protection, Kyoto Protocol also targets emission reduction but with different targets, and Rio Declaration is a broader environmental guideline.
Therefore, the correct agreement for limiting temperature rise below 2°C is the Paris Agreement.
Final answer: Option 3
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q39. Which of the following Acts in India specifically deals with controlling air pollution?

  1. (a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1984
  2. (b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  3. (c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1988
  4. (d) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1990
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

The correct Act is the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
However, the actual Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1981.
Option 1 mentions the year 1984, which is incorrect.
Option 2 correctly states the year as 1981, which is the year the Act was passed.
Options 3 and 4 with years 1988 and 1990 are incorrect as there was no such enactment in those years.
Final answer: Option 2
SSC MTS 2025 – 19 February 2026 Shift 3 · Ramsar sites and wetlands

Q40. Which state government has signed MoU with Nayara Energy for the restoration of " Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary"?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Haryana
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Gujarat

Correct Answer: Gujarat (Option 4)
The Gujarat state government signed an MoU with Nayara Energy for the restoration and conservation of Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary, which is located near Jamnagar in Gujarat. Khijadiya is a Ramsar Wetland site and is home to hundreds of migratory and resident bird species.
Why other options are wrong:
Options 1, 2, and 3 – Kerala, Punjab, and Haryana have no geographical or administrative connection with Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary, which is located in Gujarat.

Q41. The Namdapha National Park is in _____.

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh

The correct answer is option 2.
Namdapha National Park is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is one of the largest protected areas in the Eastern Himalayas and a biodiversity hotspot. It is notable for being the only park in the world to have four big cat species — tiger, leopard, clouded leopard, and snow leopard.
Option 1 is incorrect: Assam has notable national parks like Kaziranga and Manas, but not Namdapha .
Option 3 is incorrect: Karnataka's major national parks include Bandipur and Nagarhole .
Option 4 is incorrect: Kerala's major national parks include Periyar and Silent Valley.

Q42. MAB programme by UNESCO is related to which of the following?

  1. (a) Biosphere Reserve
  2. (b) Ozone conservation
  3. (c) National Clean Air Programme
  4. (d) Nuclear waste
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biosphere Reserve

UNESCO's MAB (Man and the Biosphere) programme is related to Biosphere Reserves. Launched in 1971, it promotes sustainable development based on local community efforts and sound science. Biosphere Reserves are designated areas that integrate conservation with sustainable use. It is not related to ozone conservation, clean air programmes, or nuclear waste.

Q43. Which of the following statements regarding the Lesser Florican is/are correct?
1. It is the smallest bird of the bustard family.
2. Its major breeding habitats include states like Rajasthan and Gujarat.
3. Habitat loss due to pesticide-free farming has increased its population in agro -grasslands.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3
  4. (d) All 1, 2, and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1 and 2
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Lesser Florican ( Sypheotides indicus) is indeed the smallest bird of the bustard family.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: Its major breeding habitats are in the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat, particularly in grasslands and scrublands.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: Habitat loss due to agricultural expansion (including pesticide use) has DECREASED its population, not increased it. It is a critically endangered species. Pesticide-free farming does not increase its population in agro -grasslands; rather, it is the destruction and conversion of grasslands that threatens it.
Why other options are wrong:
Options 2, 3, 4: All include Statement 3 directly or wrongly exclude valid statements.

Q44. India's 54th Tiger Reserve, ' Dholpur-Karauli ', has been notified in which state?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

The correct answer is (b) Rajasthan.
Dholpur-Karauli was notified as India's 54th Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan. It covers the Dholpur and Karauli districts of eastern Rajasthan, along the Chambal River valley. The reserve provides a crucial wildlife corridor connecting the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve with other wildlife areas.
(a) Madhya Pradesh: Has several tiger reserves like Bandhavgarh, Pench, Kanha; Dholpur-Karauli is in Rajasthan.
(c) Uttar Pradesh: Has Dudhwa Tiger Reserve; Dholpur-Karauli is not in UP.
(d) Chhattisgarh: Has Indravati and Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserves; Dholpur-Karauli is in Rajasthan.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 30 December 2025 Shift 2 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q45. 'Project RE-HAB' was first launched as a pilot project in which state?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Uttarakhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Karnataka

Project RE-HAB (Reducing Elephant-Human Attacks using Bees) was first launched as a pilot project in Karnataka by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). The project uses bee boxes around forest boundaries to deter elephants from entering human settlements.
(a) Incorrect: Assam has issues with human-elephant conflict but was not the state where Project RE-HAB was first piloted.
(c) Incorrect: Odisha does have elephant corridors but was not the launch state for Project RE-HAB.
(d) Incorrect: Uttarakhand was not the location of the pilot launch of Project RE-HAB.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 29 December 2025 Shift 3 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q46. 'Project Dolphin' was launched by the Indian government to conserve which type of dolphins?

