RRB Group D 2025-26 20 August 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions Asked – Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

Subjects: Current Affairs (18) · Static GK (2) · Biology (6) · Physics (9) · Chemistry (8)

Current Affairs (18)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q1. On 25th January 2026, the National Voters’ Day was celebrated with which of the following themes?

(a) My India, My Vote
(b) My Country, My Right
(c) My Nation, My Voice
(d) My Democracy, My Duty

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) My India, My Vote

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – My India, My Vote
Explanation:
The Election Commission of India celebrated the 16th National Voters' Day on 25 January 2026 with the theme"My India, My Vote", confirmed by official Akashvani/PIB coverage.
Important Facts:
• National Voters' Day is observed every year on 25 January, the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (1950).
• The 2026 edition marked the 16th National Voters' Day.
• The theme emphasizes citizen ownership of the electoral process.

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q2. Which Indian armed force took part in the multinational exercise INIOCHOS-25 in Greece in 2025?

(a) Indian Coast Guard
(b) Indian Navy
(c) Indian Air Force
(d) National Security Guard

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Air Force

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Indian Air Force
Explanation:
TheIndian Air Force (IAF)participated in the multinational air exercise INIOCHOS-25, hosted by the Hellenic Air Force in Greece in April 2025, as confirmed by PIB and IAF press releases.
Important Facts:
• INIOCHOS is a multinational air combat exercise conducted annually by Greece.
• IAF wrapped up its participation in INIOCHOS-25 in April 2025.
• The exercise involved multiple NATO and partner air forces.

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q3. What was the theme of world earth day 2026 observed on April 22?

(a) Invest In Our Planet
(b) Planet vs. Plastics
(c) Our Power, Our Planet
(d) Restore our Earth

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Our Power, Our Planet

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Our Power, Our Planet
Explanation:
EARTHDAY.ORG announced the global theme for Earth Day, 22 April 2026, as"Our Power, Our Planet", focused on renewable energy.
Important Facts:
• World Earth Day is observed every year on 22 April.
• 2026 theme: 'Our Power, Our Planet' (renewable energy focus).
• 2024 theme was 'Planet vs. Plastics'; 2022 theme was 'Invest In Our Planet'.

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q4. Which Ministry had released the thematic SDG Bulletin reports titled “Planet in Focus: Advancing Environmental Sustainability under the SDGs” and “Delivering Prosperity at Scale: India’s Economic Transformation through the SDGs” in March 2026?

(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Explanation:
MoSPI released the two thematic SDG Bulletins —"Planet in Focus"and"Delivering Prosperity at Scale"— on 18 March 2026, confirmed by official MoSPI (GoIStats) posts and PIB.
Important Facts:
• Released during a Capacity Building Workshop on SDG Monitoring.
• MoSPI is the nodal ministry for India's SDG monitoring framework.
• The bulletins track India's environmental and economic progress under the SDGs.

Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q5. Which team did Jammu and Kashmir overcome to claim their first-ever Ranji Trophy title in the 2025–26 season?

(a) Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Punjab
(d) Mumbai

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Karnataka

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Karnataka
Explanation:
Jammu and Kashmir defeatedKarnatakain the Ranji Trophy 2025-26 final (played at Hubballi) to win their first-ever Ranji Trophy title, confirmed by Outlook India, Drishti IAS, and Wikipedia.
Important Facts:
• This was J&K's maiden Ranji Trophy title in the tournament's history.
• The final was played in Hubballi, Karnataka.
• J&K's team was captained by Paras Dogra.

Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q6. Which country was defeated by India in the final of the ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup 2026?

(a) Pakistan
(b) Australia
(c) England
(d) South Africa

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) England

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – England
Explanation:
India defeatedEnglandin the final to win the ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup 2026, confirmed by the official ICC Cricket website ("Dominant India beat England to lift the U19 World Cup").
Important Facts:
• The 2026 U-19 World Cup was hosted in Zimbabwe and Namibia.
• The final was played on 6 February 2026.
• India won the title in a dominant fashion, setting several tournament records.

Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q7. Which of the following launched Unified Markets Interface for Tokenized Finance in October 2025?

(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(c) Infrastructure Development Finance Company (IDFC) Ltd.
(d) Tourism Finance Corporation of India (TFCI) Ltd.

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reserve Bank of India

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
TheReserve Bank of India (RBI)launched the Unified Markets Interface (UMI) for tokenized finance/asset tokenisation in October 2025, confirmed by GKToday, Vajiram & Ravi, and Adda247 coverage.
Important Facts:
• UMI aims to enable tokenisation of financial market assets using CBDC-based settlement.
• It is part of RBI's broader digital currency and fintech innovation push.
• Announced in October 2025.

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q8. At which summit did India and the United States sign the Pax Silica Declaration in February 2026?

(a) Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence Summit 2026
(b) World Government Summit 2026
(c) Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit 2026
(d) India AI Impact Summit 2026

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) India AI Impact Summit 2026

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – India AI Impact Summit 2026
Explanation:
India and the United States signed thePax Silica Declarationat theIndia AI Impact Summit 2026in February 2026 (held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi), confirmed by PIB and multiple news reports dated 20 February 2026.
Important Facts:
• The declaration also included a Joint Statement on the India-U.S. AI Opportunity Partnership.
• The summit adopted the 'New Delhi Declaration' on AI.
• The summit's three pillars were People, Planet, and Progress.

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q9. Which of the following cites hosted the first chapter of the Khelo India Winter Games, 2026, for ice sports (Ice Hockey & Ice Skating)?

(a) Leh
(b) Manali
(c) Shimla
(d) Gulmarg

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Leh

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Leh
Explanation:
The first leg/chapter of the Khelo India Winter Games 2026, covering ice sports (ice hockey and ice skating), was held inLeh, Ladakh, confirmed by official Ladakh government sources and Akashvani (newsonair) reports.
Important Facts:
• KIWG 2026 was held across multiple legs/venues in Ladakh and Jammu & Kashmir.
• Gulmarg hosted snow-based events like skiing in a separate leg.
• Haryana topped the medal tally in figure skating events.

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q10. In 2026, Indian conservation scientist Parveen Shaikh received the prestigious Whitley Award for her work in protecting which endangered bird species in the Ganga basin?

(a) Indian Skimmer
(b) Bengal Florican
(c) Sarus Crane
(d) Great Indian Bustard

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Skimmer

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Indian Skimmer
Explanation:
Parveen Shaikh won the 2026 Whitley Award for expanding community-led riverine protection of theIndian Skimmeron the Ganga (extending work to Prayagraj), confirmed by the official Whitley Award website and Mongabay India.
Important Facts:
• The Whitley Award is often called the 'Green Oscars' for grassroots conservation.
• Two Indian women conservationists were among six 2026 winners.
• Her conservation model uses community-led riverine protection.

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q11. Which vessel was commissioned into the Indian Navy in February 2026 at Chennai Port as the fourth ship of the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) project?

(a) INS Anjadip
(b) INS Kamorta
(c) INS Arihant
(d) INS Vikrant

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) INS Anjadip

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – INS Anjadip
Explanation:
INS Anjadipwas commissioned into the Indian Navy at Chennai Port on 27 February 2026, described in official/government-aggregated coverage (newsonair, ssbcrackexams) as the fourth Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC).
Important Facts:
• INS Anjadip is part of the Arnala-class ASW-SWC series built by GRSE.
• It is nicknamed the 'Dolphin Hunter' for its anti-submarine capability.
• It boosts India's indigenous shallow-water anti-submarine warfare capacity.

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q12. In December 2025, Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), Bengaluru and CRISPRBITS Pvt. Ltd. established which Centre for Collaborative Innovation and Translation?

