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RRB Group D 2025-26 6 August 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 42 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 6 August 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Biology, Chemistry, Physics.

📚 42 questions🗓️ 6 August 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (18) · Economics (2) · Biology (7) · Chemistry (6) · Physics (9)

Current Affairs (18)

State News · State schemes and events

Q1. The Central Government approved ₹2,432 crore under the Amended BharatNet Programme (ABP) in May 2026 for broadband expansion in which state?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: Option 2 — Andhra Pradesh
₹2,432 crore under the Amended BharatNet Programme was approved forAndhra Pradesh→ Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q2. The 2026 Laureus World Sports Awards, celebrating achievements of the 2025 calendar year, were held in Madrid. Who was awarded the prestigious ‘World Sportsman of the Year’?

  1. (a) Carlos Alcaraz
  2. (b) Tadej Pogacar
  3. (c) Ousmane Dembélé
  4. (d) Lando Norris
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Carlos Alcaraz

Answer: Option 1 — Carlos Alcaraz
Carlos Alcarazwon the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year 2026 (Madrid) → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q3. In the April 2026 monetary policy announcement of the Reserve Bank of India, the repo rate was fixed at:

  1. (a) 6.00%
  2. (b) 5.25%
  3. (c) 5.00%
  4. (d) 4.50%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 5.25%

Answer: Option 2 — 5.25%
The RBI kept the repo rate at5.25%(April 2026) → Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q4. The National Science Centre, Delhi, celebrated World Earth Day 2026 on April 22 based on which official global theme?

  1. (a) Restore Our Earth
  2. (b) Our Power, Our Planet
  3. (c) Invest in Our Planet
  4. (d) Climate Action for Future Generations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Our Power, Our Planet

Answer: Option 2 — Our Power, Our Planet
Earth Day 2026 theme was'Our Power, Our Planet'→ Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q5. At the 98th Academy Awards held in March 2026, which cinematic work secured the premier Oscar for the Best Picture alongside the Best Director?

  1. (a) Sinners
  2. (b) Sentimental Value
  3. (c) One Battle After Another
  4. (d) Hamnet
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) One Battle After Another

Answer: Option 3 — One Battle After Another
'One Battle After Another'won Best Picture and Best Director at the 98th Oscars → Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
State News · State schemes and events

Q6. In May, 2026, the Vigilance and Anti-Corruption Bureau (VACB) launched "Project Zero", a major initiative aimed at curbing bribery and corruption in public administration. This initiative was launched in which state?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kerala

Answer: Option 3 — Kerala
Kerala's VACBlaunched 'Project Zero' against bribery (May 2026) → Option 3.

Q7. What was a notable feature of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025?

  1. (a) It abolished the Central Waqf Council.
  2. (b) It restricted Waqf property management to religious leaders.
  3. (c) It mandated the representation of Muslim women on Waqf Boards.
  4. (d) It allowed non-Muslims to donate to Waqf properties.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It mandated the representation of Muslim women on Waqf Boards.

Answer: Option 3 — It mandated representation of Muslim women on Waqf Boards
The Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 mandatesMuslim women's representationon Waqf Boards → Option 3.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q8. Which of the following groups did the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) specifically identify as being most at risk due to heat waves in India, according to the recent directive issued in April 2026?

  1. (a) Economically weaker sections, outdoor workers, and the homeless
  2. (b) Government officials and administrators
  3. (c) Urban residents in metropolitan cities
  4. (d) Schoolchildren in private institutions
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Economically weaker sections, outdoor workers, and the homeless

Answer: Option 1 — Economically weaker sections, outdoor workers, and the homeless
The NHRC flagged these groups as most at risk from heat waves → Option 1.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q9. Param Shakti Supercomputing facility, launched at Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras in January 2026, is powered by which indigenous supercomputing system?

  1. (a) PARAM BRAHMA
  2. (b) PARAM SHIVAY
  3. (c) PARAM PRAVEGA
  4. (d) PARAM RUDRA
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) PARAM RUDRA

Answer: Option 4 — PARAM RUDRA
Param Shakti at IIT Madras is powered by the indigenousPARAM RUDRAsystem → Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q10. What was the name of the National AI Literacy programme launched by IndiaAI under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in collaboration with AISECT in February 2026 to expand access to foundational AI education in semi-urban and underserved regions?