  1. (a) Only river dolphins
  2. (b) Only oceanic (sea) dolphins
  3. (c) Both river and oceanic dolphins
  4. (d) Dolphins in aquariums
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both river and oceanic dolphins

Project Dolphin was launched by the Indian government in 2020 (announced on Independence Day) to protect both river dolphins (Gangetic dolphins, India's National Aquatic Animal) and oceanic/marine dolphins. The project aims to assess dolphin populations, reduce threats like illegal fishing, and strengthen conservation measures under the Wildlife Protection Act.
(a) Incorrect: Project Dolphin covers both river and oceanic dolphins, not only river dolphins.
(b) Incorrect: Project Dolphin also includes river dolphins, especially the Gangetic river dolphin.
(d) Incorrect: Conservation of dolphins in aquariums is not the focus; the project targets wild dolphin populations.

Q47. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, which is set to become India's new tiger reserve, is located in which district of Odisha?

  1. (a) Khordha
  2. (b) Puri
  3. (c) Sambalpur
  4. (d) Bargarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bargarh

The correct answer is Bargarh (Option 4).
Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Bargarh district of Odisha. It is set to become India's new tiger reserve, part of the National Tiger Conservation Authority's (NTCA) efforts to expand tiger habitats and conservation areas in India.
Option 1 - Khordha : Khordha is a district near Bhubaneswar, Odisha's capital. The Debrigarh Sanctuary is not located there.
Option 2 - Puri: Puri is a coastal district in Odisha, famous for the Jagannath Temple. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is not in Puri.
Option 3 - Sambalpur: Sambalpur is an adjacent district to Bargarh in western Odisha. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is specifically in Bargarh district, not Sambalpur.

Q48. Apart from the upcoming Debrigarh Tiger Reserve and Simlipal National Park, which of the following is one of the major existing tiger reserves in the state of Odisha?

  1. (a) Bandhavgarh National Park
  2. (b) Ranthambore National Park
  3. (c) Satkosia Tiger Reserve
  4. (d) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Satkosia Tiger Reserve

The correct answer is Satkosia Tiger Reserve (Option 3).
Satkosia Tiger Reserve is one of the major existing tiger reserves in Odisha, located along the Mahanadi river . It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2007 and is also a wildlife sanctuary. Along with Simlipal and the upcoming Debrigarh Tiger Reserve, Satkosia is one of Odisha's key wildlife conservation areas.
Option 1 - Bandhavgarh National Park: Bandhavgarh is a famous tiger reserve located in Madhya Pradesh, not in Odisha.
Option 2 - Ranthambore National Park: Ranthambore is a major tiger reserve in Rajasthan, not in Odisha.
Option 4 - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary: Periyar is a famous wildlife sanctuary and tiger reserve in Kerala, not in Odisha.

Q49. India's first Dugong Conservation Reserve, recognized by the IUCN in 2025, is specifically located in which body of water?

  1. (a) Gulf of Kutch
  2. (b) Gulf of Mannar
  3. (c) Palk Bay
  4. (d) Chilika Lake
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Palk Bay

The correct answer is Palk Bay (Option 3).
India's first Dugong Conservation Reserve is located in the Palk Bay, between Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka. Dugongs (sea cows) are vulnerable marine mammals that feed on seagrass meadows, which are abundant in Palk Bay. The reserve was established to protect this critically endangered species.
Option 1 - Gulf of Kutch: Located off Gujarat; while it has a marine sanctuary, India's first Dugong Conservation Reserve is in Palk Bay.
Option 2 - Gulf of Mannar: Lies to the south of Palk Bay; while it has a Marine National Park, the specific Dugong Conservation Reserve is in Palk Bay.
Option 4 - Chilika Lake: A brackish water lagoon in Odisha known for Irrawaddy dolphins; dugongs are not typically found there and it is not the location of the Dugong Conservation Reserve.

Q50. According to the IUCN Red List, the Dugong (sea cow) is listed as what conservation status globally?

  1. (a) Critically Endangered
  2. (b) Endangered
  3. (c) Vulnerable
  4. (d) Near Threatened
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vulnerable

The Dugong (Dugong dugon), also known as the sea cow, is listed as 'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Dugongs face threats from habitat loss (seagrass degradation), hunting, boat strikes, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets. They are protected under CITES (Appendix I) and various national laws. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 'Critically Endangered' is the most severe IUCN category (facing extremely high risk of extinction); the Dugong is listed as 'Vulnerable,' not Critically Endangered — though some regional populations face more severe threats.
Option 2 is wrong: 'Endangered' is a more severe IUCN category than 'Vulnerable'; the global IUCN Red List currently categorizes Dugong as Vulnerable, not Endangered, though their numbers are declining.
Option 4 is wrong: 'Near Threatened' would indicate a lower level of concern than the Dugong's actual status; Dugongs are categorized as 'Vulnerable' — meaning they face a high risk of extinction in the wild if threats continue.