(a) Centre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation
(b) Centre for Genetic Research and Development
(c) Centre for Biomedical Science and Technology
(d) Centre for Biotechnology Studies

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Centre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Centre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation
Explanation:
JNCASR Bengaluru and CRISPRBITS Pvt. Ltd. signed an LoI to establish theCentre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation (CoE-CIT)around December 2025, confirmed by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) and BioSpectrum India.
Important Facts:
• CoE-CIT is described as India's first-of-its-kind CRISPR clinical translation centre.
• CRISPRBITS focuses on CRISPR-based diagnostics for drug-resistant infections.
• JNCASR is an autonomous research institute under the Department of Science & Technology.

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q13. In May 2026, DRDO successfully conducted a long-duration test of which indigenously developed propulsion component, marking a major breakthrough in hypersonic missile technology?

(a) Solid Rocket Booster Motor
(b) Ramjet Propulsion Module
(c) Actively Cooled Full Scale Scramjet Combustor
(d) Cryogenic Rocket Engine

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Actively Cooled Full Scale Scramjet Combustor

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Actively Cooled Full Scale Scramjet Combustor
Explanation:
In May 2026, DRDO conducted a long-duration (1,200-second) ground test of theActively Cooled Full Scale Scramjet Combustor, a major breakthrough for hypersonic missile propulsion, confirmed by PIB and multiple defence news outlets.
Important Facts:
• The test lasted over 1,200 seconds, validating sustained hypersonic propulsion.
• This is a key milestone in India's indigenous hypersonic missile programme.
• DRDO conducts these tests toward scramjet-powered hypersonic cruise vehicles.

Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q14. Which African city hosted the final match of the 2026 ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup on 6 February 2026?

(a) Cairo
(b) Harare
(c) Lagos
(d) Nairobi

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harare

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Harare
Explanation:
The final of the 2026 ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup was played at the Harare Sports Club inHarare, Zimbabwe, on 6 February 2026, confirmed by ESPNcricinfo and the official ICC website.
Important Facts:
• The 2026 tournament was co-hosted by Zimbabwe and Namibia.
• India won the final, defeating England.
• Harare Sports Club was specifically designated as the final's venue in the schedule.

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q15. At the 2026 India-AI Impact Summit, which three pillars were emphasized to promote AI for sustainable development in climate action?

(a) Technology, Economy, and Equity
(b) Governance, Growth, and Green
(c) People, Planet, and Progress
(d) Innovation, Impact, and Integrity

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) People, Planet, and Progress

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – People, Planet, and Progress
Explanation:
The India AI Impact Summit 2026 was organised around the three pillars ofPeople, Planet, and Progressto promote sustainable and inclusive AI, confirmed by PIB, OECD.AI, and Carnegie Endowment coverage.
Important Facts:
• The summit was held in February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
• It adopted the 'New Delhi Declaration' on AI.
• India and the US also signed the Pax Silica Declaration at this summit.

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q16. In a landmark judgment delivered on May 21, 2026, the Supreme Court ruled on the regularisation of contract workers, specifically concerning a 2012 Office Memorandum (OM) by the Government of Assam. Which of the following Articles did the Court rule, was getting violated?

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 15

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 14

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Article 14
Explanation:
In *Sukhendu Bhattacharjee & Ors. v. State of Assam* (2026 INSC 523), decided around 21 May 2026, the Supreme Court held that the State could not selectively deny regularisation to similarly placed muster-roll employees under a 2012 Office Memorandum after already regularising ~30,000 workers, ruling this arbitrary and violative of theright to equality (Article 14), per LiveLaw and Verdictum reports.
Important Facts:
• The Court held that the 'Uma Devi' precedent could not be used to defeat equality rights.
• The case concerned regularisation of long-serving contractual/muster-roll employees in Assam.
• The ruling reinforced that arbitrary/selective denial of equal treatment breaches Article 14.

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q17. At the 79th British Academy Film Awards (BAFTA) 2026, held at the Royal Festival Hall in London, which actor won the Best Leading Actor award for his performance in 'I Swear'?

