RRB Group D 2025-26 19 August 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions Asked – Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

Subjects: Current Affairs (18) · Static GK (1) · Chemistry (8) · Biology (7) · Physics (10) · Geography (1)

Current Affairs (18)

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q1. Under India's hypersonic missile development program, which institution has successfully completed a long-duration ground test of an actively cooled, full-scale scramjet combustor in May 2026?

(a) Defence Research and Development Organisation
(b) Indian Space Research Organisation
(c) Bharat Electronics Limited
(d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Defence Research and Development Organisation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Defence Research and Development Organisation
Explanation:
DRDO conducted an extensive long-duration (about 1,200-second) ground test of an actively cooled, full-scale scramjet combustor in May 2026, a major milestone for India's hypersonic missile programme.
Important Facts:
• The test validated thermal management of the scramjet combustor under sustained hypersonic flight conditions.
• This is a key building block for India's indigenous hypersonic cruise missile technology.
• DRDO is India's premier defence R&D agency under the Ministry of Defence.

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q2. Which initiative was announced on 22 December 2025 for establishing a Centre of Excellence to promote CRISPR-based innovation and enable translation of laboratory research into real-world clinical applications in India?

(a) National Centre for Genome Sequencing and Data Sharing
(b) Centre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation
(c) Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council Innovation Hub
(d) National Bio-Pharma Skill Development Programme

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Centre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Centre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation
Explanation:
On 22 December 2025, a Letter of Intent (LoI) was signed to establish the Centre of Excellence for CRISPR Innovation and Translation (CoE-CIT), aimed at translating CRISPR-based gene-editing research into clinical applications in India.
Important Facts:
• CoE-CIT is described as a first-of-its-kind centre focused on CRISPR gene-editing translation.
• It is being set up under the Department of Science & Technology (DST) ecosystem, with a Bengaluru presence involved.
• The initiative supports India's biotechnology and precision-medicine innovation goals.

Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q3. Which tiger reserve is slated to become the third cheetah habitat in Madhya Pradesh, according to announcements in early 2026?

(a) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve
(b) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
(c) Satpura Tiger Reserve
(d) Panna Tiger Reserve

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve
Explanation:
Announcements in late 2025/early 2026 confirmed that Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh will become the state's third cheetah habitat, after Kuno National Park and Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary.
Important Facts:
• Madhya Pradesh's Chief Minister announced plans to make it cheetah-ready before the next monsoon.
• Kuno National Park was India's first reintroduction site (Project Cheetah), and Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is the second.
• Madhya Pradesh is often called the 'Tiger State' and now leads India's cheetah reintroduction efforts too.

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q4. Which indigenously developed third-generation fire-and-forget weapon system with top attack capability had been successfully flight-tested by DRDO against a moving target at KK Ranges, Ahilya Nagar, Maharashtra in January 2026?

(a) Multi Purpose Advanced Target Ground Missile
(b) Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM)
(c) Mobile Personnel Armor Tracking Guided Missile
(d) Medium Range Precision Assault Tactical Missile

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM)
Explanation:
DRDO successfully flight-tested the indigenous third-generation, fire-and-forget MPATGM with top-attack capability against a moving target at KK Ranges, Ahilya Nagar (formerly Ahmednagar), Maharashtra, in January 2026.
Important Facts:
• MPATGM is a man-portable, shoulder-fired anti-tank guided missile developed by DRDO.
• It uses an imaging infrared seeker for lock-on-before-launch, fire-and-forget operation.
• The test demonstrated top-attack mode engagement against a moving armoured target.

Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q5. In May 2026, the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which organization to strengthen AI-driven detection of mule accounts and combat cyber-enabled financial frauds?

(a) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
(b) Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)
(c) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
(d) Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)
Explanation:
In May 2026, the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) signed an MoU with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) to strengthen AI-driven detection of mule accounts and combat cyber-enabled financial frauds.
Important Facts:
• I4C functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs to coordinate action against cybercrime.
• RBIH is an innovation arm set up by the Reserve Bank of India to foster fintech innovation.
• The MoU focuses on leveraging AI/ML to identify and curb 'mule accounts' used to launder fraud proceeds.

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q6. Who authored the coffee table book 'Atal Bihari Vajpayee: The Eternal Statesman' launched at Dr. Ambedkar International Centre in February 2026?

(a) Ashim Kumar Ghosh
(b) Vijay Goel
(c) Murli Manohar Joshi
(d) C. P. Radhakrishnan

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vijay Goel

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Vijay Goel
Explanation:
The coffee table book 'Atal Bihari Vajpayee: The Eternal Statesman', authored by Vijay Goel, was released by Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan at the Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi, in February 2026.
Important Facts:
• Vijay Goel is a senior BJP leader and former Union Minister.
• The book celebrates the life and legacy of Bharat Ratna Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• It was released by Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan, not authored by him.