Q51. Kuno National Park, famous for the 'Project Cheetah' reintroduction program, is located in which state?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh (Option 3).
Kuno National Park is located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh. It became internationally famous in September 2022 when cheetahs were reintroduced from Namibia under Project Cheetah.
Option 1 - Gujarat: Known for Gir National Park (Asiatic lions), not Kuno National Park.
Option 2 - Rajasthan: Known for Ranthambore National Park (tigers), not Kuno.
Option 4 - Maharashtra: Has several national parks but not Kuno National Park.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 12 December 2025 Shift 1 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q52. Who launched the climate action campaign Mission LiFE in October 2022, emphasizing that everyone can contribute to fighting climate change?

  1. (a) Jairam Ramesh
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Bhupender Yadav
  4. (d) Prakash Javadekar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi

Correct Answer: Narendra Modi (Option 2)
Mission LiFE (Lifestyle For Environment) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in October 2022 at Statue of Unity, Kevadia, Gujarat. The campaign was launched alongside UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres. Mission LiFE promotes environment-friendly lifestyle choices and encourages individuals to adopt sustainable habits (like saving water, reducing waste, using renewable energy) to combat climate change.
Jairam Ramesh is a senior Congress politician and former Environment Minister — not in power in 2022.
Bhupender Yadav is India's Environment Minister but Mission LiFE was launched by PM Modi.
Prakash Javadekar is a former Environment Minister.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 1 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q53. Consider the following statements about the Aravalli Green Wall Project:
1. It is intended to check desertification across Western India.
2. The project is being implemented in four Indian states.
3. It aims to construct eco-sensitive highways along forest corridors.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1: CORRECT. The Aravalli Green Wall Project aims to check desertification and land degradation in the Aravalli range — preventing the Thar Desert from expanding eastward into western India.
Statement 2: CORRECT. The project spans four states: Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi.
Statement 3: INCORRECT. The project aims to create a green corridor of trees and vegetation along the Aravalli hills — it is NOT about constructing eco-sensitive highways along forest corridors.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 2 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q54. Which of the following criteria is a primary requirement for a beach or marina to receive the international Blue Flag certification?

  1. (a) Presence of luxury resorts and high-end tourism facilities.
  2. (b) Exclusive access for private members or residents.
  3. (c) High standards of water quality, environmental management, safety, and services.
  4. (d) Location within a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High standards of water quality, environmental management, safety, and services.

Correct Answer: High standards of water quality, environmental management, safety, and services.
The Blue Flag certification is an international eco-label awarded by the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators. The four core criteria are: Environmental education and information, Water quality, Environmental management, and Safety and services. India has earned Blue Flag certification for several beaches ( Shivrajpur in Gujarat, Radhanagar in Andaman, etc.).
Option 1: Incorrect. Luxury resorts are not a Blue Flag criterion.
Option 2: Incorrect. Blue Flag beaches must be publicly accessible.
Option 4: Incorrect. UNESCO World Heritage status is a separate designation.

Q55. Which of the following is NOT among the list of Indian biosphere reserves designated as a "UNESCO World Network Site" in 2024?

  1. (a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
  2. (b) Panna Biosphere Reserve
  3. (c) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve
  4. (d) Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve

Answer: (c) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve
Solution:
Nilgiri,PannaandGreat Nicobarare part of UNESCO’sWorld Network of Biosphere Reserves.
Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserveis located inAssam, but it isnot includedin UNESCO’s World Network list.
Therefore, the correct option isDibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 9 December 2025 Shift 2 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q56. Consider the following statements about the LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) initiative:
1. It was launched by India during COP26.
2. It emphasizes government regulations over citizen participation.
3. It promotes sustainable habits such as reusing, reducing, and recycling.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 and 3 are correct
Statement 1: CORRECT. LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) was launched by PM Narendra Modi at COP26 in Glasgow (November 2021) as a global initiative.
Statement 2: INCORRECT. LiFE specifically emphasizes individual/citizen-driven behavioral changes and mass movement — NOT government regulations. It is a people-centric, bottom-up approach.
Statement 3: CORRECT. LiFE promotes sustainable habits like mindful use of resources — reuse, reduce, and recycle — as part of an environmentally conscious lifestyle.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 1 · Environment and climate schemes and missions

Q57. Which of the following is true about the Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme ?
It promotes scrapping of old vehicles to reduce emissions.
The 'Ministry of Road Transport and Highways' is the nodal agency.
The scheme incentivizes buyers of fuel-efficient new vehicles only in urban areas.

  1. (a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) Only 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct

The Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme (VVMP) , launched in 2021, primarily aims at reducing air pollution and improving road safety by scrapping old and polluting vehicles. Under this scheme, old unfit vehicles are phased out and replaced with newer fuel-efficient and environment-friendly vehicles. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is the nodal agency implementing this programme . However, the claim that the scheme incentivizes buyers only in urban areas is incorrect, as the programme applies across the country.

