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RRB Group D 2025-26 20 August 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 20 August 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Chemistry, Physics, Biology, Geography.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 20 August 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (20) · Chemistry (8) · Physics (9) · Biology (7) · Geography (1)

Current Affairs (20)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q1. Who launched the SAHI and BODH initiatives to strengthen the responsible health AI ecosystem at the 'India AI Impact Summit 2026'?

  1. (a) Jagat Prakash Nadda
  2. (b) Dharmendra Pradhan
  3. (c) Nitin Gadkari
  4. (d) Nirmala Sitharaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jagat Prakash Nadda

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Jagat Prakash Nadda
Explanation:
Union Health MinisterJ.P. Naddalaunched theSAHI(Sahayak AI for Healthcare Intelligence) andBODHinitiatives at theIndia AI Impact Summit 2026(held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, 16–20 Feb 2026) to build a responsible health AI ecosystem in India.
Important Facts:
• SAHI and BODH aim to set guardrails and a national data platform for AI use in healthcare.
• Announced around 17 February 2026, during the India AI Impact Summit.
• Nadda is the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q2. Which book had been released by Sudha Murty in April 2026 highlighting Indian parliamentary history through mural panels in Samvidhan Sadan?

  1. (a) Echoes of Antiquity: Bharat's Parliamentary Mural Journeys
  2. (b) Echoes from the Past: Murals of the Indian Parliament
  3. (c) Tides of Time: Bharat's History through Murals in Parliament
  4. (d) Tides of History: Murals of Ancient Indian Parliamentary Art
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tides of Time: Bharat's History through Murals in Parliament

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Tides of Time: Bharat's History through Murals in Parliament
Explanation:
MPSudha Murtyauthored'Tides of Time: Bharat's History through Murals in Parliament', published by the Lok Sabha Secretariat, highlighting Indian parliamentary/civilisational history depicted through mural panels in Samvidhan Sadan (old Parliament building).
Important Facts:
• The book was released with the Vice President releasing it as well, around April 2026.
• It documents the murals inside Samvidhan Sadan depicting India's civilisational journey.
• Sudha Murty is a Rajya Sabha MP and noted author.
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q3. In which city was the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 held from 16–20 February 2026?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) New Delhi

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – New Delhi
Explanation:
TheIndia–AI Impact Summit 2026was held inNew Delhiat Bharat Mandapam from 16–20 February 2026.
Important Facts:
• The summit focused on people-centric, inclusive AI development.
• It followed earlier AI summits held in Bletchley Park (UK), Seoul, and Paris.
• Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi hosted the main sessions.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q4. In February 2026, Indian weightlifter Mirabai Chanu broke three national records after returning to competition. In which women's weight category did she achieve this feat?

  1. (a) 54 Kg
  2. (b) 72 Kg
  3. (c) 68 Kg
  4. (d) 48 kg
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 48 kg

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – 48 Kg
Explanation:
Returning to competition at the2026 National Weightlifting Championships,Mirabai Chanulifted 205 kg total and broke three national records in the women's48 kgcategory.
Important Facts:
• Chanu had earlier competed in 49 kg; the categories were revised and she competed in 48 kg.
• She is a Tokyo Olympics silver medallist in weightlifting.
• This was seen as a strong comeback ahead of the Asian Games 2026.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q5. Which indigenous artillery system received DAC approval in March 2026 to enhance the Indian Army's capability to engage targets at longer ranges with enhanced lethality?

  1. (a) Dhanush Gun System
  2. (b) Pinaka Mk-II System
  3. (c) M-777 Howitzer
  4. (d) T-90 Gun System
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dhanush Gun System

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Dhanush Gun System
Explanation:
In March 2026, theDefence Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by Rajnath Singh, cleared proposals worth ₹2.38 lakh crore, including procurement of the indigenousDhanush 155mm gun system(along with S-400 missiles and other equipment), to boost the Army's long-range engagement capability.
Important Facts:
• Dhanush is an indigenously upgraded/desi variant of the Bofors 155mm/45-calibre howitzer.
• The DAC approval in March 2026 was a single-year record for defence procurement value.
• Order includes forming additional artillery regiments.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q6. As part of the pre-summit "Lion Species Spotlight Event" of the 1st International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) Summit 2026, which protected area in Gujarat was chosen to showcase the conservation of the world's only wild population of Asiatic lions?

