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RRB Group D 2025-26 11 August 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 11 August 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Biology, Static GK, Chemistry, Physics.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 11 August 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (16) · Economics (2) · Biology (8) · Static GK (1) · Chemistry (7) · Physics (9) · Geography (1)

Current Affairs (16)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q1. Which organization conducted nationwide trial of India’s Cell Broadcast Alert System in May 2026?

  1. (a) Indian Space Research Organisation
  2. (b) Defence Research and Development Organisation
  3. (c) National Disaster Management Authority
  4. (d) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Disaster Management Authority

Answer: Option 3 – National Disaster Management Authority.
• TheNDMAconducted the nationwide trial of India's Cell Broadcast Alert System (May 2026).
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q2. At the 2026 Barebow Asia Championship, which country's men's barebow team set a new archery world record with a score of 1864 points?

  1. (a) Japan
  2. (b) South Korea
  3. (c) Malaysia
  4. (d) United States
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Malaysia

Answer: Option 3 – Malaysia.
• At the 2026 Barebow Asia Championship,Malaysia'smen's barebow team set a world record with 1864 points.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q3. What is India's rank in the 'Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2025' released in February 2026?

  1. (a) 101
  2. (b) 91
  3. (c) 80
  4. (d) 75
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 91

Answer: Option 2 – 91.
• India ranked91stin the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2025 (released Feb 2026).
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q4. In January 2026, which of the following organisations published The Global Risks Report 2026?

  1. (a) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
  2. (b) World Health Organization
  3. (c) World Economic Forum
  4. (d) International Monetary Fund
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) World Economic Forum

Answer: Option 3 – World Economic Forum.
• TheWorld Economic Forum (WEF)publishes The Global Risks Report (2026 edition, Jan 2026).
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q5. Which ministry in collaboration with the All India Ayurvedic Congress organized the four-day National Arogya Fair 2026 at Shegaon in Buldhana district, Maharashtra?

  1. (a) Ministry of Rural Development
  2. (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
  3. (c) Ministry of Education
  4. (d) Ministry of AYUSH
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ministry of AYUSH

Answer: Option 4 – Ministry of AYUSH.
• TheMinistry of AYUSH(with the All India Ayurvedic Congress) organised the National Arogya Fair 2026 at Shegaon, Maharashtra.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q6. Which platform showcased next‑generation electronics and semiconductor innovation led by DRDO in 2025?

  1. (a) Emerging Science Technology Innovation Conclave 2025
  2. (b) National Electronics and Semiconductor Meet 2025
  3. (c) Defence Technology Exhibition 2025
  4. (d) Global Science and Innovation Summit 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Emerging Science Technology Innovation Conclave 2025

Answer: Option 1 – Emerging Science Technology Innovation Conclave 2025.
• DRDO showcased next-gen electronics and semiconductor innovation at theESTIC 2025.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q7. India successfully conducted the flight trial of an Advanced Agni missile equipped with a Multiple Independently Targeted Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) system on 8 May 2026 from which of the following locations?

  1. (a) Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha
  2. (b) Balasore Missile Testing Facility, West Bengal
  3. (c) Sriharikota Space Centre, Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Pokhran Test Range, Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha

Answer: Option 1 – Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha.
• The MIRV-equipped Advanced Agni missile flight trial (8 May 2026) was conducted fromDr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha.
Environment and Climate - Current · New protected areas and Ramsar sites

Q8. Which of the following sanctuaries has been designated as a protected Ramsar site in 2026?

  1. (a) Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary
  2. (b) Barela Bird Sanctuary
  3. (c) Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. (d) Patna Bird Sanctuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Patna Bird Sanctuary

Answer: Option 4 – Patna Bird Sanctuary.
•Patna Bird Sanctuarywas designated a Ramsar site in 2026.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q9. Who created history by becoming the fastest ever Indian sprinter in the men's 100-m final at the Federation Cup in Ranchi, Jharkhand, in May 2026?

  1. (a) Amlan Borgohain
  2. (b) Manikanta Hoblidhar
  3. (c) Gurindervir Singh
  4. (d) Animesh Kujur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gurindervir Singh

Answer: Option 3 – Gurindervir Singh.
•Gurindervir Singhbecame the fastest Indian sprinter in the men's 100 m at the Federation Cup, Ranchi (May 2026).
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q10. The Bio-AI initiative launched by the Government of India in 2026 mainly aims to accelerate progress in which of the following areas?