Q58. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves is correctly matched with its state?

  1. (a) Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Dehang-Dibang – Meghalaya
  3. (c) Pachmarhi – Gujarat
  4. (d) Dibru-Saikhowa – Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh . This biosphere reserve, located in the Eastern Ghats, was designated as a biosphere reserve in 2010. It is known for its rich biodiversity, especially the red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus ), which are endemic and highly valuable. The other options are incorrect: Dehang-Dibang is located in Arunachal Pradesh , not Meghalaya. Pachmarhi is in Madhya Pradesh , not Gujarat. Dibru-Saikhowa is in Assam , not Manipur. Hence, only option 1 is correctly matched.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 1 · Environment and climate schemes and missions

Q59. Which government scheme aims to phase out unfit and polluting vehicles from India’s roads to reduce emissions and boost automotive industry recycling?

  1. (a) National Electric Mobility Mission Plan
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Sadak Yojana
  3. (c) Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme
  4. (d) Smart City Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme

The Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme (VVMP) , also known as the Vehicle Scrappage Policy, was launched by the Government of India to phase out old, unfit, and polluting vehicles from Indian roads. The main objectives are to reduce vehicular air pollution, improve road safety, and encourage the recycling of materials from old vehicles, which in turn will boost the automotive and steel industries. Under this programme, private vehicles older than 20 years and commercial vehicles older than 15 years that fail fitness and emission tests are to be scrapped. Owners are incentivized with benefits like tax rebates and discounts on new vehicle purchases. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Environmental movements of India

Q60. Which of the following methods was used by the villagers during the Chipko Movement?

  1. (a) Burning forest areas
  2. (b) Violent protests
  3. (c) Filing lawsuits against companies
  4. (d) Hugging trees to prevent cutting
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hugging trees to prevent cutting

The correct answer is option 4. The Chipko Movement, which began in the 1970s in Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh), is one of the most famous environmental movements in India. Villagers, especially women, used the method of hugging trees to prevent them from being cut down by contractors. This peaceful, non-violent form of protest drew global attention to issues of deforestation, ecological balance, and the rights of local communities over natural resources. The movement was inspired by Gandhian methods of non-violent resistance and became a symbol of grassroots environmental activism in India.

Q61. What is the role of National Parks under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?

  1. (a) To promote tourism
  2. (b) To oversee elections
  3. (c) To regulate trade
  4. (d) To protect wildlife and their habitats
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To protect wildlife and their habitats

Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 , the main role of National Parks is to ensure the protection of wildlife and their natural habitats . National Parks are protected areas where activities such as hunting, poaching, grazing, or any form of exploitation of forest resources are strictly prohibited. The objective is to provide a safe environment for endangered species and preserve biodiversity. Tourism may occur, but it is regulated and secondary, not the primary role. Elections and trade regulation have no relation to National Parks.

Q62. Which of the following statements best links a current conservation initiative for the Great Indian Bustard with its geographical location?

  1. (a) National Avian Research Centre in Maharashtra conducted habitat simulation for GIB.
  2. (b) India’s first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
  3. (c) A GIB conservation breeding centre was set up in Kutch, Gujarat for desert climate adaptation.
  4. (d) Kalyan Sanctuary in Karnataka now houses the largest wild GIB population.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India’s first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Rajasthan, where the National Breeding Centre for Great Indian Bustard in Jaisalmer successfully carried out the first artificial insemination of GIB . This links conservation efforts directly with the natural range of the GIB, as Rajasthan’s Thar Desert is the bird’s primary habitat. The initiative is a significant milestone because the Great Indian Bustard is critically endangered, with less than 200 individuals left in India.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 30 November 2025 Shift 1 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q63. As per December 2024, what is India's updated target for reduction in emission intensity by 2030 as Nationally Determined Contribution target?

  1. (a) 20%
  2. (b) 30%
  3. (c) 45%
  4. (d) 60%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 45%

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 45%
As per India's updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) submitted in 2022 and reaffirmed through December 2024, India's target is to reduce the emission intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels. This is an enhancement from the earlier target of 33-35%.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (20%): Too low; India's actual target is 45% reduction in emission intensity.
Option 2 (30%): This was an intermediate goal; the official NDC target is 45%.
Option 4 (60%): Exceeds India's stated NDC commitment of 45%.

Q64. In March 2025, Prime Minister of India announced that cheetah introduction will be expanded to Gandhisagar Sanctuary, which is in _____.

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Madhya Pradesh
Gandhisagar Sanctuary is located in Mandsaur and Neemuch districts of Madhya Pradesh. In March 2025, Prime Minister Modi announced the expansion of India's cheetah reintroduction programme to Gandhisagar Sanctuary, following the success at Kuno National Park (also in MP). Gandhisagar is being prepared as the second cheetah habitat in India.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Gujarat): Gujarat does not have Gandhisagar Sanctuary; it has Gir National Park (lions).
Option 3 (Maharashtra): Gandhisagar Sanctuary is not in Maharashtra.
Option 4 (Kerala): Kerala does not have Gandhisagar Sanctuary.