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q7. In February 2026, at which venue in the United Arab Emirates was the 3rd International AYUSH Conference and Expo organized?

(a) Sharjah Expo Centre, Sharjah
(b) Qatar National Convention Centre, Doha
(c) Dubai World Trade Centre (DWTC), Dubai
(d) Abu Dhabi National Exhibition Centre, Abu Dhabi

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dubai World Trade Centre (DWTC), Dubai

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Dubai World Trade Centre (DWTC), Dubai
Explanation:
The 3rd International AYUSH Conference and Expo was held at the Dubai World Trade Centre (DWTC), Dubai, UAE, in February 2026 (15-17 February 2026).
Important Facts:
• The conference promotes AYUSH systems (Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Homeopathy) globally.
• This was the third edition of the event held in Dubai.
• It aims to boost international collaboration and wellness tourism linked to Indian traditional medicine.

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q8. At the New Delhi 2026 World Para Athletics Grand Prix, which Indian para-athlete won the gold medal in the Men's Javelin Throw F43/44/64 event, leading India's podium sweep?

(a) Sumit Antil
(b) Amit Kumar Saroha
(c) Sandeep Chaudhary
(d) Devendra Jhajharia

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sumit Antil

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Sumit Antil
Explanation:
At the World Para Athletics Grand Prix 2026 held in New Delhi (March 2026), Sumit Antil won gold in the Men's Javelin Throw F44 category, leading an Indian podium sweep, with a throw around 69.25 m.
Important Facts:
• Sumit Antil is a Paralympic and World Champion javelin thrower in the F64 category.
• India topped the medal table at the New Delhi 2026 Grand Prix.
• Other Indian stars like Praveen Kumar and Preeti Pal also won medals at the event.

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q9. In 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi received the “Royal Order of the Polar Star, Degree Commander Grand Cross” from which country?

(a) Finland
(b) Sweden
(c) Norway
(d) Denmark

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sweden

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sweden
Explanation:
In May 2026, Sweden conferred on Prime Minister Narendra Modi the 'Royal Order of the Polar Star, Degree Commander Grand Cross', Sweden's highest civilian honour.
Important Facts:
• This was reported as PM Modi's 31st international honour.
• The Order of the Polar Star is Sweden's oldest and most prestigious order of chivalry.
• The award was presented during PM Modi's visit to Sweden.

Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q10. What significant air quality milestone did Delhi-NCR achieve in 2025 by November?

(a) Lowest AQI levels ever recorded since 1990
(b) First time meeting WHO air quality standards
(c) No 'poor' days throughout the year
(d) Best average AQI in eight years

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Best average AQI in eight years

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Best average AQI in eight years
Explanation:
Through 2025, official data (CPCB/government statements) showed Delhi-NCR recording its best average Air Quality Index in eight years, a trend that continued and was reaffirmed going into late 2025 and reiterated by ministers in subsequent statements.
Important Facts:
• Government press releases (PIB) repeatedly cited 'best AQI in 8 years' comparisons for Delhi through 2025.
• This was attributed to sustained pollution-control measures across Delhi-NCR.
• This is a comparative/statistical claim, not a claim of meeting WHO standards or zero 'poor' days.

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q11. Which international financial institution published the “Women, Business and the Law 2026” report highlighting gaps in the enforcement of women’s economic rights?

(a) World Bank Group
(b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
(d) International Monetary Fund

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) World Bank Group

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – World Bank Group
Explanation:
The World Bank Group published the 'Women, Business and the Law 2026' report, which highlighted persistent gaps between laws on paper and actual enforcement of women's economic rights worldwide.
Important Facts:
• The report is an annual flagship publication of the World Bank tracking legal barriers to women's economic participation.
• It evaluates countries across multiple indicators such as mobility, workplace, pay, and entrepreneurship.
• The 2026 edition emphasized the gap between legal reforms and real-world implementation.

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q12. In May 2026, who among the following launched the Common Landing Portal for Unclaimed Financial Assets to facilitate easier access to information relating to unclaimed financial assets?