  1. (a) Vansda National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
  2. (b) Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
  3. (c) Marine National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. (d) Velavadar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation:
Ahead of the1st International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) Summit 2026, Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav inaugurated the'Lion' Species Spotlight EventatSasan Gir (Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary), Gujarat, home to the world's only wild population of Asiatic lions.
Important Facts:
• Gir Forest in Gujarat is the sole natural habitat of the Asiatic lion.
• IBCA was launched by India to conserve seven big cat species globally.
• The event was a pre-summit programme ahead of the main IBCA Summit.
State News · State elections and results

Q7. Who among the following took oath as the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu in India in May 2026?

  1. (a) Edappadi K. Palaniswami
  2. (b) K. Annamalai
  3. (c) M. K. Alagiri
  4. (d) C. Joseph Vijay
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) C. Joseph Vijay

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – C. Joseph Vijay
Explanation:
Actor-turned-politicianVijay (C. Joseph Vijay), leader of theTamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK), took oath as Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu in May 2026 after TVK's win in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election.
Important Facts:
• Vijay was named TVK's chief ministerial candidate for the 2026 Tamil Nadu election.
• TVK staked claim to form the government after the election results in 2026.
• This marked Vijay's transition from cinema to full-time politics as CM.
State News · State schemes and events

Q8. Which state government allocated funds in its 2026–27 Budget for the comprehensive development of Jain, Buddhist, and Sikh communities, including a monthly honorarium for Buddhist Dhammacharis?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Telangana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Karnataka

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Karnataka
Explanation:
In its 2026–27 Budget, theKarnatakagovernment (Siddaramaiah) provided for the welfare of Jain, Buddhist and Sikh minority communities, extending the existing honorarium scheme (already given to Jain basadi archakas) to include a monthly honorarium for Buddhist monks/Dhammacharis serving in Buddhist viharas.
Important Facts:
• Karnataka's Minority Welfare Department already paid honorarium to archakas of registered Jain basadis.
• The 2026-27 budget extended similar support to Buddhist religious practitioners for parity across minority communities.
• Ramalinga Reddy (Muzrai Minister) discussed the proposal for Buddhist monks.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q9. Which country won the 2026 Men's Six Nations rugby union championship, securing its second consecutive title?

  1. (a) England
  2. (b) Italy
  3. (c) Scotland
  4. (d) France
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) France

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – France
Explanation:
Francewon the2026 Men's Six Nations Championship, retaining/defending their title for a second consecutive year after a chaotic, closely fought tournament.
Important Facts:
• France had also won the 2025 Six Nations title.
• The Six Nations involves England, France, Ireland, Italy, Scotland, and Wales.
• France defended the title in the 2026 edition per ESPN and Sky Sports coverage.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q10. Which badminton player won the 2026 Malaysia Open women’s singles title held in Kuala Lumpur in January 2026 by defeating China’s Wang Zhiyi in straight games to secure a third consecutive championship?

  1. (a) Chen Yufei
  2. (b) An Se-young
  3. (c) Akane Yamaguchi
  4. (d) Tai Tzu-ying
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) An Se-young

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – An Se-young
Explanation:
South Korea'sAn Se-youngwon the women's singles title at the2026 Malaysia Openin Kuala Lumpur (January 2026), defeating China's Wang Zhiyi in straight games to claim her third consecutive Malaysia Open crown.
Important Facts:
• This was described as An Se-young's 'three-peat' at the Malaysia Open.
• The men's singles title in the same edition was won by Kunlavut Vitidsarn.
• An Se-young is a former World No. 1 and Olympic gold medallist (Paris 2024).
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q11. Which senior IAS officer was appointed as the new chief of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation in 2026?