Q65. The Hesaraghatta grasslands are in _____.

  1. (a) Bengaluru
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Hyderabad
  4. (d) Bhopal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bengaluru

The Hesaraghatta grasslands are located in Bengaluru (Bangalore), Karnataka. They are an important ecological zone and habitat for various bird species.
Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Bhopal are not associated with Hesaraghatta grasslands. Hence, Bengaluru is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 29 November 2025 Shift 3 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q66. The Aravalli Green Wall Project aims to spread green cover in the buffer area around the Aravalli range in _____ districts of four states.

  1. (a) 10
  2. (b) 19
  3. (c) 29
  4. (d) 70
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 29

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 29
The Aravalli Green Wall Project covers 29 districts across four states — Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi. The project aims to create a 1,400 km long green corridor along the Aravalli range to combat desertification, restore degraded land, and improve biodiversity.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (10): This number is too low for the project's stated coverage.
Option 2 (19): Incorrect; the project covers 29 districts, not 19.
Option 4 (70): This would exceed the number of applicable districts across the four states.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 28 November 2025 Shift 2 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q67. The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a major initiative to spread green cover in the _____ km buffer area around the Aravalli hill range.

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 35
  3. (c) 60
  4. (d) 125
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5

The Aravalli Green Wall Project aims to spread green cover in a 5 km buffer area around the Aravalli hill range. The project spans the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi. Its purpose is to combat desertification, prevent the Thar Desert from expanding eastward, and restore ecological balance in the Aravalli region.
35 km, 60 km, and 125 km are incorrect buffer distances.

Q68. The " Keibul Lamjao National Park", the only floating national park in the world, is in _____.

  1. (a) Tripura
  2. (b) Manipur
  3. (c) Sikkim
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Manipur

Keibul Lamjao National Park, the world's only floating national park, is located in Manipur. It is situated on the Loktak Lake in Bishnupur district. The park is known for the endangered Sangai deer (Cervus eldi eldi ), also called the dancing deer. The park floats on phumdis (floating biomass).
Tripura, Sikkim, and Odisha do not have this floating national park.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 27 November 2025 Shift 1 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q69. The Aravalli Green Wall Project covers which of the following state?
I. Delhi
II. Bihar

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

The Aravalli Green Wall Project is an afforestation initiative covering the states along the Aravalli hill range: Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi. Delhi is included in this project.
Bihar is located in Eastern India and does not lie along the Aravalli range, so it is NOT covered by this project.
Hence, Only I (Delhi) is correct.

Q70. The two bird sanctuaries Sakkarakottai and Therthangal are in which state?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu

Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary and Therthangal Bird Sanctuary are both located in Tamil Nadu. They are important wetland habitats for migratory birds, particularly in the Ramanathapuram district of Tamil Nadu.
Gujarat, Goa, and Karnataka do not have these sanctuaries. Hence, Tamil Nadu is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 21 November 2025 Shift 1 · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q71. The Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve is in _____.

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Jharkhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajasthan

Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve is located in Bundi district, Rajasthan. It was officially declared India's 52nd Tiger Reserve in May 2022. The reserve is situated between Ranthambore Tiger Reserve and Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve, serving as a connecting corridor for tigers. Why other options are wrong: Option 2 - Karnataka: Karnataka has tiger reserves like Nagarhole and Bandipur , but Ramgarh Vishdhari is not in Karnataka. Option 3 - Odisha: Odisha has Simlipal Tiger Reserve; Ramgarh Vishdhari is in Rajasthan. Option 4 - Jharkhand: Jharkhand has Palamau Tiger Reserve; Ramgarh Vishdhari is not there.

Q72. The Umred-Pauni-Karhandla Sanctuary, is in _____.

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Uttarakhand
  4. (d) Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: Maharashtra (Option 1)
The Umred-Pauni-Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Nagpur district, Maharashtra. It is a Tiger Reserve and wildlife sanctuary famous for tigers (particularly a tigress named 'Jai'), leopards, wild dogs (dholes), and other wildlife. It is part of the larger Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve landscape. The sanctuary covers an area of about 188 sq km.
Gujarat, Uttarakhand, and Punjab do not have the Umred-Pauni-Karhandla Sanctuary.

Q73. Which of the following is the second largest habitat of the One-Horned Rhinoceros in India?

  1. (a) Kaziranga National Park
  2. (b) Jaldapara National Park
  3. (c) Gir National Park
  4. (d) Kanha National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jaldapara National Park

Correct Answer: Jaldapara National Park (Option 2)
Jaldapara National Park in West Bengal is the second largest habitat of the Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis). It has a significant rhino population after Kaziranga.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Kaziranga National Park: It is the LARGEST (not second largest) habitat of the One-Horned Rhinoceros in India, home to about two-thirds of the world's population.
Option 3 - Gir National Park: It is the last natural habitat of the Asiatic Lion, not the rhinoceros.
Option 4 - Kanha National Park: It is known primarily for the Bengal Tiger and is not a rhino habitat.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 19 November 2025 Shift 1 · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q74. The Bandipur Tiger Reserve is in _____.