(a) Department of Financial Services
(b) Department of Revenue
(c) Department of Banking Affairs
(d) Department of Economic Affairs

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Department of Financial Services

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Department of Financial Services
Explanation:
In May 2026, the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance, launched the Common Landing Portal for Unclaimed Financial Assets, a unified platform to help citizens trace unclaimed deposits, insurance, shares and mutual funds.
Important Facts:
• The portal consolidates search across banks, insurance, and securities/mutual fund unclaimed assets.
• DFS operates under the Ministry of Finance and oversees banking, insurance and pension sector policy.
• The initiative aims to reduce the volume of unclaimed financial assets and improve citizen access.

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q13. Which cricketer had been awarded the ICC Men’s Player of the Month title for December 2025 following outstanding performances in international cricket?

(a) Jacob Duffy
(b) Justin Greaves
(c) Pat Cummins
(d) Mitchell Starc

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mitchell Starc

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Mitchell Starc
Explanation:
Mitchell Starc was named ICC Men's Player of the Month for December 2025 following his outstanding performances, including during the 2025-26 Ashes series.
Important Facts:
• Starc is a veteran Australian fast bowler known for left-arm pace bowling.
• The award recognized his impact during the December 2025 international fixtures.
• ICC Player of the Month awards are given separately for men's and women's cricket.

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q14. Which country had hosted the 48th edition of the Dakar Rally 2026 conducted from 03 January to 17 January 2026 with the start and finish line located in Yanbu?

(a) United Arab Emirates
(b) Bahrain
(c) Qatar
(d) Saudi Arabia

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Saudi Arabia

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Saudi Arabia
Explanation:
The 48th edition of the Dakar Rally 2026 was hosted by Saudi Arabia from 3 to 17 January 2026, with both the start and finish located in Yanbu.
Important Facts:
• Saudi Arabia has hosted the Dakar Rally since 2020.
• The 2026 edition also opened the W2RC (World Rally-Raid Championship) season.
• Yanbu is a Red Sea coastal city that served as the rally's new start/finish hub for 2026.

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q15. What is the primary purpose of the Delegation of Financial Powers to DRDO (DFP-2026) released in June 2026?

(a) To reduce the total research budget of DRDO
(b) To improve efficiency and project execution
(c) To mandate the outsourcing of core research
(d) To centralize all project funding decisions

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To improve efficiency and project execution

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – To improve efficiency and project execution
Explanation:
The Delegation of Financial Powers to DRDO (DFP-2026), released in June 2026 by the Raksha Mantri, is a reform aimed at enhancing efficiency, accountability and timely execution of strategic R&D projects.
Important Facts:
• DFP-2026 delegates greater financial autonomy to DRDO officials/labs for faster decision-making.
• The reform aims to reduce delays in defence R&D project execution.
• It was unveiled by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q16. India had participated in the joint military Exercise LAMITIYE–2026 with the defence forces of which country?

(a) Maldives
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Seychelles
(d) Mauritius

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Seychelles

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Seychelles
Explanation:
India participated in the joint military Exercise LAMITIYE-2026 with the Seychelles Defence Forces, conducted at the Seychelles Defence Academy in March 2026 (11th edition).
Important Facts:
• Exercise Lamitiye is a bilateral India-Seychelles army exercise aimed at boosting defence cooperation.
• 'Lamitiye' means 'friendship' in Seychellois Creole.
• This was the 11th edition of the exercise, held in Seychelles.

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q17. In 2026, Indian entrepreneur Bharat Gite was honoured at the British Parliament with the “Global Inspiration of the Year 2026” award for contributions to which industry?

(a) Pharmaceutical manufacturing and exports
(b) Semiconductor design and fabrication
(c) Aluminium manufacturing and innovation
(d) Renewable energy storage systems

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aluminium manufacturing and innovation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Aluminium manufacturing and innovation
Explanation:
Bharat Gite, founder of Taural India (a Pune-based aluminium sand-casting manufacturer known as the 'Aluminium Man of India'), was honoured with the 'Global Inspiration of the Year 2026' award at the British Parliament (World Book of Records, London) on 1 May 2026, for his contributions to aluminium manufacturing and innovation.
Important Facts:
• Bharat Gite is widely referred to as the 'Aluminium Man of India'.
• Taural India specializes in aluminium sand casting for advanced manufacturing.
• Taural India has also been featured as a Harvard Business School case study.

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q18. The Ministry of Women and Child Development celebrated the 8th edition of Poshan Pakhwada from 9 to 23 April 2026. What was the theme of Poshan Pakhwada 2026?