  1. (a) Digital AI Bharat
  2. (b) Yuva AI for All
  3. (c) IndiaAI Connect
  4. (d) AI Shiksha Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Yuva AI for All

Answer: Option 2 — Yuva AI for All
IndiaAI (with AISECT) launched the'Yuva AI for All'literacy programme → Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q11. The $2.6 billion uranium supply agreement signed between India and Canada in March 2026 was primarily aimed at strengthening which energy sector of India?

  1. (a) Solar Energy Sector
  2. (b) Wind Energy Sector
  3. (c) Hydroelectric Energy Sector
  4. (d) Nuclear Energy Sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nuclear Energy Sector

Answer: Option 4 — Nuclear Energy Sector
The India–Canada uranium deal strengthens India'snuclear energysector → Option 4.
State News · State elections and results

Q12. Which of the following film stars was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu in May 2026?

  1. (a) C. Joseph Vijay
  2. (b) Kamal Haasan
  3. (c) Vijay Sethupathi
  4. (d) Ajith Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) C. Joseph Vijay

Answer: Option 1 — C. Joseph Vijay
C. Joseph Vijaywas sworn in as Tamil Nadu CM (May 2026) → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Q13. The Animal-inclusive Disaster Risk Reduction (AiDRR) Guidelines released in April 2026 were primarily intended to strengthen which aspect of community resilience?

  1. (a) Livelihood sustainability mechanisms
  2. (b) Disaster response coordination mechanisms
  3. (c) Community early warning mechanisms
  4. (d) Emergency shelter administration mechanisms
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Livelihood sustainability mechanisms

Answer: Option 1 — Livelihood sustainability mechanisms
The AiDRR Guidelines strengthenlivelihood sustainabilityby protecting animals in disasters → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q14. Which organisation constituted a committee in March 2026 to study issues related to Invasive Alien Species in India?

  1. (a) National Green Tribunal
  2. (b) Botanical Survey of India
  3. (c) National Biodiversity Authority
  4. (d) Zoological Survey of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Biodiversity Authority

Answer: Option 3 — National Biodiversity Authority
TheNational Biodiversity Authorityset up the invasive-alien-species committee (2026) → Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Q15. In the landmark decision Deeksha Amrutesh v. State of Karnataka (2026), the Supreme Court issued a historic pan-India mandate concerning gender representation. What did the Court rule?

  1. (a) 33% mandatory reservation for women in lower state judiciary
  2. (b) 25% quota for women members in high court collegium offices
  3. (c) 30% mandatory women representation in all Bar Associations
  4. (d) 50% reservation for female advocates in public prosecutor panels
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30% mandatory women representation in all Bar Associations

Answer: Option 3 — 30% mandatory women representation in all Bar Associations
The Supreme Court's Deeksha Amrutesh ruling mandated30% women in Bar Associations→ Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q16. India was ranked 102nd in the Global Hunger Index 2025. Which hunger severity classification was assigned to India based on its overall score?

  1. (a) Alarming hunger category
  2. (b) Serious hunger category
  3. (c) Moderate hunger category
  4. (d) Low hunger category
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Serious hunger category

Answer: Option 2 — Serious hunger category
India (GHI 2025) was placed in the'Serious'hunger category → Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q17. In May 2026, Dev Kumar Meena and Kuldeep Kumar jointly established a national record in which athletics event?

  1. (a) Men's high jump field
  2. (b) Men's triple jump field
  3. (c) Men's long jump field
  4. (d) Men's pole vault field
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Men's pole vault field

Answer: Option 4 — Men's pole vault field
Dev Kumar Meena and Kuldeep Kumar set a national record inmen's pole vault→ Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q18. How many medals did India secure at the Asian Weightlifting Championship held in May 2026 at Gujarat?