  1. (a) Sanjay Kumar
  2. (b) Ashok Lahiri
  3. (c) Shashi Shekhar Vempati
  4. (d) Vir Vikram Yadav
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Vir Vikram Yadav

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Vir Vikram Yadav
Explanation:
Vir Vikram Yadav, a 1996-batch IAS officer, was appointed as the new Director General of theDirectorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)in 2026.
Important Facts:
• The appointment came amid a bureaucratic reshuffle related to aviation sector challenges.
• DGCA is India's civil aviation safety and regulatory authority under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• Reported around March–April 2026.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q12. Which of the following organisations successfully conducted the maiden flight-tests of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) in August 2025?

  1. (a) Bharat Dynamics Limited
  2. (b) Defence Research and Development Organisation
  3. (c) Bharat Earth Movers Limited
  4. (d) Indian Space Research Organisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Defence Research and Development Organisation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Defence Research and Development Organisation
Explanation:
DRDOsuccessfully conducted the maiden flight-tests of the indigenousIntegrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS)off the Odisha coast in August 2025.
Important Facts:
• IADWS integrates multiple air-defence weapons (including a laser-based element) for layered protection.
• Tests were conducted from the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, Odisha.
• Confirmed via PIB press release dated August 2025.
Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q13. According to India's updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) approved in March 2026, what is the target share of non-fossil fuel-based resources in installed electric power capacity by 2035?

  1. (a) 50%
  2. (b) 40%
  3. (c) 47%
  4. (d) 60%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 60%

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – 60%
Explanation:
India's updatedNationally Determined Contribution (NDC) for 2031–2035, approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2026, targets a60%share of non-fossil fuel-based resources in installed electric power capacity by 2035, alongside a 47% cut in emissions intensity.
Important Facts:
• The NDC also targets a 47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP from 2005 levels.
• This updated NDC was communicated to the UNFCCC.
• It builds on India's earlier 2030 targets (50% non-fossil capacity, since achieved early).
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q14. In 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi received the “Agricola Medal” from which international organization?

  1. (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  2. (b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
  3. (c) World Bank
  4. (d) UNESCO
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
Explanation:
PMNarendra Modiwas honoured with the'Agricola Medal 2026'by theFood and Agriculture Organization (FAO)of the United Nations, presented in Rome, in recognition of India's contributions to agriculture, sustainability and food security.
Important Facts:
• The Agricola Medal is FAO's highest honour.
• The medal was presented during PM Modi's visit to Rome (around May 2026).
• Recognised India's efforts under schemes promoting sustainable agriculture and food security.
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q15. What was the overall National Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) recorded for persons aged 15 years and above in April 2026?

  1. (a) 55.0%
  2. (b) 47.5%
  3. (c) 65.4%
  4. (d) 50.1%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 55.0%

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – 55.0%
Explanation:
As per the PLFS Monthly Bulletin, the overall nationalLabour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)for persons aged 15 years and above stood at55.0%in April 2026, slightly down from 55.4% in March 2026 and 55.6% in April 2025.
Important Facts:
• PLFS monthly bulletins are released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• LFPR measures the proportion of the population that is working or seeking work.
• The April 2026 figure reflected a marginal year-on-year decline.
Economy, Banking and Business · Mergers, acquisitions and partnerships

Q16. Which organisation signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Spices Board of India in May 2026 to strengthen the global promotion of Ayush products and medicinal spices?