(a) Promoting Maternal Health and Early Childhood Care Services
(b) Enhancing Community Participation for Holistic Nutrition Outcomes
(c) Strengthening Adolescent Nutrition and Healthy Lifestyle Practices
(d) Maximizing Brain Development in the First Six Years of Life

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maximizing Brain Development in the First Six Years of Life

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Maximizing Brain Development in the First Six Years of Life
Explanation:
The Ministry of Women and Child Development launched the 8th edition of Poshan Pakhwada 2026 (9-23 April 2026) with the theme 'Maximizing Brain Development in the First Six Years of Life'.
Important Facts:
• Poshan Pakhwada is a fortnight-long nutrition awareness campaign under the POSHAN Abhiyaan.
• The 2026 theme emphasized early childhood brain development as a nutrition priority.
• It is observed nationwide, with states like Nagaland also holding local observances.

Static GK (1)

Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q19. What is the primary objective of the Khelo India program as reflected through events like the Beach Games in Diu and Tribal Games in Chhattisgarh?

(a) Establishing professional sports leagues
(b) Increasing sports broadcasting in India
(c) Expanding international sports participation
(d) Promoting inclusivity and regional sports development

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Promoting inclusivity and regional sports development

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Promoting inclusivity and regional sports development
Explanation:
Events like the Khelo India Beach Games in Diu and the Khelo India Tribal Games in Chhattisgarh reflect the programme's core objective of promoting inclusivity, grassroots participation and region-specific/indigenous sports talent across India.
Important Facts:
• Khelo India Tribal Games showcases indigenous and tribal sporting talent.
• Khelo India Beach Games promotes beach and coastal sporting disciplines.
• The broader Khelo India mission focuses on grassroots sports development, not professional leagues or broadcasting.

Chemistry (8)

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q20. Which organisation had invoked Stage-I of the Graded Response Action Plan across Delhi-NCR in May 2026 after the Air Quality Index entered the ‘Poor’ category?

(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Commission for Air Quality Management
(d) National Green Tribunal

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Commission for Air Quality Management

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Commission for Air Quality Management
Explanation:
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) invoked Stage-I of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) across Delhi-NCR in May 2026 after the AQI entered the 'Poor' category.
Important Facts:
• CAQM is the statutory body responsible for air quality management in the NCR and adjoining areas.
• GRAP has four stages based on AQI severity (Poor, Very Poor, Severe, Severe+).
• CAQM later revoked/lifted Stage-I restrictions once air quality improved.

Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of bases and alkalis

Q21. A student mixes a non-metallic oxide with a base and observes neutralization. What does this suggest about the properties of the substances involved?

(a) The non-metallic oxide acts as an acid
(b) The non-metallic oxide acts as a base
(c) Both substances are neutral
(d) The base acts as an acid

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The non-metallic oxide acts as an acid

Correct Answer:
Option 1 – The non-metallic oxide acts as an acid
Explanation:
Neutralization occurs when anacid reacts with a baseto form salt and water. Since the non-metallic oxide neutralizes the base, it must be behaving as an acid. Non-metallic oxides (e.g., CO₂, SO₂) are generallyacidic oxides, in contrast to metallic oxides which are generally basic.
Important Facts:
• Metallic oxides are basic in nature (e.g., Na₂O, CaO).
• Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature (e.g., CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃).
• Some oxides (like ZnO, Al₂O₃) are amphoteric — react with both acids and bases.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The non-metallic oxide acts as an acid

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Oxidation, reduction and redox reactions

Q22. A student observes the reaction between zinc and sulfur resulting in a compound. Which property of metals is demonstrated when zinc combines with a non-metal like sulfur?

(a) Zinc acts as an oxidizing agent
(b) Zinc acts as a solvent
(c) Zinc acts as a reducing agent
(d) Zinc acts as a catalyst

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Zinc acts as a reducing agent

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – Zinc acts as a reducing agent
Explanation:
When zinc reacts with sulfur to form zinc sulfide (Zn + S → ZnS), zincloses electronsand gets oxidized, while sulfur gains electrons and gets reduced. A substance that gets oxidized (loses electrons) while causing another substance to be reduced is called areducing agent. This demonstrates the general property of metals to lose electrons and act as reducing agents.
Important Facts:
• Metals generally act as reducing agents because they tend to lose electrons.
• Non-metals generally act as oxidizing agents because they tend to gain electrons.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Zinc acts as a reducing agent

Structure of Atom · Electronic configuration and shells

Q23. Which of the following electronic configurations is NOT possible for any neutral atom?