  1. (a) Replacement of pharmaceutical research with fully autonomous industrial production systems
  2. (b) Expansion of conventional mineral exploration activities through automated geological surveys
  3. (c) Development of advanced biological products and manufacturing processes using data-driven research tools
  4. (d) Promotion of fossil-fuel-based industrial technologies through algorithmic resource optimisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Development of advanced biological products and manufacturing processes using data-driven research tools

Answer: Option 3 – Development of advanced biological products and manufacturing processes using data-driven research tools.
• TheBio-AI initiative (2026)aims to accelerate biotech products and manufacturing using AI/data-driven tools.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q11. In February 2026, which of the following players had played the most number of international matches in women's cricket?

  1. (a) Mithali Raj
  2. (b) Smriti Mandhana
  3. (c) Harmanpreet Kaur
  4. (d) Jhulan Goswami
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Harmanpreet Kaur

Answer: Option 3 – Harmanpreet Kaur.
• As of Feb 2026,Harmanpreet Kaurhad played the most international matches among the listed players in women's cricket.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q12. How many gold medals did the Indian U-15 girls team win at the Asian Boxing U-15 Championship, 2026?

  1. (a) 12
  2. (b) 4
  3. (c) 7
  4. (d) 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 7

Answer: Option 3 – 7.
• The Indian U-15 girls team won7gold medals at the Asian Boxing U-15 Championship 2026.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q13. During which edition of the Foundation Day celebrations of Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) did government of India launch the Logistics Port Performance Index (LPPI) in May 2026?

  1. (a) 57th
  2. (b) 37th
  3. (c) 47th
  4. (d) 67th
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 37th

Answer: Option 2 – 37th.
• The Logistics Port Performance Index (LPPI) was launched during JNPA's37thFoundation Day (May 2026).
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q14. As per announcement made in April 2026 by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority, where will the training center be established to promote basmati cultivation and organic farming?

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: Option 4 – Uttar Pradesh.
• APEDA announced (April 2026) a training centre inUttar Pradeshto promote basmati cultivation and organic farming.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q15. Which of the following political personalities became Chief Minister for the first time in 2026, marking a significant political development associated with the rise of a newly formed regional party?

  1. (a) Suvendu Adhikari
  2. (b) Samrat Choudhary
  3. (c) Joseph Vijay
  4. (d) Rekha Gupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Joseph Vijay

Answer: Option 3 – Joseph Vijay.
•Joseph Vijay(actor 'Vijay', of Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam) became Chief Minister for the first time in 2026.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q16. Under which specific operational vision did the Ministry of Minority Affairs organize the National Conclave on Minorities Welfare on 14th May, 2026?

  1. (a) Vikasit Aur Surakshit Bharat
  2. (b) Samaveshi Aur Saksham Samaj
  3. (c) Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas
  4. (d) Bhagidaari Se Bhaagyoday
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bhagidaari Se Bhaagyoday

Answer: Option 4 – Bhagidaari Se Bhaagyoday.
• The Ministry of Minority Affairs organised the National Conclave on Minorities Welfare (14 May 2026) under the vision'Bhagidaari Se Bhaagyoday'.

Economics (2)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q17. Under the Union Budget 2026–27, the Government of India proposed the launch of which scheme aimed at developing India into a global biopharma manufacturing hub?

  1. (a) Biopharma SHAKTI
  2. (b) Pharma Vision 2047
  3. (c) BioNex India Mission
  4. (d) National Bioscience Acceleration Programme
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biopharma SHAKTI

Answer: Option 1 – Biopharma SHAKTI.
• Union Budget 2026–27 proposedBiopharma SHAKTIto develop India as a global biopharma manufacturing hub.
Money and Banking · Digital payments (UPI, NEFT, RTGS, IMPS)

Q18. According to the Reserve Bank of India’s Payments System Report released in 2026, which payment system accounted for the highest share of transaction volume in India?

  1. (a) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
  2. (b) Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)
  3. (c) Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
  4. (d) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

Answer: Option 4 – Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
• Per the RBI Payments System Report (2026),UPIhad the highest share of transaction volume.