  1. (a) Ayurvedic and Unani Health Services Export Council
  2. (b) AYUSHEXCIL (Ayush Export Promotion Council)
  3. (c) Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India
  4. (d) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) AYUSHEXCIL (Ayush Export Promotion Council)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – AYUSHEXCIL (Ayush Export Promotion Council)
Explanation:
AYUSHEXCIL(Ayush Export Promotion Council) signed an MoU with theSpices Board of Indiain May 2026 to jointly strengthen global promotion of Ayush products and medicinal spices.
Important Facts:
• The MoU aims to boost Ayush exports and India's standing in global wellness markets.
• It was signed around 25 May 2026.
• AYUSHEXCIL operates under the Ministry of Ayush.
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q17. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) announced its withdrawal in April 2026 from which international oil-producing organisation, ending its membership that had continued since 1967?

  1. (a) World Trade Organization (WTO)
  2. (b) International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
  3. (c) International Energy Agency (IEA)
  4. (d) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
Explanation:
TheUAEannounced its withdrawal fromOPECin April 2026, ending a membership that had lasted since 1967, a move seen as part of a broader Gulf realignment.
Important Facts:
• UAE had joined OPEC in 1967.
• The exit reduces OPEC's share of global crude oil production and capacity.
• Reported widely around late April 2026 (e.g., Al Jazeera, EIA).
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q18. From October 1, 2025, who became eligible to receive working capital loans using gold as raw material, as per Reserve Bank of India reforms?

  1. (a) Manufacturers
  2. (b) Foreign investors
  3. (c) Only jewellers
  4. (d) All banks
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Manufacturers

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Manufacturers
Explanation:
From October 1, 2025, as per RBI's revised Lending Against Gold and Silver Directions,manufacturersusing gold as a raw material became eligible to avail working capital loans against gold, easing lending norms for gold-using manufacturing units.
Important Facts:
• This was part of RBI's broader 2025 reforms tightening/streamlining gold loan rules.
• The move aimed to boost the manufacturing sector's access to credit using gold as collateral/input.
• Effective from 1 October 2025.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q19. Which Indian athlete won gold in the Men’s Long Jump at the Indian Athletics Series 1 in April 2026?

  1. (a) Neeraj Chopra
  2. (b) Muhammed Anees Yahiya
  3. (c) Murali Sreeshankar
  4. (d) Jeswin Aldrin
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Murali Sreeshankar

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Murali Sreeshankar
Explanation:
Murali Sreeshankarwon the gold medal in the Men's Long Jump (clearing over 8m, 8.15m) at theIndian Athletics Series 1held in Bengaluru in April 2026, marking a strong season opener.
Important Facts:
• Sreeshankar is India's national record holder in long jump.
• The event was held in Bengaluru around 4-5 April 2026.
• This was his season-opening competition after recovering from injury.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q20. Which of the following individuals released the coffee table book 'Atal Bihari Vajpayee: The Eternal Statesman' in February 2026 at Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi?

  1. (a) Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh
  2. (b) C. P. Radhakrishnan
  3. (c) Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde
  4. (d) Arif Mohammed Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) C. P. Radhakrishnan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – C. P. Radhakrishnan
Explanation:
Vice-PresidentC. P. Radhakrishnanreleased the coffee table book'Atal Bihari Vajpayee: The Eternal Statesman'in February 2026 at the Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.
Important Facts:
• The book was released around 21-23 February 2026.
• It commemorates the legacy of former PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• C. P. Radhakrishnan is the Vice President of India.

Chemistry (8)

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q21. Which of the following is a correct statement about molecules of elements?

  1. (a) They are always monoatomic.
  2. (b) They can only exist in solid form.
  3. (c) They consist of two or more atoms of the same element.
  4. (d) They consist of two or more atoms of different elements.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They consist of two or more atoms of the same element.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – They consist of two or more atoms of the same element.
Explanation:
A molecule of an element is formed by the combination of two or more atoms of thesameelement, e.g., O₂, N₂, P₄, S₈. Molecules of compounds, by contrast, are formed from atoms of different elements.
Important Facts:
• Noble gases (He, Ne, Ar) exist as monoatomic molecules, so 'always monoatomic' is false.
• Elemental molecules can exist as gas, liquid, or solid depending on conditions.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q22. Consider the reaction:Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)Which feature of this reaction justifies classifying it specifically as a precipitation reaction?