(a) 2, 8, 2
(b) 2, 8, 3
(c) 2, 8, 8
(d) 2, 10, 9

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2, 10, 9

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – 2, 10, 9
Explanation:
The maximum number of electrons a shell can hold is given by2n², where n is the shell number. For the second shell (n=2), the maximum capacity is 2(2)² = 8. The configuration "2, 10, 9" places 10 electrons in the second shell, which exceeds its maximum capacity of 8 — hence it is not possible for any real atom.
Important Facts:
• Shell 1 (K): max 2 electrons.
• Shell 2 (L): max 8 electrons.
• Shell 3 (M): max 18 electrons (but only 8 while it is the outermost shell, per the octet rule for common configurations).
Correct Answer: Option 4 – 2, 10, 9

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Valency and chemical formulae

Q24. An element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl₃ and an oxide with the formula X₂O₃. Based on this, what is the valency of element X?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – 3
Explanation:
In XCl₃, three chlorine atoms (each with valency 1) combine with one X atom, so X has a valency of 3. Similarly, in X₂O₃, oxygen has a valency of 2; balancing charges (2×valency of X = 3×2 = 6, so valency of X = 3) confirms the valency of X is3.
Important Facts:
• Valency is the combining capacity of an element, determined by the number of electrons gained, lost, or shared.
• Elements like Al (Aluminium) commonly show a valency of 3, forming AlCl₃ and Al₂O₃.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – 3

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Oxidation, reduction and redox reactions

Q25. Which observation best demonstrates that reduction has occurred in a chemical reaction?

(a) Hydrogen gas is evolved after metal reacts with acid.
(b) Oxygen is removed from a metal oxide during heating.
(c) Oxygen combines with a metal to form its oxide layer.
(d) Carbon dioxide is released after heating a carbonate salt.

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Oxygen is removed from a metal oxide during heating.

Correct Answer:
Option 2 – Oxygen is removed from a metal oxide during heating
Explanation:
Reductionis defined as the removal of oxygen (or gain of hydrogen/electrons) from a substance. When oxygen is removed from a metal oxide (e.g., CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O), the metal oxide is reduced to the metal. This is the clearest demonstration of reduction among the given options.
Important Facts:
• Oxidation = addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen/electrons.
• Reduction = removal of oxygen or addition of hydrogen/electrons.
• Redox reactions involve simultaneous oxidation and reduction.
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Oxygen is removed from a metal oxide during heating

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q26. Which of the following is a common example of a suspension found in daily life?

(a) Starch solution
(b) Milk
(c) Muddy water
(d) Salt water

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Muddy water

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – Muddy water
Explanation:
Asuspensionis a heterogeneous mixture in which solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended and are large enough to be visible and settle over time. Muddy water is a classic example, as mud/soil particles remain suspended and settle when left undisturbed.
Important Facts:
• Salt water and starch solution (colloid) are not true suspensions.
• Milk is a colloid (colloidal emulsion), not a suspension.
• Suspension particles scatter light (Tyndall effect) and can be separated by filtration.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Muddy water

Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q27. Unsaturated hydrocarbons usually undergo which of the following reaction mechanisms?

(a) Substitution
(b) Neutralization
(c) Combustion
(d) Addition

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Addition

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – Addition
Explanation:
Unsaturated hydrocarbons (alkenes and alkynes) contain double or triple carbon-carbon bonds. These bonds readily undergoaddition reactions, where atoms (such as H₂, Br₂, or X₂) add across the double/triple bond, converting it into a single bond.
Important Facts:
• Saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) mainly undergo substitution reactions.
• The bromine water test (decolorization) is used to detect unsaturation via addition reaction.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Addition

Biology (7)

Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Characteristics of living organisms and life processes

Q28. Why do single-celled organisms not require specialized organs for taking in food and exchanging gases?

(a) Because they have a transportation system
(b) Because they do not need food or oxygen
(c) Because they have complex body designs
(d) Because their entire surface is in contact with the environment

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Because their entire surface is in contact with the environment

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – Because their entire surface is in contact with the environment
Explanation:
Single-celled (unicellular) organisms are very small, so theirsurface area to volume ratiois large. Their entire body surface is in direct contact with the surrounding environment, which allows food, oxygen and waste to move in and out simply bydiffusionacross the cell membrane. Hence they do not need specialized organs like lungs or intestines.
Important Facts:
• As organisms become larger and multicellular, surface area to volume ratio decreases, requiring specialized organs for exchange and transport.
• Examples of unicellular organisms: Amoeba, Paramecium, bacteria.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Because their entire surface is in contact with the environment

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q29. DNA, which is also called __________ acid, is the hereditary material that carries genetic information in cells.