Biology (8)

Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q19. Which principle was emphasized in India's E-Waste Management framework during 2025-26?

  1. (a) Elimination of digital communication devices from government educational institutions and offices
  2. (b) Mandatory export of all discarded electronic products to overseas hazardous waste processing facilities
  3. (c) Complete prohibition of domestic electronics manufacturing within urban industrial clusters nationwide
  4. (d) Extended producer responsibility for the environmentally sound collection and recycling of electronic junk
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Extended producer responsibility for the environmentally sound collection and recycling of electronic junk

Answer: Option 4 – Extended producer responsibility for sound collection and recycling of electronic junk.
• India's E-Waste Management framework (2025-26) emphasisedExtended Producer Responsibility (EPR).
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Human respiratory system

Q20. What are the tiny balloon-like structures located at the end of the smallest tubes in the human lungs called?

  1. (a) Villi
  2. (b) Bronchi
  3. (c) Bronchioles
  4. (d) Alveoli
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Alveoli

Answer: Option 4 – Alveoli.
• The tiny balloon-like sacs at the ends of bronchioles arealveoli, where gaseous exchange occurs.
Ecology and Environment · Energy flow and ecological pyramids

Q21. Which of the following statements is correct about energy flow in an ecosystem?

  1. (a) Energy remains constant within the ecosystem
  2. (b) Energy flows in one direction in the ecosystem
  3. (c) Energy is recycled by decomposers within the ecosystem
  4. (d) Most energy is used for building biomass within the ecosystem
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Energy flows in one direction in the ecosystem

Answer: Option 2 – Energy flows in one direction in the ecosystem.
• Energy flow isunidirectional(Sun → producers → consumers → decomposers); it is not recycled, unlike nutrients.
Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q22. What causes plant cells to change shape during movement?

  1. (a) Special proteins
  2. (b) Light energy
  3. (c) Temperature
  4. (d) Water content
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Water content

Answer: Option 4 – Water content.
• Changes inwater content (turgor pressure)in plant cells cause them to swell or shrink, producing movement.
Ecology and Environment · Food chains and food webs

Q23. In a grassland food web, grass is eaten by rabbits and insects. Frogs eat insects, while foxes eat rabbits. If insect population declines sharply, which effect is most likely?

  1. (a) Frog population will suddenly decrease
  2. (b) Fox population will increase rapidly
  3. (c) Grass population will perish
  4. (d) Rabbit population will diminish
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Frog population will suddenly decrease

Answer: Option 1 – Frog population will suddenly decrease.
• Frogs eat insects; a sharp fall in insects removes the frogs' food, so thefrog population falls.
Reproduction · Human male reproductive system

Q24. In humans, which reproductive cell possesses a tail that helps it swim toward the egg?

  1. (a) Embryo
  2. (b) Sperm
  3. (c) Egg
  4. (d) Zygote
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sperm

Answer: Option 2 – Sperm.
• Thespermhas a tail (flagellum) that lets it swim toward the egg.
Reproduction · Fertilisation, embryo development and pregnancy

Q25. A woman undergoes IVF, and the fertilised egg is implanted in her uterus. Which of these marks the clinical beginning of her pregnancy in this scenario?

  1. (a) Implantation of the fertilised egg
  2. (b) Manual fertilisation in the lab
  3. (c) Initial division of the zygote
  4. (d) Natural ovulation of the egg
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Implantation of the fertilised egg

Answer: Option 1 – Implantation of the fertilised egg.
• Clinically, pregnancy begins when the fertilised eggimplantsin the uterine wall.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Five-kingdom classification (Whittaker) and other systems

Q26. While reviewing classification systems, a biologist notes confusion in placing amoeba in the two-kingdom system. Which key feature caused this confusion?

  1. (a) Amoeba is photosynthetic and multicellular
  2. (b) Amoeba has a true nucleus and is autotrophic
  3. (c) Amoeba lacks a cell wall and is stationary
  4. (d) Amoeba is unicellular, moves and is heterotrophic
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Amoeba is unicellular, moves and is heterotrophic

Answer: Option 4 – Amoeba is unicellular, moves and is heterotrophic.
• Amoeba's mix of animal-like traits (motile, heterotrophic) in a single cell caused confusion in the two-kingdom system.