(a) Wagner Moura
(b) Ethan Hawke
(c) Robert Aramayo
(d) Sean Penn

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Robert Aramayo

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Robert Aramayo
Explanation:
Robert Aramayowon Best Leading Actor at the 79th BAFTA Film Awards (2026) for his performance in 'I Swear', beating favourites like Leonardo DiCaprio and Timothée Chalamet, confirmed by Variety and Wikipedia.
Important Facts:
• The 79th BAFTAs were held at the Royal Festival Hall, London.
• Aramayo's win was widely reported as an upset over more high-profile nominees.
• 'I Swear' also brought him a CAA representation deal shortly after.

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q18. In State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu, what did the Supreme Court rule regarding the Governor's powers over state legislation?

(a) Governor can amend bills before assent and can send the bill back to the assembly
(b) Governor has absolute veto power
(c) Governor can exercise pocket veto indefinitely
(d) The Governor must act on state bills and cannot refuse or delay them indefinitely

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Governor must act on state bills and cannot refuse or delay them indefinitely

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The Governor must act on state bills and cannot refuse or delay them indefinitely
Explanation:
In *State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu*, the Supreme Court held that the Governor cannot sit indefinitely on state bills, must act (assent, withhold, or reserve) within a reasonable/binding timeframe, and used its Article 142 powers to deem certain long-pending bills as assented — confirmed by Supreme Court Observer and multiple legal commentary sources.
Important Facts:
• The Court set binding timelines for gubernatorial action on state bills, reinforcing cooperative federalism.
• It rejected the notion of an unlimited 'pocket veto' for Governors.
• The Court exercised extraordinary powers under Article 142 to grant deemed assent to pending bills.

Static GK (2)

Indian Railways · Railway organisations and PSUs (IRCTC, RVNL, RailTel, CRIS, RDSO)

Q19. Between January and April 2026, the Railway Protection Force (RPF) rescued and protected vulnerable children under which nationwide initiative?

(a) Mission Vatsalya
(b) Operation Muskaan
(c) Operation Nanhe Farishte
(d) Operation Smile

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Operation Nanhe Farishte

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Operation Nanhe Farishte
Explanation:
Between January and April 2026, the RPF continued rescuing vulnerable/trafficked children under"Operation Nanhe Farishte", confirmed by multiple zonal railway press reports (Central Railway, South Central Railway) during this period.
Important Facts:
• Operation Nanhe Farishte is RPF's nationwide child rescue and rehabilitation initiative.
• It works alongside Childline and GRP to reunite rescued children with families.
• RPF has rescued tens of thousands of children under this initiative since its inception.

Indian Railways · Railway Board and administration

Q20. In January 2026, which RPF officer was conferred the Ati Vishisht Rail Seva Puraskar, the highest service honour of Indian Railways, for her outstanding work in rescuing children from child labour and trafficking?

(a) Chandana Sinha
(b) Madhuri Kumari
(c) Neelam Verma
(d) Anita Sharma

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chandana Sinha

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Chandana Sinha
Explanation:
RPF InspectorChandana Sinhawas conferred the Ati Vishisht Rail Seva Puraskar (70th edition, 2025) in January 2026 for rescuing over 1,000 children from trafficking and child labour, confirmed by The Better India and Indian Masterminds reports.
Important Facts:
• The award is Indian Railways' highest service honour.
• Chandana Sinha reportedly rescued over 1,500 trafficked/missing children.
• Her work was under the Operation Nanhe Farishte initiative.

Biology (6)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Excretory system - kidney and nephron

Q21. Which of these structures carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder?

(a) Urethra
(b) Ureters
(c) Trachea
(d) Intestines

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ureters

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Ureters
Explanation:
Theuretersare muscular tubes that carry urine from each kidney to the urinary bladder. Theurethracarries urine out of the body from the bladder.
Important Facts:
• Kidney → Ureter → Bladder → Urethra is the path of urine.
• Trachea is part of the respiratory system, not the excretory system.
• Intestines are part of the digestive system.

Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Monera, Protista and Fungi

Q22. In a comparative study, some unicellular organisms from a hay infusion display flexible shapes and engulf food particles, while others have a rigid outer covering and are green in color. Which conclusion best explains the observed differences?