(a) Denatured
(b) Deoxyribonucleic
(c) Di-ribonucleic
(d) Decarbonated

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Deoxyribonucleic

Correct Answer:
Option 2 – Deoxyribonucleic
Explanation:
DNA stands forDeoxyribonucleic Acid. It is the hereditary material present in the nucleus (and some organelles) of cells that carries genetic information from one generation to the next.
Important Facts:
• DNA has a double helix structure, discovered by Watson and Crick (1953).
• RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) is the other nucleic acid, involved in protein synthesis.
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Deoxyribonucleic

Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q30. Identify the CORRECTLY matched cell–structure pair.

(a) Eukaryotic Cell – Membrane-bound Endoplasmic Reticulum
(b) Bacteria Cell – Well-defined Nucleus
(c) Prokaryotic Cell – Mitochondria
(d) Animal Cell – Cell Wall

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Eukaryotic Cell – Membrane-bound Endoplasmic Reticulum

Correct Answer:
Option 1 – Eukaryotic Cell – Membrane-bound Endoplasmic Reticulum
Explanation:
Onlyeukaryotic cellspossess membrane-bound organelles, including the endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and a well-defined (membrane-bound) nucleus. Bacteria are prokaryotic and lack a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria. Animal cells lack a cell wall (only plant cells, fungi and bacteria have cell walls).
Important Facts:
• Prokaryotic cells (e.g., bacteria) lack a nuclear membrane and membrane-bound organelles.
• Plant cells (not animal cells) have a rigid cell wall made of cellulose.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Eukaryotic Cell – Membrane-bound Endoplasmic Reticulum

Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Plant kingdom groups (Thallophyta to Angiosperms)

Q31. In an experiment, a group of plants fail to reproduce when water is withheld, even though they have vascular tissues. Which plant group do they most closely resemble?

(a) Pteridophyta
(b) Angiosperm
(c) Gymnosperm
(d) Bryophyta

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pteridophyta

Correct Answer:
Option 1 – Pteridophyta
Explanation:
Pteridophytes (e.g., ferns) have well-developed vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) but are seedless plants that still depend onwater for fertilization, since their motile male gametes must swim through a film of water to reach the egg. Without water, they cannot reproduce, matching the scenario described.
Important Facts:
• Bryophytes (mosses, liverworts) lack vascular tissue entirely and also need water for reproduction.
• Gymnosperms and Angiosperms are seed-bearing plants and do not require external water for fertilization (they use pollen tubes).
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Pteridophyta

Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q32. A city observes increased waste generation due to lifestyle changes and disposable packaging. What is the most effective solution to minimize environmental impact according to waste management principles?

(a) Promoting segregation and recycling of non-biodegradable waste
(b) Burning all waste to reduce volume
(c) Ignoring segregation and focusing only on biodegradable waste
(d) Increasing landfill space for all waste

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Promoting segregation and recycling of non-biodegradable waste

Correct Answer:
Option 1 – Promoting segregation and recycling of non-biodegradable waste
Explanation:
Effective waste management relies on the principle ofsegregationof waste at source (biodegradable vs. non-biodegradable) andrecyclingof non-biodegradable materials such as plastics, glass, and metals. This reduces the burden on landfills and minimizes environmental impact, unlike burning waste (causes air pollution) or unregulated landfilling.
Important Facts:
• The 3 R's of waste management: Reduce, Reuse, Recycle.
• Burning waste releases harmful pollutants and greenhouse gases.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Promoting segregation and recycling of non-biodegradable waste

Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q33. Which mechanism allows the sensitive plant to move its leaves immediately after being touched?

(a) Electrical impulses in muscle tissue
(b) Use of animal-like proteins
(c) Changing the amount of water in certain cells
(d) Specialized nervous tissue

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Changing the amount of water in certain cells

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – Changing the amount of water in certain cells
Explanation:
The sensitive plant (Mimosa pudica, touch-me-not) shows rapid leaf movement upon touch due to a sudden change in thewater content (turgor pressure)of specialized cells called the pulvinus, located at the base of the leaflets. This is not due to nerves or muscles, since plants lack a nervous system.
Important Facts:
• This response is an example of 'seismonasty' or 'thigmonasty' — a non-directional response to touch.
• Plants respond to stimuli via hormones and turgor changes, not nerve impulses.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Changing the amount of water in certain cells

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q34. Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).Assertion (A): Blood pressure increases temporarily during exercise.Reason (R): Exercise increases heart rate and the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false, but R is true
(d) A is true, but R is false

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer:
Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
During exercise, muscles demand more oxygen and nutrients, causing the heart to beat faster (increased heart rate) and pump a greater volume of blood per minute (increased cardiac output). This increased cardiac output directly causes a temporary rise in blood pressure. Hence, both statements are true, and R correctly explains why A occurs.
Important Facts:
• Blood pressure returns to normal levels once exercise stops and the body recovers.
• Cardiac output = Heart rate × Stroke volume.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Physics (10)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Convex lens - image formation and uses

Q35. A convex lens is used to form an image of an object. When the object is placed at a distance greater than twice of the focal length (2f) of the lens, what is the nature of the image formed?