  1. (a) 17
  2. (b) 8
  3. (c) 14
  4. (d) 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 10

Answer: Option 4 — 10
India won10 medalsat the Asian Weightlifting Championship (May 2026, Gujarat) → Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Economics (2)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q19. Which feature of PMAY-G was highlighted in the Union Budget 2026–27 as an indicator of women-centric rural housing empowerment?

  1. (a) Allotment of houses in women’s names or joint spousal ownership
  2. (b) Allotment of houses only through women-led self-help groups
  3. (c) Allotment of houses only to women rural wage workers
  4. (d) Allotment of houses through women-exclusive housing boards
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Allotment of houses in women’s names or joint spousal ownership

Answer: Option 1 — Allotment of houses in women's names or joint spousal ownership
PMAY-G empowers women throughhouse ownership in their name/joint ownership→ Option 1.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q20. Which initiative was announced in the Union Budget 2026–27 to shift sports development in India towards a long-term, mission-mode approach over the next decade?

  1. (a) National Sports Development Fund
  2. (b) Target Olympic Podium Scheme Plus
  3. (c) Fit India Global Mission
  4. (d) Khelo India Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Khelo India Mission

Answer: Option 4 — Khelo India Mission
TheKhelo India Mission(Budget 2026–27) shifts sports to a mission-mode approach → Option 4.

Biology (7)

Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q21. In an ecosystem, what is the role played by decomposers?

  1. (a) They synthesize food by photosynthesis
  2. (b) They transfer energy directly to carnivores
  3. (c) They break down dead organic matter
  4. (d) They regulate the water level in soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They break down dead organic matter

Answer: Option 3 — They break down dead organic matter
Decomposers (bacteria, fungi)break down dead organic matter, recycling nutrients → Option 3.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Characteristics of living organisms and life processes

Q22. Which of the following correctly explains why life processes such as nutrition, respiration, transport and excretion are essential for living organisms?

  1. (a) They are required only for growth and reproduction.
  2. (b) They occur only in plants to sustain photosynthesis.
  3. (c) They are independent processes that do not affect each other.
  4. (d) They maintain homeostasis and provide energy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They maintain homeostasis and provide energy.

Answer: Option 4 — They maintain homeostasis and provide energy
Life processes togethermaintain homeostasis and supply energyfor survival → Option 4.
Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q23. Which is the first part of a neuron to receive information?

  1. (a) Cell body
  2. (b) Dendrite
  3. (c) Axon terminal
  4. (d) Axon
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dendrite

Answer: Option 2 — Dendrite
Thedendriteis the first part of a neuron to receive information → Option 2.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Plant kingdom groups (Thallophyta to Angiosperms)

Q24. A green, thread-like plant in freshwater pond lacks roots, stems, and leaves but photosynthesizes. Based on this information, which group does it belong to?

  1. (a) Thallophyta
  2. (b) Gymnosperm
  3. (c) Bryophyta
  4. (d) Pteridophyta
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thallophyta

Answer: Option 1 — Thallophyta
A plant lacking roots/stems/leaves but photosynthesising (like algae) belongs toThallophyta→ Option 1.
Tissues · Muscular tissue

Q25. The long, cylindrical cells that form muscular tissues are specifically known as __________.

  1. (a) Neurons
  2. (b) Sieve tubes
  3. (c) Cartilage discs
  4. (d) Muscle fibres
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Muscle fibres

Answer: Option 4 — Muscle fibres
Long cylindrical cells of muscular tissue are calledmuscle fibres→ Option 4.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Basis and hierarchy of classification

Q26. After a genetic study, two bacteria previously grouped together are found to have highly divergent DNA. According to modern classification, which of the following is the most likely consequence?

  1. (a) They may be reclassified into separate domains or groups
  2. (b) Their similarity is confirmed by traditional traits
  3. (c) They remain in the same traditional group
  4. (d) They are merged as one species
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They may be reclassified into separate domains or groups

Answer: Option 1 — They may be reclassified into separate domains or groups
Highly divergent DNA leads toreclassification into separate groups/domains→ Option 1.
Tissues · Muscular tissue

Q27. Smooth muscles are responsible for all the following actions, EXCEPT:

  1. (a) Moving food through the digestive tract.
  2. (b) Functioning automatically without conscious thought.
  3. (c) Regular movements in the intestines.
  4. (d) Lifting a heavy bucket of water.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Lifting a heavy bucket of water.