(a) Monera have similar cell walls
(b) Protists vary in structure and nutrition
(c) Chlorophyll is absent in all
(d) All protists are prokaryotic

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Protists vary in structure and nutrition

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Protists vary in structure and nutrition
Explanation:
A hay infusion typically contains a variety of unicellular protists. Organisms with flexible shapes that engulf food particles (like Amoeba) showheterotrophicnutrition, while others with a rigid pellicle and green pigmentation (like Euglena/algae) showautotrophic (photosynthetic)nutrition. This diversity within a single kingdom (Protista) shows that protists vary widely in structure and mode of nutrition.
Important Facts:
• Protists are eukaryotic, not prokaryotic (Monera are prokaryotic).
• Not all protists lack chlorophyll — some (e.g., Euglena, algae) are photosynthetic.
• Monera (bacteria) have cell walls of peptidoglycan, distinct from protist cell coverings.

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Aerobic and anaerobic respiration

Q23. Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide is a reactant in aerobic respiration.Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is released during the oxidation of glucose.

(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A is false, but R is true

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – A is false, but R is true
Explanation:
Assertion:Carbon dioxide is a reactant in aerobic respiration — this isfalse. In aerobic respiration, glucose andoxygen
are the reactants, while carbon dioxide and water are the products.Reason:Carbon dioxide is released during the oxidation of glucose — this istrue, as CO₂ is indeed a by-product of glucose oxidation during respiration.
Important Facts:
• Aerobic respiration equation: C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy.
• Oxygen is consumed (reactant); carbon dioxide and water are released (products).

Cell - Structure and Function · Cytoskeleton, cell death and cancer cells

Q24. A eukaryotic cell that performs its functions and undergoes programmed cell death when no longer required is best described as a __________.

(a) Bacterial cell
(b) Malignant cell
(c) Tumour cell
(d) Normal cell

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Normal cell

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Normal cell
Explanation:
Anormal cellperforms its designated functions and undergoesprogrammed cell death (apoptosis)when it is old, damaged, or no longer needed, maintaining tissue homeostasis. In contrast, cancerous/tumour/malignant cells divide uncontrollably and typically evade apoptosis.
Important Facts:
• Apoptosis is a regulated, energy-dependent process of cell self-destruction.
• Failure of apoptosis is a hallmark of cancerous (malignant/tumour) cells.

Cell - Structure and Function · Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes

Q25. Which organelle is physically continuous with the nuclear envelope?

(a) Golgi Body
(b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(c) Lysosome
(d) Mitochondria

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Endoplasmic Reticulum

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Endoplasmic Reticulum
Explanation:
TheEndoplasmic Reticulum (ER)is a network of membranous tubules and sacs that is physically continuous with the outer membrane of thenuclear envelope, allowing direct communication between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
Important Facts:
• Rough ER has ribosomes attached and is involved in protein synthesis.
• Smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification.
• Golgi body, lysosomes, and mitochondria are distinct, separate organelles not directly continuous with the nuclear envelope.

Nutrition and Digestion · Nutrition in animals (amoeba, ruminants)

Q26. How does Paramecium ingest food?

(a) By moving cilia toward a specific spot
(b) By changing its entire body shape
(c) By extending temporary pseudopodia
(d) By direct absorption across the surface

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) By moving cilia toward a specific spot

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – By moving cilia toward a specific spot
Explanation:
Parameciumis covered with hair-like structures calledcilia. The coordinated beating of cilia creates water currents that sweep food particles toward a specific region, theoral groove/cytostome (mouth region), where the food is then ingested.
Important Facts:
• Amoeba, not Paramecium, ingests food using temporary pseudopodia.
• Paramecium moves using cilia, which also assist in feeding.

Physics (9)

Sound and Waves · Range of hearing, infrasonic and ultrasonic sound

Q27. How does the human ear respond to frequencies below 20 Hz?