(a) Virtual, upright and magnified
(b) Real, inverted, and magnified
(c) Real, inverted and the same size
(d) Real, inverted and diminished

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Real, inverted and diminished

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – Real, inverted and diminished
Explanation:
For a convex lens, when the object is placedbeyond 2F(at a distance greater than twice the focal length), the image forms between F and 2F on the other side of the lens. This image isreal, inverted, and smaller (diminished)than the object.
Important Facts:
• Object at 2F → Image at 2F, real, inverted, same size.
• Object between F and 2F → Image beyond 2F, real, inverted, magnified.
• Object at F → Image at infinity.
• Object between F and lens → Image virtual, erect, magnified.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Real, inverted and diminished

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q36. An electron enters a uniform magnetic field at right angles to it. If the magnetic field is directed into the page and the electron enters toward the right, what is the direction of the force acting on the electron?

(a) upward
(b) out of the page
(c) into the page
(d) downward

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) downward

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – downward
Explanation:
Using F = qv × B: the electron moves to the right and the field points into the page. For apositivecharge moving right with B into the page, v × B points upward (by the right-hand rule). Since the electron carries anegativecharge, the actual force is opposite to this, i.e., directeddownward.
Important Facts:
• The magnetic force on a charged particle is always perpendicular to both velocity and magnetic field.
• For a negative charge, the force direction is reversed compared to a positive charge under identical v and B.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – downward

Motion · Acceleration and retardation

Q37. Acceleration is defined as:

(a) Displacement per unit time
(b) Change in velocity per unit time
(c) Distance per unit time
(d) Change in displacement per unit time

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Change in velocity per unit time

Correct Answer:
Option 2 – Change in velocity per unit time
Explanation:
Acceleration is defined as therate of change of velocity with respect to time, i.e., a = Δv/Δt. It is a vector quantity, measured in m/s².
Important Facts:
• Velocity = displacement per unit time.
• Speed = distance per unit time.
• Acceleration can be positive (speeding up) or negative/retardation (slowing down).
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Change in velocity per unit time

Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q38. According to the Newton’s Third Law of Motion, what happens to a stationary rowing boat when a sailor jumps forward from it?

(a) The boat remains stationary since only the sailor moves.
(b) The boat moves unpredictably due to water resistance.
(c) The boat moves backward due to an equal and opposite reaction force
(d) The boat moves forward along with the sailor.

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The boat moves backward due to an equal and opposite reaction force

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – The boat moves backward due to an equal and opposite reaction force
Explanation:
According toNewton's Third Law, for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. When the sailor pushes against the boat to jump forward (action), the boat exerts an equal and opposite force on the sailor, pushing the boatbackward.
Important Facts:
• Newton's Third Law: forces always occur in action-reaction pairs acting on different bodies.
• This principle also explains recoil of a gun when a bullet is fired.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The boat moves backward due to an equal and opposite reaction force

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Power of accommodation, near point and far point

Q39. When a ciliary muscles contracts, the eye lens becomes __________.

(a) Thinner and the focal length increases
(b) Thicker and the focal length increases
(c) Thicker and the focal length decreases
(d) Thinner and the focal length decreases

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Thicker and the focal length decreases

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – Thicker and the focal length decreases
Explanation:
When the ciliary musclescontract, they relax the tension on the suspensory ligaments, allowing the eye lens to become more curved (thicker). A more curved (thicker) lens has a shorter focal length, which helps in focusing on nearby objects (accommodation for near vision).
Important Facts:
• When ciliary muscles relax, the lens becomes thinner/flatter, increasing focal length — used for distant vision.
• This adjusting ability of the eye lens is called 'accommodation'.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Thicker and the focal length decreases

Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q40. A worker has to raise a heavy load to a certain height. Four ideal machines are available. Their mechanical advantages are given below:Machine P: MA = 0.5Machine Q: MA = 0.8Machine R: MA = 2Machine S: MA = 4Assume all machines are frictionless and the load must be lifted through the same vertical height.Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Machines R and S require the same effort since the load is unchanged.
(b) Machine P requires the least effort because it has the smallest MA.
(c) Machine S performs less work than the other machines.
(d) Machine S requires the least effort but the effort moves through the greatest distance.

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Machine S requires the least effort but the effort moves through the greatest distance.