Static GK (1)

Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q27. Who is the author of the book ‘On Earth as It Is Beneath’?

  1. (a) Olga Tokarczuk
  2. (b) Valeria Luiselli
  3. (c) Ana Paula Maia
  4. (d) Fernanda Trías
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ana Paula Maia

Answer: Option 3 – Ana Paula Maia.
• 'On Earth as It Is Beneath' was written byAna Paula Maia.

Chemistry (7)

Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q28. Which metal forms a protective oxide layer on its surface when heated in air, preventing further oxidation?

  1. (a) Copper
  2. (b) Aluminium
  3. (c) Iron
  4. (d) Sodium
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aluminium

Answer: Option 2 – Aluminium.
• Aluminium forms a thin, toughAl₂O₃ (aluminium oxide) layerthat sticks to the surface and prevents further oxidation.
Matter and its States · Physical and chemical changes

Q29. In a solution, which observation suggests a chemical change has taken place?

  1. (a) Dissolving of solid
  2. (b) Formation of a precipitate
  3. (c) Uniform mixing of substances
  4. (d) Increase in temperature only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Formation of a precipitate

Answer: Option 2 – Formation of a precipitate.
• A new insoluble solid (precipitate) indicates a new substance has formed – i.e. a chemical change.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q30. Different acids show similar chemical properties because they all produce which of the following ions in aqueous solution?

  1. (a) Chlorine ions
  2. (b) Sodium ions
  3. (c) Hydrogen ions
  4. (d) Hydroxide ions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hydrogen ions

Answer: Option 3 – Hydrogen ions.
• All acids releaseH⁺ (H₃O⁺) ionsin aqueous solution, giving them common acidic properties.
Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q31. Which of the following observations correctly represents corrosion of a metal?

  1. (a) Iron develops reddish-brown surface layer
  2. (b) Aluminium breaks under mechanical load
  3. (c) Silver dissolves completely in water
  4. (d) Copper wire melts when strongly heated
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Iron develops reddish-brown surface layer

Answer: Option 1 – Iron develops a reddish-brown surface layer.
• Corrosion of iron =rusting, seen as a reddish-brown (hydrated iron oxide) layer.
Structure of Atom · Thomson's model

Q32. Thomson’s model could not explain:

  1. (a) Atom’s mass
  2. (b) Electron presence
  3. (c) Rutherford’s experiment results
  4. (d) Atom’s neutrality
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rutherford’s experiment results

Answer: Option 3 – Rutherford's experiment results.
• Thomson's model could not explain the large-angle scattering seen inRutherford's α-particle experiment.
Carbon and its Compounds · Isomerism

Q33. A teacher asks students to draw the structure of butane and isobutane. What is the main difference between these two molecules?

  1. (a) Isobutane has fewer carbon atoms than butane
  2. (b) Butane is a straight-chain, while isobutane is a branched-chain isomer
  3. (c) Butane contains an aromatic ring, isobutane does not
  4. (d) Both are cyclic hydrocarbons
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Butane is a straight-chain, while isobutane is a branched-chain isomer

Answer: Option 2 – Butane is a straight-chain, while isobutane is a branched-chain isomer.
• Both are C₄H₁₀; butane is thestraight chainand isobutane thebranchedstructural isomer.
Structure of Atom · Valence electrons and valency

Q34. Atoms of the elements would react so as to achieve an _______________ of the configuration in the outermost shell.

  1. (a) octet
  2. (b) duplet
  3. (c) triplet
  4. (d) heptet
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) octet

Answer: Option 1 – octet.
• Atoms react to attain a stableoctet(8 electrons) in the outermost shell.

Physics (9)

Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's first law and inertia

Q35. According to the first law of motion, what will happen to a ball rolling on a smooth, horizontal surface if no external force acts on it?

  1. (a) The ball will speed up on its own.
  2. (b) The ball will continue to roll at a constant speed in the same direction.
  3. (c) The ball will gradually slow down and stop by itself.
  4. (d) The ball will change its direction automatically.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The ball will continue to roll at a constant speed in the same direction.