  1. (a) Reactants exist initially as aqueous solutions
  2. (b) Two ionic compounds exchange partners
  3. (c) Insoluble barium sulphate forms in solution
  4. (d) Sodium chloride remains dissolved in water
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Insoluble barium sulphate forms in solution

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Insoluble barium sulphate forms in solution.
Explanation:
A precipitation reaction is defined specifically by the formation of an insoluble solid (precipitate) from a reaction between soluble reactants. Here, BaSO₄ is insoluble and separates out of solution, which is the defining feature that makes this a precipitation reaction (it is also a double displacement reaction, but that classification does not by itself require a precipitate).
Important Facts:
• Double displacement reactions involve exchange of ions/partners between two compounds; they are called precipitation reactions specifically when an insoluble product is formed.
Periodic Classification of Elements · Element facts (names, symbols, atomic numbers)

Q23. Which of the following elements has a mass number of 40 and atomic number of 20?

  1. (a) Calcium
  2. (b) Neon
  3. (c) Sodium
  4. (d) Potassium
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Calcium

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Calcium
Explanation:
Calcium (Ca) has atomic number 20 (20 protons) and its most common isotope has mass number 40 (20 protons + 20 neutrons).
Important Facts:
• Neon: atomic number 10.
• Sodium: atomic number 11.
• Potassium: atomic number 19, mass number 39.
Carbon and its Compounds · Ethanol and ethanoic acid

Q24. Alcohol is added to petrol mainly because it is a:

  1. (a) Stronger fuel additive
  2. (b) Denser fuel additive
  3. (c) Cleaner fuel additive
  4. (d) Heavier fuel additive
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cleaner fuel additive

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Cleaner fuel additive
Explanation:
Ethanol (alcohol) is blended with petrol mainly because it burns more completely and cleanly, reducing harmful vehicular emissions (like carbon monoxide) and also boosting octane rating, apart from reducing dependence on crude oil imports.
Important Facts:
• India's Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme promotes ethanol as a renewable, cleaner-burning additive.
• Alcohol is neither denser, heavier, nor inherently a 'stronger' fuel than petrol.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Decomposition reactions (thermal, electrolytic, photolytic)

Q25. Calcium carbonate is heated to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide; this is a type of:

  1. (a) substitution reaction
  2. (b) displacement reaction
  3. (c) addition reaction
  4. (d) decomposition reaction
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) decomposition reaction

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Decomposition reaction
Explanation:
CaCO₃ →(heat) CaO + CO₂ is a classic example of thermal decomposition, where a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances on heating.
Important Facts:
• This reaction is used industrially to produce quicklime (CaO) from limestone.
• Decomposition is the reverse of a combination reaction.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q26. A reaction between an acid and a base produces:

  1. (a) Hydrogen gas and metal
  2. (b) Only water
  3. (c) Only salt
  4. (d) Salt and water
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Salt and water

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Salt and water
Explanation:
An acid–base (neutralisation) reaction produces a salt and water, e.g., HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O.
Important Facts:
• Hydrogen gas and a salt are produced when an acid reacts with a reactive metal, not a base.
Metals and Non-metals · Ionic compounds and their properties

Q27. What type of bond is formed between a metal and a non-metal?

  1. (a) Metallic bond
  2. (b) Ionic bond
  3. (c) Hydrogen bond
  4. (d) Covalent bond
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ionic bond

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Ionic bond
Explanation:
A metal (which tends to lose electrons, forming cations) and a non-metal (which tends to gain electrons, forming anions) combine via electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions, forming an ionic bond, e.g., NaCl.
Important Facts:
• Metallic bonds occur between atoms of the same metal.
• Covalent bonds typically form between two non-metals.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q28. Which of the following mixtures shows the Tyndall effect but the particles settle down on standing?