(a) The human ear amplifies only high frequencies
(b) The human ear converts low frequencies into high frequencies
(c) The human ear cannot hear frequencies below 20 Hz
(d) The human ear can hear all frequencies below 20 Hz

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The human ear cannot hear frequencies below 20 Hz

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The human ear cannot hear frequencies below 20 Hz
Explanation:
The audible range for the human ear is approximately20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. Sound waves with frequency below 20 Hz are calledinfrasonicwaves and cannot be perceived by the human ear.
Important Facts:
• Frequencies above 20,000 Hz are called ultrasonic waves.
• Bats and dolphins can perceive ultrasonic frequencies.
• Elephants and whales can produce/detect infrasonic frequencies.

Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q28. The force applied by a person to operate a machine is known as _______.

(a) Load
(b) Effort
(c) Fulcrum
(d) Resistance

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Effort

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Effort
Explanation:
In a simple machine, the force applied by the user to do work is called theeffort, while the resistive force overcome by the machine (e.g., the weight to be lifted) is called theload.
Important Facts:
• Fulcrum is the fixed pivot point about which a lever turns.
• Mechanical advantage = Load / Effort.

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Defects of vision and their correction

Q29. Which of the following defects of vision is corrected using a concave lens?

(a) Hypermetropia
(b) Astigmatism
(c) Presbyopia
(d) Myopia

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Myopia

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Myopia
Explanation:
Myopia(near-sightedness) occurs when the image of a distant object forms in front of the retina. It is corrected using aconcave (diverging) lens, which diverges the incoming rays before they enter the eye, shifting the focal point back onto the retina.
Important Facts:
• Hypermetropia (far-sightedness) is corrected using a convex lens.
• Presbyopia (age-related loss of accommodation) is corrected using bifocal lenses.
• Astigmatism is corrected using a cylindrical lens.

Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q30. If a 4 kg object is moving at 3 m/s and another 2 kg object is moving at 6 m/s, which one has more kinetic energy?

(a) Both objects have equal kinetic energy
(b) Neither object has kinetic energy
(c) The 4 kg object moving at 3 m/s
(d) The 2 kg object moving at 6 m/s

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The 2 kg object moving at 6 m/s

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The 2 kg object moving at 6 m/s
Explanation:
Kinetic Energy = ½mv².For the 4 kg object at 3 m/s: KE = ½ × 4 × 3² = ½ × 4 × 9 =18 J
.For the 2 kg object at 6 m/s: KE = ½ × 2 × 6² = ½ × 2 × 36 =36 J
.Since 36 J > 18 J, the 2 kg object moving at 6 m/s has more kinetic energy.
Important Facts:
• Kinetic energy depends on the square of velocity, so velocity has a greater effect on KE than mass.
• SI unit of kinetic energy is the Joule (J).

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q31. Which of the following best describes why the unit of force is chosen as newton?

(a) It simplifies the calculation of velocity
(b) It makes mass and acceleration equal in value
(c) It changes the value of acceleration
(d) It makes the constant k in the formula "F = k ma" equal to 1

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It makes the constant k in the formula "F = k ma" equal to 1

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – It makes the constant k in the formula "F = k ma" equal to 1
Explanation:
From Newton's second law, F ∝ ma, so F = k·ma. Thenewtonis defined as the force that produces an acceleration of 1 m/s² in a mass of 1 kg, which makes the proportionality constant k equal to1, simplifying the equation to F = ma.
Important Facts:
• 1 Newton = 1 kg·m/s².
• This choice of unit avoids the need for a numerical constant in Newton's second law equation.

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Concave lens - image formation and uses

Q32. For any object position, what can be said about the size of the image formed by a concave lens?

(a) It is always magnified compared to the object
(b) It is always diminished compared to the object
(c) It is sometimes enlarged and sometimes diminished
(d) It is always the same size as the object

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is always diminished compared to the object

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – It is always diminished compared to the object
Explanation:
Aconcave (diverging) lensalways forms a virtual, erect, anddiminished(smaller) image of the object, regardless of the object's position — the image size decreases as the object moves farther away, but it never becomes magnified or equal to the object size.
Important Facts:
• Concave lens image is always formed between the optical centre and focus, on the same side as the object.
• This is unlike a convex lens, where image size and nature vary with object position.

Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q33. Which method is appropriate for finding the distance travelled by an object when its velocity-time graph is a straight line sloping upwards from the origin?

(a) Read the final velocity value from the graph
(b) Calculate the slope of the velocity-time graph
(c) Subtract the initial time from the final time
(d) Calculate the area under the velocity-time graph for the given interval

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Calculate the area under the velocity-time graph for the given interval

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Calculate the area under the velocity-time graph for the given interval
Explanation:
On a velocity-time graph, thearea under the graph(between the line and the time axis, over the given interval) gives thedistance/displacementtravelled by the object. For a straight line through the origin, this area is a triangle whose area equals ½ × base × height.
Important Facts:
• The slope of a velocity-time graph gives acceleration, not distance.
• For uniformly accelerated motion starting from rest, area under v-t graph = ½ × t × v = distance travelled.

Electricity · Resistors in series and parallel

Q34. Two identical bulbs are connected in parallel to a battery. If one bulb burns out, what happens to the brightness of the other bulb?

(a) The brightness of the other bulb decreases.
(b) Both bulbs turn off.
(c) The brightness of the other bulb increases.
(d) The brightness of the other bulb remains unchanged.

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The brightness of the other bulb remains unchanged.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The brightness of the other bulb remains unchanged.
Explanation:
In aparallel circuit, each component is connected across the same voltage source independently, on its own separate branch. If one bulb burns out (its branch becomes open), the voltage across the remaining bulb and the current through it are unaffected, so its brightnessremains unchanged.
Important Facts:
• In a series circuit, if one bulb burns out, the circuit breaks and all bulbs go off.
• Household wiring uses parallel circuits so that appliances operate independently.

Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q35. What is the main purpose of filling electric bulbs with nitrogen and argon gases?

(a) To increase the brightness of the bulb
(b) To cool the filament rapidly
(c) To prolong the life of the filament
(d) To make the bulb transparent

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To prolong the life of the filament

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – To prolong the life of the filament
Explanation:
Electric bulbs are filled with chemically inert gases likenitrogen and argonto prevent oxidation (burning) of the hot tungsten filament, therebyprolonging its life. These gases also help reduce evaporation of the filament material.
Important Facts:
• Tungsten is used as the filament due to its very high melting point (~3400°C).
• A vacuum was used in earlier bulbs, but inert gas filling further reduces filament evaporation.

Chemistry (8)

Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q36. Anodising is a process used to improve the appearance and durability of aluminium articles. Which of the following statements best explains the principle behind anodising?

(a) Aluminium is dipped in alkali to increase its reactivity.
(b) Aluminium is made the cathode in electrolysis to reduce oxide layer.
(c) Aluminium is made the anode and oxidised to form a thicker protective oxide layer.
(d) Aluminium is coated with zinc to prevent rusting.

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aluminium is made the anode and oxidised to form a thicker protective oxide layer.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Aluminium is made the anode and oxidised to form a thicker protective oxide layer.
Explanation:
Anodisingis an electrolytic process in which the aluminium object is made theanode. During electrolysis, the aluminium surface is oxidised, thickening the naturally occurring protective aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) layer, which improves corrosion resistance and can also be dyed for appearance.
Important Facts:
• Oxidation occurs at the anode (loss of electrons).
• The thickened oxide layer is harder and more corrosion-resistant than the natural film.
• Anodised aluminium is commonly used in utensils, window frames, and consumer goods.

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q37. Which of the following is a characteristic of a colloidal solution?

(a) The solute particles can be seen with the naked eye.
(b) The solute particles settle down on standing.
(c) The solute particles do not scatter a beam of light.
(d) The solute particles scatter a beam of light but do not settle down.

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The solute particles scatter a beam of light but do not settle down.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The solute particles scatter a beam of light but do not settle down.
Explanation:
Acolloidal solutionhas particle sizes intermediate between true solutions and suspensions. These particles are large enough to scatter light (theTyndall effect) but too small and light to settle under gravity, so the colloid remains stable/uniform without separating on standing.
Important Facts:
• True solutions do not show the Tyndall effect (particles too small to scatter light).
• Suspensions show visible particles that settle on standing.
• Examples of colloids: milk, fog, gel, blood plasma.