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Karnataka

Correct Answer: Karnataka
Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located in Karnataka, in the Chamarajanagar district. It was established as a tiger reserve in 1973 under Project Tiger. It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve - the largest protected area complex in South Asia - along with Mudumalai (Tamil Nadu), Wayanad (Kerala), and Nagarhole (Karnataka). It is one of the most important tiger habitats in India.
Why other options are wrong:
- Assam: Has Kaziranga (famous for one-horned rhino) and Manas Tiger Reserve.
- Madhya Pradesh: Has Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Pench, Satpura tiger reserves; not Bandipur .
- Kerala: Has Periyar Tiger Reserve; Wayanad WLS adjoins Bandipur but is in Kerala.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 19 November 2025 Shift 3 · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q75. In which of the following state the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Telangana
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Telangana

Correct Answer: Telangana
Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in Telangana. It is one of the largest tiger reserves in India by area, covering parts of Nalgonda and Nagarkurnool districts of Telangana. It was designated a tiger reserve in 2014. The reserve is home to tigers, leopards, sloth bears, and various other wildlife species. It is part of the Nagarjunasagar -Srisailam Tiger Reserve complex.
Why other options are wrong:
- Kerala: Has Periyar Tiger Reserve; not Amrabad .
- Madhya Pradesh: Has Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Pench, Satpura , Panna reserves; not Amrabad .
- Tamil Nadu: Has Mudumalai and Anamalai tiger reserves; not Amrabad .
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 19 November 2025 Shift 3 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q76. Which of the following is the nodal organisation for International Big Cat Alliance in India?

  1. (a) National Tiger Conservation Authority
  2. (b) National Lion Protection Authority
  3. (c) Wildlife Institute of India
  4. (d) Central Wildlife Control Board
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National Tiger Conservation Authority

Correct Answer: National Tiger Conservation Authority
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is the nodal organisation for the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) in India. India launched the IBCA on 9 April 2023 (50th anniversary of Project Tiger) with PM Modi. The IBCA focuses on the conservation of seven major big cats: tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar, and puma. NTCA, which oversees Project Tiger in India, serves as the implementing body for IBCA.
Why other options are wrong:
- National Lion Protection Authority: No such body exists in India.
- Wildlife Institute of India (WII): A research and training institution; not the nodal body for IBCA.
- Central Wildlife Control Board: No such body exists; the Central Zoo Authority and Wildlife Crime Control Bureau are actual bodies.

Q77. The Parvati Arga Bird Sanctuary is in which of the following states?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) Jharkhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Uttar Pradesh

Parvati Arga Bird Sanctuary (also known as Parwati Arga Bird Sanctuary) is located in Gonda district, Uttar Pradesh. It is an important wetland habitat for migratory birds. Option 2 (Madhya Pradesh) is incorrect. Option 3 (Bihar) is incorrect. Option 4 (Jharkhand) is incorrect.

Q78. The Sudasari Great Indian Bustard Breeding centre is in which of the following state?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajasthan

The Sudasari Great Indian Bustard (GIB) Breeding Centre is located in Rajasthan. The Great Indian Bustard is a critically endangered bird, and this centre was established to conserve and breed this species in captivity, primarily in the Desert National Park area of Rajasthan. Why others are wrong: - Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka: These states do not host this specific GIB breeding facility. The natural habitat of GIB is primarily the arid and semi-arid grasslands of Rajasthan.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 12 November 2025 Shift 2 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q79. ________ Project is the world's first inter-continental large wild carnivore translocation project.

  1. (a) Lion
  2. (b) Cheetah
  3. (c) Crocodile
  4. (d) Panther
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cheetah

Project Cheetah is the world's first inter-continental large wild carnivore translocation project. Cheetahs were brought from Namibia (2022) and South Africa (2023) to Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh, India. Cheetahs had become extinct in India since 1952. No such large-scale inter-continental translocation project exists for lions, crocodiles, or panthers.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 12 November 2025 Shift 2 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q80. Project _____ is the world's first inter-continental large wild carnivore translocation project.