  1. (a) Solution
  2. (b) Suspension
  3. (c) Compound
  4. (d) Colloid
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Suspension

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Suspension
Explanation:
A suspension has relatively large, heterogeneously dispersed particles that can scatter/reflect light (making the light path visible) but, being large and heavy, are unstable and settle down on standing. This is in contrast to a true colloid, whose particles also scatter light (Tyndall effect) but remain permanently suspended without settling.
Important Facts:
• True solutions do not scatter light and their particles never settle out.
• Colloidal solutions show the Tyndall effect but are stable (do not settle on standing) — the key differentiator from suspensions.

Physics (9)

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Prism and dispersion of light

Q29. A student wants to design an experiment to demonstrate the dispersion of white light using a glass prism. Which of the following procedures would best achieve this goal?

  1. (a) Pass white light through a convex lens and look for color changes on a distant wall
  2. (b) Place a triangular glass prism in the path of a narrow white light beam and observe the emerging spectrum on a white screen
  3. (c) Use a concave mirror to reflect the white light onto a wall
  4. (d) Rotate a glass prism randomly in front of a white light source and record any color changes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Place a triangular glass prism in the path of a narrow white light beam and observe the emerging spectrum on a white screen

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Place a triangular glass prism in the path of a narrow white light beam and observe the emerging spectrum on a white screen.
Explanation:
Dispersion of white light is best demonstrated by passing anarrow beamof white light through a triangular glass prism; the prism splits it into its constituent colours (VIBGYOR) because each colour refracts by a different amount, and this spectrum is observed on a screen.
Important Facts:
• A convex lens or concave mirror does not disperse light into a spectrum in this manner.
• Random rotation of the prism does not constitute a controlled experiment for dispersion.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q30. Which of the following best describes the slope of the velocity-time graph for uniform velocity?

  1. (a) The slope changes at every point
  2. (b) The slope is negative and constant
  3. (c) The slope is positive and constant
  4. (d) The slope is zero at all points
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The slope is zero at all points

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The slope is zero at all points.
Explanation:
On a velocity–time graph, the slope representsacceleration. For uniform (constant) velocity, acceleration is zero throughout the motion, so the v–t graph is a horizontal straight line with zero slope.
Important Facts:
• A positive constant slope on a v-t graph represents uniform acceleration, not uniform velocity.
• The area under a v-t graph gives displacement.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Convex mirror - image formation and uses

Q31. Which scenario best illustrates the use of a convex mirror based on the nature of its image?

  1. (a) A shopkeeper uses it to monitor a wide area inside the store
  2. (b) A scientist uses it to focus sunlight for heating
  3. (c) A student uses it to obtain a real, inverted image on paper
  4. (d) A model uses it as a makeup mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A shopkeeper uses it to monitor a wide area inside the store

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – A shopkeeper uses it to monitor a wide area inside the store.
Explanation:
A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image, and it has a wider field of view than a plane mirror. This makes it ideal for surveillance mirrors in shops and as vehicle rear-view mirrors, where seeing a wide area matters more than image size.
Important Facts:
• Concave mirrors, not convex, are used to focus sunlight (solar cookers) and produce real, inverted images (e.g., shaving/makeup mirrors held close).
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q32. While operating a lever, which part serves as the fixed point around which the lever rotates?

  1. (a) Effort arm
  2. (b) Effort
  3. (c) Load
  4. (d) Fulcrum
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Fulcrum

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Fulcrum
Explanation:
The fulcrum is the fixed pivot point about which a lever rotates when effort is applied to move a load.
Important Facts:
• Effort is the force applied; load is the resistance/weight to be overcome; effort arm is the distance from the fulcrum to the point of effort application.
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q33. If a car moves with a speed of 10 m/s for 5 seconds, what distance does it cover?

  1. (a) 50 meters
  2. (b) 5 meters
  3. (c) 100 meters
  4. (d) 15 meters
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 50 meters

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – 50 meters
Explanation:
Distance = Speed × Time = 10 m/s × 5 s = 50 m.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Domestic electric circuits, fuse and earthing

Q34. Why are all appliances in a domestic circuit connected in parallel?