Structure of Atom · Rutherford's model and gold foil experiment

Q38. According to the Rutherford's model, what is the main characteristic of an atom's nucleus?

(a) It is small, dense, and positively charged
(b) It contains only electrons
(c) It is spread throughout the atom
(d) It is large and negatively charged

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It is small, dense, and positively charged

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – It is small, dense, and positively charged
Explanation:
Rutherford's gold foil experiment led him to conclude that an atom has a tiny, dense, positively chargednucleusat its center, where most of the atom's mass is concentrated, while electrons revolve around it at a distance, with most of the atom being empty space.
Important Facts:
• Rutherford's model is also called the 'nuclear model' of the atom.
• It replaced J.J. Thomson's 'plum pudding' model.
• Rutherford's model could not explain the stability of atoms — later addressed by Bohr's model.

Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Combustion and flame

Q39. What sort of flame is produced when unsaturated carbon compounds are burnt in air?

(a) a blue flame with lots of black smoke
(b) a yellow flame with lots of black smoke
(c) a yellow flame with no smoke
(d) a clean flame

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) a yellow flame with lots of black smoke

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – a yellow flame with lots of black smoke
Explanation:
Unsaturated hydrocarbons (containing double/triple bonds) have a higher proportion of carbon relative to hydrogen. When burnt in air, they undergo incomplete combustion, producing ayellow, sooty flame with lots of black smokedue to unburnt carbon particles.
Important Facts:
• Saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) generally burn with a clean blue flame.
• Unsaturated hydrocarbons (alkenes, alkynes) burn with a smoky yellow flame.
• This property is used to test for saturation/unsaturation of a compound.

Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substitution reactions in alkanes ?

(a) Multiple products may form
(b) One atom replaces another
(c) Double bond is broken
(d) Occurs in presence of sunlight

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Double bond is broken

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Double bond is broken
Explanation:
Alkanes aresaturatedhydrocarbons containing only single (C–C) bonds — they have no double bonds to break. In a substitution reaction, a hydrogen atom is replaced by another atom (e.g., a halogen) in the presence of sunlight, and multiple substitution products can form. 'Double bond is broken' describes an addition reaction of unsaturated compounds, not a substitution reaction of alkanes.
Important Facts:
• Example: CH₄ + Cl₂ →(sunlight)→ CH₃Cl + HCl (substitution).
• Addition reactions occur in unsaturated compounds (alkenes/alkynes) and involve breaking of double/triple bonds.

Structure of Atom · Atomic number and mass number

Q41. What does the atomic number of an element represent?

(a) Number of protons
(b) Number of neutrons only
(c) Number of isotopes
(d) Number of electrons and neutrons

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Number of protons

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Number of protons
Explanation:
Theatomic number (Z)of an element is defined as the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom. For a neutral atom, this also equals the number of electrons, but the defining quantity is the proton count.
Important Facts:
• Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons.
• Isotopes have the same atomic number but different mass numbers (different neutron counts).

Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q42. Consider the reaction: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l)This reaction is best classified as which type of chemical reactions?

(a) Decomposition reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Combination reaction
(d) Neutralization reaction

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neutralization reaction

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Neutralization reaction
Explanation:
HCl (an acid) reacts with NaOH (a base) to form NaCl (a salt) and H₂O (water). A reaction between an acid and a base to produce salt and water is called aneutralization reaction.
Important Facts:
• General form: Acid + Base → Salt + Water.
• Neutralization reactions are typically exothermic.

Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q43. Which gas is usually released when acid reacts with metals?

(a) nitrogen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) hydrogen
(d) chlorine

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) hydrogen

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – hydrogen
Explanation:
When a reactive metal reacts with a dilute acid, it displaceshydrogen gas
, which can be tested with a burning splint producing a characteristic 'pop' sound.Example: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂↑
Important Facts:
• Metal + Dilute Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas.
• This does not occur with unreactive metals like copper and dilute acids under normal conditions.

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