Answer: Option 2 – The ball will continue to roll at a constant speed in the same direction.
• By thefirst law (inertia), with no external force the ball keeps moving at constant velocity.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Power of a lens and dioptre

Q36. A convex lens forms a real, inverted image three times larger than the object. If the object is placed 30 cm from the lens, what is the closest approximate value of the power of the lens?

  1. (a) +1 D
  2. (b) +3.2 D
  3. (c) +2 D
  4. (d) +4.44 D
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) +4.44 D

Answer: Option 4 – +4.44 D.
• Real inverted image, m = −3, u = −30 cm ⇒ v = 90 cm. Using 1/f = 1/v − 1/u = 1/90 + 1/30 = 4/90 ⇒ f = 22.5 cm.
• Power P = 100/f(cm) = 100/22.5 ≈+4.44 D.
Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q37. If a musical instrument produces a sound with a frequency of 200 Hz, which of the following frequencies will produce a sound of higher pitch than this instrument?

  1. (a) 120 Hz
  2. (b) 180 Hz
  3. (c) 150 Hz
  4. (d) 350 Hz
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 350 Hz

Answer: Option 4 – 350 Hz.
• Higher frequency = higher pitch. Only350 Hzexceeds 200 Hz.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Prism and dispersion of light

Q38. What is the angle between the incident and emergent rays called in the context of a prism?

  1. (a) The angle of refraction
  2. (b) The angle of deviation
  3. (c) The angle of emergence
  4. (d) The angle of incidence
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The angle of deviation

Answer: Option 2 – The angle of deviation.
• The angle between the incident and emergent rays of a prism is theangle of deviation.
Motion · Acceleration and retardation

Q39. Which physical quantity is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time?

  1. (a) Distance travelled
  2. (b) Speed
  3. (c) Displacement
  4. (d) Acceleration
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Acceleration

Answer: Option 4 – Acceleration.
•Acceleration= rate of change of velocity with time.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electromagnetic induction and Faraday's laws

Q40. Which setup is most likely to produce a larger induced current in a coil?

  1. (a) Using fewer turns of wire in the coil
  2. (b) Using more turns of wire in the coil
  3. (c) Using a smaller magnet
  4. (d) Moving the magnet more slowly
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Using more turns of wire in the coil

Answer: Option 2 – Using more turns of wire in the coil.
• Induced EMF/current increases with thenumber of turns(and with faster motion and a stronger magnet).
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q41. A wire of resistance 10 ohms is connected to a 12 V battery. If another identical wire is connected in parallel to the first, what is the total power consumed by both wires together?

  1. (a) 14.4 W
  2. (b) 1.44 W
  3. (c) 28.8 W
  4. (d) 120 W
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 28.8 W

Answer: Option 3 – 28.8 W.
• Two 10 Ω wires in parallel ⇒ R = 5 Ω. Power P = V²/R = 12²/5 = 144/5 =28.8 W.
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q42. Which quantity indicates the factor by which a simple machine multiplies the applied force?

  1. (a) Efficiency
  2. (b) Velocity ratio
  3. (c) Mechanical advantage
  4. (d) Input work
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mechanical advantage

Answer: Option 3 – Mechanical advantage.
•Mechanical advantage= load/effort, the factor by which a machine multiplies the applied force.
Work, Energy and Power · Kinetic energy

Q43. A vehicle of mass M travels at velocity V. If its kinetic energy increases by a factor of 9, how much does its velocity change?

  1. (a) The velocity is tripled
  2. (b) The velocity is doubled
  3. (c) The velocity is increased nine times
  4. (d) The velocity is quadrupled
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The velocity is tripled

Answer: Option 1 – The velocity is tripled.
• KE ∝ v². If KE becomes 9×, then v² becomes 9× ⇒ v becomes 3× (tripled).

Geography (1)

Atmosphere and Climate · Planetary, seasonal and local winds

Q44. A physician in a hilly village notices that bedrooms near the mountain base feel cooler at night. Which atmospheric process best explains this observation?

  1. (a) Cool air moving as land breeze
  2. (b) Cold air descending as mountain breeze
  3. (c) Warm air rising as valley breeze
  4. (d) Moist air flowing as sea breeze
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cold air descending as mountain breeze

Answer: Option 2 – Cold air descending as mountain breeze.
• At night, cool dense air flows down the slopes (mountain breeze), making the valley base cooler.
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