  1. (a) To reduce the number of switches needed
  2. (b) To ensure each appliance gets equal potential difference
  3. (c) To prevent short-circuiting in wires
  4. (d) To save electricity in the household
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To ensure each appliance gets equal potential difference

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – To ensure each appliance gets equal potential difference
Explanation:
In a domestic parallel circuit, every appliance is connected directly across the same two points of the supply line, so each receives the same (full mains) potential difference regardless of the others, allowing each appliance to operate at its rated voltage and to be switched on/off independently.
Important Facts:
• In a series circuit, voltage divides among components and all components stop working if one fails — unsuitable for households.
• Parallel wiring does not itself prevent short-circuiting; fuses/circuit breakers are used for that.
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q35. Which statement best describes the mechanical advantage of a simple machine?

  1. (a) The ratio of the load lifted to the effort applied
  2. (b) The amount of work done by the machine
  3. (c) The energy supplied to the machine
  4. (d) The rate at which the machine performs work
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The ratio of the load lifted to the effort applied

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The ratio of the load lifted to the effort applied
Explanation:
Mechanical Advantage (MA) = Load / Effort. It indicates how much a simple machine multiplies the applied effort.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q36. A student places a small object 20 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. According to the mirror formula, what will be the image distance?

  1. (a) 25 cm behind the mirror
  2. (b) 20 cm in front of the mirror
  3. (c) 10 cm behind the mirror
  4. (d) 15 cm in front of the mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 20 cm in front of the mirror

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 20 cm in front of the mirror
Explanation:
Using the mirror formula 1/v + 1/u = 1/f with sign convention u = −20 cm, f = −10 cm:1/v = 1/f − 1/u = (−1/10) − (−1/20) = −1/20, so v = −20 cm.Since the object is placed at the centre of curvature (2f = 20 cm), the image also forms at 2f, i.e., 20 cm in front of the mirror (real, inverted, same size).
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q37. A student wants to design a device where the magnetic field due to a straight conductor is maximized at a certain point. Which modification will be most effective in increasing the field strength at that point?

  1. (a) Place the conductor horizontally
  2. (b) Increase the thickness of the wire
  3. (c) Increase the current through the conductor
  4. (d) Use a non-magnetic wire material
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increase the current through the conductor

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Increase the current through the conductor
Explanation:
The magnetic field strength (B) produced by a straight current-carrying conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it (B ∝ I). Increasing the current is the most direct and effective way to increase the field strength at a given point.
Important Facts:
• The orientation of the conductor or its thickness does not increase field strength the way current does; the wire material only matters if it affects resistance/current-carrying capacity.

Biology (7)

Control and Coordination · Endocrine glands and hormones

Q38. Which of the following is secreted directly into the blood and carried to different parts of the body?

  1. (a) Saliva
  2. (b) Bile juice
  3. (c) Pancreatic juice
  4. (d) Adrenaline
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Adrenaline

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Adrenaline
Explanation:
Adrenaline is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands directly into the bloodstream (endocrine secretion), which then carries it to target organs throughout the body.
Important Facts:
• Saliva, bile juice, and pancreatic juice are exocrine secretions released through ducts into the digestive tract, not directly into blood.
Cell - Structure and Function · Plastids

Q39. Complete the analogy.Mitochondria : Energy Release :: Chloroplast : ______________.

  1. (a) Genetic Transfer
  2. (b) Cell Digestion
  3. (c) Food Synthesis
  4. (d) Waste Removal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Food Synthesis

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Food Synthesis
Explanation:
Mitochondria are the 'powerhouse of the cell', releasing energy via respiration. Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis, i.e., food (glucose) synthesis using sunlight, water, and CO₂.
Important Facts:
• Chloroplasts are found only in plant cells and some protists, containing chlorophyll.
Cell - Structure and Function · Nucleus and chromosomes

Q40. Which structure in an animal cell acts as the control centre and contains the genetic material?