Answer: Option 4 — Lifting a heavy bucket of water
Lifting a heavy load usesvoluntary skeletal muscle, not smooth muscle → Option 4.

Chemistry (6)

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q28. When 16 g of oxygen is combined with 2 g of hydrogen, 18 g water is formed. This observation is in accordance with:

  1. (a) Gay-Lussac’s law
  2. (b) law of multiple proportions
  3. (c) Avagadro’s Law
  4. (d) law of conservation of mass
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) law of conservation of mass

Answer: Option 4 — Law of conservation of mass
16 g + 2 g = 18 g (mass conserved) — this illustrates thelaw of conservation of mass→ Option 4.
Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Combustion and flame

Q29. Which of the following carbon compounds is most likely to burn with a non-luminous flame?

  1. (a) Camphor
  2. (b) Ethanol
  3. (c) Kerosene
  4. (d) Charcoal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ethanol

Answer: Option 2 — Ethanol
Ethanol(a saturated, oxygen-rich compound) burns with a cleannon-luminousblue flame → Option 2.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q30. Which of the following correctly explains why an acid shows acidic behaviour only in aqueous solution?

  1. (a) Water prevents the ionisation of acids.
  2. (b) Hydrogen ions (H⁺) are produced only when the acid dissolves in water.
  3. (c) An acid loses H⁺ ions even in the absence of water.
  4. (d) The acid molecules remain completely ionised in the dry state.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hydrogen ions (H⁺) are produced only when the acid dissolves in water.

Answer: Option 2 — H⁺ ions are produced only when the acid dissolves in water
An acid shows acidic behaviour only in water because itreleases H⁺ ions on dissolving→ Option 2.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Indicators (natural, synthetic, olfactory)

Q31. Clove oil is used as an olfactory indicator. If its smell persists in solution X but fades in solution Y, what can be inferred about the nature of the two solutions?

  1. (a) Both solutions X and Y are basic.
  2. (b) Solution X is basic and solution Y is acidic.
  3. (c) Both solutions X and Y are acidic.
  4. (d) Solution X is acidic and solution Y is basic.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Solution X is acidic and solution Y is basic.

Answer: Option 4 — Solution X is acidic and Y is basic
An olfactory indicator keeps its smell inacidand loses it inbase. Smell persists in X (acidic), fades in Y (basic) → Option 4.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q32. Which of the following is a property of a colloidal solution?

  1. (a) Particles are smaller than true solutions
  2. (b) Particles can be seen with the naked eye
  3. (c) Particles do not settle on standing
  4. (d) Components can be separated by filtration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Particles do not settle on standing

Answer: Option 3 — Particles do not settle on standing
In acolloid, particles are small enough that theydo not settleon standing → Option 3.
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q33. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.Statement I: All metals in the reactivity series can displace hydrogen from dilute acids to form hydrogen gas.Statement II: Metals below hydrogen in the reactivity series do not produce hydrogen gas with dilute acids.

  1. (a) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  2. (b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  3. (c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
  4. (d) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Answer: Option 3 — Statement I false, Statement II true
Metalsbelow hydrogen(Cu, Ag) do NOT displace hydrogen from acids, so I is false; II is true → Option 3.

Physics (9)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Convex lens - image formation and uses

Q34. During an experiment, a student places a candle beyond twice the focal length of a convex lens and records the image position and nature. Which of the following scenarios could result from this setup?

  1. (a) An inverted, real, and diminished image forms between focus and twice the focal length
  2. (b) A virtual, erect, and larger image appears on the same side as the object
  3. (c) An erect, real, and larger image forms beyond twice the focal length
  4. (d) A real, inverted, and same-sized image forms at twice the focal length
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) An inverted, real, and diminished image forms between focus and twice the focal length

Answer: Option 1 — Inverted, real, diminished image between F and 2F
Object beyond 2F of a convex lens ⟹real, inverted, diminishedimage between F and 2F → Option 1.
Work, Energy and Power · Potential energy

Q35. Which of the following physical quantities affect gravitational potential energy?