  1. (a) Lion
  2. (b) Cheetah
  3. (c) Crocodile
  4. (d) Panther
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cheetah

Correct Answer: Cheetah
Project Cheetah is the world's first inter-continental translocation of a large wild carnivore. Cheetahs were translocated from Namibia (September 2022) and South Africa (2023) to Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh, India. The African cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus) was brought to reintroduce the species which had become extinct in India by the 1950s.
Why other options are wrong:
- Lion: Project Lion (Asiatic Lion) focuses on habitat restoration in Gir; it is not inter-continental.
- Crocodile: Crocodile conservation involves local breeding programmes , not inter-continental translocation.
- Panther: No such large-scale inter-continental translocation project exists for panthers.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 22 September 2025 Shift 2 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q81. Consider the following statements on the International Big Cat Alliance:
1. India is the initiator and lead coordinator of the alliance.
2. It focuses on the conservation of 6 species of big cats.
3. The alliance promotes scientific data sharing among member nations.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Statement 1 is correct: India initiated and leads the IBCA.
Statement 2 is wrong: it covers 7 big cats (tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar, cheetah), not 6.
Statement 3 is correct: it promotes scientific knowledge and data sharing.
Hence only 1 and 3 are correct.

Q82. Consider the following statements regarding India's Ramsar Sites:
1. India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in South Asia.
2. Keibul Lamjao is the only floating National Park in the world and is also a Ramsar site.
3. All Ramsar sites in India are located in coastal regions.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Statement 1: Correct. India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in South Asia.
Statement 2: Correct. Keibul Lamjao (Manipur) is the world's only floating national park and a Ramsar site.
Statement 3: Incorrect. Many Ramsar sites are inland (e.g., Chilika is coastal but Loktak, Sambhar are inland).
Hence, only 1 and 2 are correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 1 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q83. The 'Green Credit Programme' launched under the Environment Ministry rewards individuals and companies for which activity?

  1. (a) Water conservation only
  2. (b) Planting trees and ecosystem restoration
  3. (c) Air pollution monitoring
  4. (d) Solar panel installation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Planting trees and ecosystem restoration

- The Green Credit Programme (2023) incentivizes voluntary environmental actions.
- It rewards activities like tree plantation, land restoration, and ecosystem conservation with tradable green credits.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 19 September 2025 Shift 1 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q84. What is the key objective of India'sGreen Credit Programme, recently operationalised under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

  1. (a) Generate green bonds for renewable industries
  2. (b) Reward voluntary environmental actions by individuals or entities
  3. (c) Penalize high carbon footprint industries
  4. (d) Enforce green finance for real estate sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Reward voluntary environmental actions by individuals or entities

The Green Credit Programme (GCP) is a market-based initiative to incentivise voluntary environmental actions like afforestation, water conservation and waste management.
Individuals, communities and entities earn tradable "green credits" for such actions.
Hence the answer is option 2.

Q85. Which one of the following National Park–State pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Namdapha National Park – Nagaland
  2. (b) Similipal National Park – Odisha
  3. (c) Bandipur National Park – Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Vansda National Park – Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Similipal National Park – Odisha

Namdapha is in Arunachal Pradesh, not Nagaland.
Bandipur is in Karnataka.
Vansda is in Gujarat.
Similipal is correctly located inOdisha — hence option 2.

Q86. Why are the Western Ghats considered globally significant according to UNESCO?

  1. (a) They categorize urban rivers based on their economic contribution to the city.
  2. (b) They influence the Indian monsoon and are among the world's top biodiversity hotspots.
  3. (c) They are located near the equator and host polar species.
  4. (d) They form the only volcanic plateau in peninsular India with desert flora.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They influence the Indian monsoon and are among the world's top biodiversity hotspots.

UNESCO recognizes the Western Ghats as a World Heritage Site for their exceptional biodiversity and influence on the Indian monsoon.
They are one of the world's eight 'hottest hotspots' of biological diversity.
The other options are factually wrong, so they are incorrect.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 2 · Environmental organisations and laws

Q87. Objective of India's new Eco-Tourism Policy in protected areas?

  1. (a) Ban human activity
  2. (b) Maximize profit w/o community
  3. (c) Balance conservation and livelihoods
  4. (d) Turn areas into resorts
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Balance conservation and livelihoods

India's Eco-Tourism Policy aims at sustainable tourism that balances biodiversity conservation with the livelihood needs of local communities in and around protected areas.
A complete ban on human activity, profit-maximization without community benefit, and converting protected areas into resorts are explicitly contrary to the policy's objectives.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 3 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q88. The Aravalli Green Wall Project launched in 2023 aims to achieve which of the following?

  1. (a) Afforestation in Himalayan states
  2. (b) Building forest corridors across Indo-Gangetic plains
  3. (c) Restoration of degraded forest patches in Aravalli range
  4. (d) Soil carbon sequestration in desert zones
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Restoration of degraded forest patches in Aravalli range

The Aravalli Green Wall Project (2023) aims to create a green corridor across the Aravalli range spanning Haryana, Rajasthan, Delhi, and Gujarat.
It focuses on restoring degraded land, afforestation, and preventing desertification in the Aravalli hills.
It is NOT about Himalayan states or Indo-Gangetic plains specifically.
Answer: Restoration of degraded forest patches in Aravalli range

Q89. The Western Ghats are a recognized biodiversity hotspot. Which of the following is currently considered the most significant threat to its endemic species, beyond general habitat loss?