  1. (a) Vacuole
  2. (b) Ribosome
  3. (c) Nucleus
  4. (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nucleus

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Nucleus
Explanation:
The nucleus contains the cell's genetic material (DNA/chromosomes) and controls and coordinates all cellular activities, making it the 'control centre' of the cell.
Important Facts:
• Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis; the vacuole stores substances; the endoplasmic reticulum aids in transport and synthesis of proteins/lipids.
Control and Coordination · Brain - parts and functions

Q41. Which organ sends messages to muscles to carry out voluntary actions like writing or moving a chair?

  1. (a) Heart
  2. (b) Lungs
  3. (c) Brain
  4. (d) Stomach
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Brain

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Brain
Explanation:
The brain is the main control centre of the nervous system; it sends nerve impulses to skeletal muscles to initiate and control voluntary actions such as writing or moving objects.
Important Facts:
• The cerebrum, the largest part of the brain, is specifically responsible for voluntary actions and thought.
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q42. Which statement correctly explains the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?

  1. (a) They break down organic substances into simple inorganic substances
  2. (b) They increase atmospheric pollution
  3. (c) They occupy the first trophic level
  4. (d) They convert solar energy into chemical energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They break down organic substances into simple inorganic substances

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – They break down organic substances into simple inorganic substances
Explanation:
Decomposers (bacteria, fungi) break down complex organic matter from dead plants/animals into simpler inorganic substances, which are then returned to the soil/environment for reuse, completing nutrient cycles.
Important Facts:
• Producers (green plants), not decomposers, convert solar energy into chemical energy.
• Producers occupy the first trophic level.
Ecology and Environment · Trophic levels and the 10 percent law

Q43. Which of the following organisms is likely to occupy more than one trophic levels?

  1. (a) Peacock
  2. (b) Tiger
  3. (c) Deer
  4. (d) Rabbit
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Peacock

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Peacock
Explanation:
A peacock is omnivorous — it eats grains/plant matter (acting as a primary consumer/herbivore) as well as insects and small reptiles like snakes (acting as a secondary/tertiary consumer). This lets it occupy more than one trophic level, unlike the strictly herbivorous deer and rabbit, or the tiger, which typically functions as a single-level apex carnivore.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Animal kingdom - non-chordates

Q44. A zoologist observes a fixed aquatic animal with no tissue differentiation but efficient water filtration. Which of the following is most likely to happen if this animal was placed in a terrestrial environment?

  1. (a) It would close its pores to prevent drying
  2. (b) It would desiccate due to inability to retain water
  3. (c) It would move to moist areas for survival
  4. (d) It would use tentacles to trap moisture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It would desiccate due to inability to retain water

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – It would desiccate due to inability to retain water
Explanation:
A fixed (sessile) aquatic animal with no tissue differentiation and efficient water filtration describes a sponge (phylum Porifera), which has cellular-level organisation and relies on a continuous flow of water (through pores/canals) for feeding, gas exchange, and support. On land, it would lose water rapidly and desiccate, as it has no adaptations to retain moisture or exchange gases in air.

Geography (1)

Geography Miscellaneous · Major domains of the Earth (lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere, biosphere)

Q45. A city implements stricter vehicle emission norms, reducing smog and ground-level ozone formation. Which spheres of earth are directly influenced by this policy?

  1. (a) Hydrosphere and biosphere
  2. (b) Atmosphere and biosphere
  3. (c) Lithosphere and hydrosphere
  4. (d) Lithosphere and atmosphere
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Atmosphere and biosphere

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Atmosphere and biosphere
Explanation:
Vehicle emissions (smog, ground-level ozone) directly pollute theatmosphere(air), and this pollution in turn affects living organisms, i.e., thebiosphere. These are the two spheres directly influenced by stricter emission norms.
Important Facts:
• Lithosphere refers to the solid earth/land, and hydrosphere to water bodies — not the primary spheres affected by air pollution control measures.
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