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – Machine S requires the least effort but the effort moves through the greatest distance.
Explanation:
For an ideal (frictionless) machine, Mechanical Advantage (MA) = Load/Effort, and also MA = Velocity Ratio = (distance moved by effort)/(distance moved by load). Since work input = work output for an ideal machine, a machine with thehighest MA (Machine S, MA=4)requires theleast effortto lift the same load, but because effort distance = MA × load distance, its effort must move through thegreatest distanceto do the same amount of work.
Important Facts:
• For an ideal machine, Work input = Work output (Effort × effort-distance = Load × load-distance).
• Higher MA → lower effort required but effort must move a proportionally greater distance.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Machine S requires the least effort but the effort moves through the greatest distance.

Work, Energy and Power · Kinetic energy

Q41. When an object of mass m is moving with a velocity v, its kinetic energy is K, what will be its kinetic energy if its velocity is doubled?

(a) 3K
(b) 2K
(c) K
(d) 4K

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 4K

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – 4K
Explanation:
Kinetic energy is given by KE = ½mv². If the velocity is doubled (v′ = 2v), the new kinetic energy becomes: KE′ = ½m(2v)² = ½m·4v² = 4(½mv²) =4K.
Important Facts:
• Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of velocity.
• Kinetic energy is a scalar quantity, measured in joules (J).
Correct Answer: Option 4 – 4K

Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q42. Which pair of changes will increase both the loudness and the pitch of a sound produced by a guitar string?

(a) Decreasing amplitude and increasing frequency
(b) Increasing amplitude and decreasing frequency
(c) Increasing amplitude and increasing frequency
(d) Decreasing amplitude and decreasing frequency

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increasing amplitude and increasing frequency

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – Increasing amplitude and increasing frequency
Explanation:
Loudnessof a sound depends on theamplitudeof the vibration — higher amplitude means louder sound.Pitchdepends on thefrequencyof vibration — higher frequency means higher pitch. To increase both loudness and pitch simultaneously, both amplitude and frequency must be increased.
Important Facts:
• Loudness is measured in decibels (dB).
• Pitch is related to frequency, measured in hertz (Hz).
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Increasing amplitude and increasing frequency

Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q43. Coal is formed from the remains of trees, ferns and other plants that lived _________ of years ago.

(a) millions
(b) thousands
(c) tens
(d) hundreds

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) millions

Correct Answer:
Option 1 – millions
Explanation:
Coal is a fossil fuel formed from the remains of trees, ferns, and other plants that were buried under layers of sedimentmillions of years agoand subjected to heat and pressure over a very long geological time scale (a process called carbonization).
Important Facts:
• Coal formation began roughly 300+ million years ago during the Carboniferous period.
• Petroleum and natural gas are also fossil fuels formed over millions of years from organic remains.
Correct Answer: Option 1 – millions

Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q44. A heater is rated at 1000 W, 250 V. If it is connected to a 250 V supply, what will be the current drawn by the heater and what is the resistance of the heater?

(a) 5.0 A, 50 Ω
(b) 3.5 A, 71.4 Ω
(c) 4 A, 62.5 Ω
(d) 2.5 A, 100 Ω

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 4 A, 62.5 Ω

Correct Answer:
Option 3 – 4 A, 62.5 Ω
Explanation:
Since the heater is connected to its rated voltage (250 V), it draws its rated power (1000 W). Current: I = P/V = 1000/250 =4 A. Resistance: R = V/I = 250/4 =62.5 Ω.
Important Facts:
• Power formula: P = VI = I²R = V²/R.
• Resistance can also be found directly as R = V²/P = 250²/1000 = 62.5 Ω.
Correct Answer: Option 3 – 4 A, 62.5 Ω

Geography (1)

Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Ocean currents

Q45. A biologist studies nutrient-rich waters that support large fish populations near continental coasts. Which physical mechanism naturally brings nutrients from deep to surface waters?

(a) Planetary winds at the equator
(b) Movement of surface water only
(c) Salinity stratification at depth
(d) Upwelling caused by ocean currents

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Upwelling caused by ocean currents

Correct Answer:
Option 4 – Upwelling caused by ocean currents
Explanation:
Upwellingis the physical oceanographic process in which cold, nutrient-rich water from the ocean depths rises to the surface, often driven by winds and ocean currents pushing surface water away from the coast. This process supports high productivity of phytoplankton, which in turn sustains large fish populations — a phenomenon well known near continental shelf/coastal fishing grounds.
Important Facts:
• Major upwelling zones (e.g., off Peru, California) are among the world's richest fishing grounds.
• Downwelling is the opposite process, where surface water sinks.
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Upwelling caused by ocean currents

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