  1. (a) Infrastructure development projects (e.g., roads, dams, mining).
  2. (b) Introduction of invasive alien species.
  3. (c) Forest fires due to climate change.
  4. (d) Human-wildlife conflict due to encroachment.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Introduction of invasive alien species.

• Environmental Science - Western Ghats:
• The Western Ghats is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the world's eight biodiversity hotspots.
• Beyond general habitat loss, invasive alien species (IAS) are considered the most significant threat to endemic species.
• Invasive species outcompete native flora and fauna, disrupt ecosystems, and cause irreversible biodiversity loss.
• Answer: Introduction of invasive alien species

Q90. The Desert National Park of Rajasthan is located in which districts of the state?

  1. (a) Jaisalmer and Barmer
  2. (b) Udaipur and Rajsamand
  3. (c) Dholpur and Bharatpur
  4. (d) Phalodi and Jodhpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jaisalmer and Barmer

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 3 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q91. The Kyoto Protocol is related to (the) _____.

  1. (a) desertification control
  2. (b) protection of ozone layer
  3. (c) preservation of wildlife
  4. (d) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions

Q92. Which of the following is not a function of biosphere reserves?

  1. (a) Sustainable development of local communities
  2. (b) Cultural heritage preservation
  3. (c) Promotion of monoculture farming
  4. (d) Conservation of biodiversity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Promotion of monoculture farming

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 3 · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q93. In which of the following national parks were eight African cheetahs translocated from Namibia in September 2022?

  1. (a) Mukundara Tiger Reserve
  2. (b) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
  3. (c) Kuno National Park
  4. (d) Banni grasslands
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kuno National Park

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 1 · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q94. Jharkhand has announced its first tiger safari in the Barwadih Western Forest Range; it is a part of which tiger reserve?

  1. (a) Palamau Tiger Reserve
  2. (b) Pench Tiger Reserve
  3. (c) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
  4. (d) Sanjay Gandhi Tiger Reserve
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Palamau Tiger Reserve

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 2 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q95. The Paris Agreement, adopted in 2015, aims to:

  1. (a) halt desertification
  2. (b) limit global temperature rise
  3. (c) eliminate air pollution
  4. (d) promote water conservation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) limit global temperature rise

Q96. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves is located in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. (a) Manas Biosphere Reserve
  2. (b) Nanda Biosphere Reserve
  3. (c) Panna Biosphere Reserve
  4. (d) Similipal Biosphere Reserve
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Panna Biosphere Reserve

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 1 · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q97. Which of the following government initiatives was launched in 1973 to conserve a key apex predator and its ecosystem in India?

  1. (a) Project Rhino
  2. (b) Project Elephant
  3. (c) Project Asiatic Lion
  4. (d) Project Tiger
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Project Tiger

Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the GIB (Great Indian Bustard):
1. It is listed as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
2. It is found in the grasslands of Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.
3. The species is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): The Great Indian Bustard ( Ardeotis nigriceps) is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Its population has declined to fewer than 200 individuals, primarily due to habitat loss, hunting, and collision with power lines.
Statement 2 (TRUE): GIBs are found in the arid and semi-arid grasslands of Rajasthan (Desert National Park — primary stronghold), Gujarat (Kutch), Maharashtra ( Nannaj ), Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Rajasthan holds over 90% of the surviving population.
Statement 3 (FALSE): The Great Indian Bustard is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 — NOT Schedule II. Schedule I provides the highest level of protection, with absolute prohibition on hunting. Schedule II provides lesser protection. GIB's Schedule I status reflects its critically endangered status.
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q99. Read the following statements regarding the Chipko Movement:
Statement 1: The Chipko Movement originated in the 18th century by the Bishnoi community in Rajasthan.
Statement 2: The 2023 celebrations marked 50 years since its modern revival in Chamoli, Uttarakhand.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither statement 1 and 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): The historical roots of the Chipko (tree-hugging) movement trace back to 1730 AD when Amrita Devi Bishnoi and 363 Bishnoi community members sacrificed their lives to protect Khejri trees in Khejarli village, Rajasthan, against the orders of the Maharaja of Jodhpur. This 18th-century event is considered the precursor and spiritual inspiration for the modern Chipko movement.
Statement 2 (TRUE): The modern Chipko Movement was revived in March 1973 in Mandal village, Chamoli district, Uttarakhand (then Uttar Pradesh), when villagers — inspired by Sundarlal Bahuguna, Chandi Prasad Bhatt, and Gaura Devi — embraced trees to prevent them from being felled by a sports goods company. The 50th anniversary (1973–2023) was indeed celebrated in 2023.
Both statements are historically accurate.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 1 · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q100. When was the historic Paris Agreement on climate change adopted by world leaders during the UN Climate Change Conference (COP21)?

  1. (a) 1999
  2. (b) 2012
  3. (c) 2015
  4. (d) 2005
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2015

12

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