  1. (a) Speed and distance
  2. (b) Temperature and colour
  3. (c) Mass and height
  4. (d) Volume and shape
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mass and height

Answer: Option 3 — Mass and height
Gravitational PE = mgh, so it depends onmass and height→ Option 3.
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q36. A car moves at a constant speed of 20 m/s for 5 seconds. What is the total distance travelled by the car during this time?

  1. (a) 25 meters
  2. (b) 100 meters
  3. (c) 400 meters
  4. (d) 4 meters
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 100 meters

Answer: Option 2 — 100 meters
Distance = speed × time = 20 × 5 =100 m→ Option 2.

Q37. If two bodies of equal mass are acted upon by unequal forces for the same time, then the body on which the larger force acts will have _________.

  1. (a) less change in momentum
  2. (b) no change in momentum
  3. (c) equal change in momentum
  4. (d) more change in momentum
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) more change in momentum

Answer: Option 4 — more change in momentum
Impulse = F × t = change in momentum. For equal time, thelarger forcegives agreater change in momentum→ Option 4.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q38. An athlete of mass 60 kg runs at 5 m/s. What is the kinetic energy gained compared to standing still?

  1. (a) 375 J
  2. (b) 1500 J
  3. (c) 750 J
  4. (d) 300 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 750 J

Answer: Option 3 — 750 J
KE = ½mv² = ½ × 60 × 5² = ½ × 60 × 25 =750 J→ Option 3.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Domestic electric circuits, fuse and earthing

Q39. Electric fuses are used in household circuits primarily to ___________.

  1. (a) Interrupt the circuit if excessive current flows
  2. (b) Reduce voltage in the circuit
  3. (c) Store electrical energy for later use
  4. (d) Supply extra electricity when needed
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Interrupt the circuit if excessive current flows

Answer: Option 1 — Interrupt the circuit if excessive current flows
A fuse melts andbreaks the circuitwhen current is excessive → Option 1.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Scattering of light (blue sky, red sunset, Tyndall effect)

Q40. How does the size of atmospheric particles affect the scattering of sunlight?

  1. (a) Smaller particles scatter shorter wavelengths more efficiently
  2. (b) Medium particles scatter only green light efficiently
  3. (c) Irregular particles scatter only yellow light more
  4. (d) Larger particles scatter only red light effectively
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Smaller particles scatter shorter wavelengths more efficiently

Answer: Option 1 — Smaller particles scatter shorter wavelengths more efficiently
Rayleigh scattering:small particles scatter short (blue) wavelengths more→ Option 1.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q41. A student places an object 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. If the image formed is real, what is the magnification produced by the mirror?

  1. (a) + 1
  2. (b) −2
  3. (c) −1
  4. (d) + 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) −2

Answer: Option 2 — −2
Concave mirror: 1/v + 1/u = 1/f, u = −15, f = −10. 1/v = −1/10 + 1/15 = (−3 + 2)/30 = −1/30 ⟹ v = −30.
m = −v/u = −(−30)/(−15) = −2 → Option 2.
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q42. A student sets up two circuits: Circuit X uses a thin, long copper wire, and Circuit Y uses a thick, short copper wire, both connected to identical batteries. Which circuit will have a higher resistance, and why?

  1. (a) Circuit Y because the resistance decreases with length and increases with cross-sectional area
  2. (b) Circuit X because the resistance decreases with length and increases with cross-sectional area
  3. (c) Circuit X because the resistance increases with length and decreases with cross-sectional area
  4. (d) Circuit Y because the resistance increases with length and decreases with cross-sectional area
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Circuit X because the resistance increases with length and decreases with cross-sectional area

Answer: Option 3 — Circuit X (resistance ↑ with length, ↓ with area)
R = ρL/A. The thin, long wire (Circuit X) hashigher resistance→ Option 3.
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