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RRB Group D 2025-26 6 August 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 6 August 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Current Affairs, Static GK, Biology, Chemistry, Physics.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 6 August 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Economics (2) · Current Affairs (16) · Static GK (1) · Biology (8) · Chemistry (8) · Physics (9) · Geography (1)

Economics (2)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q1. Under the Khelo India Mission announced in the Union Budget 2026–27, which of the following was listed as a key feature?

  1. (a) Compulsory foreign coaching for all district-level athletes
  2. (b) Exclusive private-league scholarships for senior athletes
  3. (c) Integrated talent pathway through multi-level training centres
  4. (d) Pension-linked incentives for retired national coaches
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Integrated talent pathway through multi-level training centres

Answer: Option 3 — Integrated talent pathway through multi-level training centres
The Khelo India Mission (Budget 2026–27) features anintegrated talent pathway→ Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q2. Which major mental healthcare institution was announced in the Union Budget 2026–27 to address the absence of a national-level mental health institute in North India?

  1. (a) NIMHANS-2
  2. (b) National Psychiatry Mission
  3. (c) Rashtriya Manasik Swasthya Kendra
  4. (d) AIIMS Mental Health Centre
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) NIMHANS-2

Answer: Option 1 — NIMHANS-2
The Budget 2026–27 announcedNIMHANS-2for North India → Option 1.

Current Affairs (16)

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q3. In May 2026, India successfully test-launched the short-range ballistic missile "Agni-1" from which facility under the aegis of the Strategic Forces Command?

  1. (a) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram
  2. (b) Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur, Odisha
  3. (c) Pokhran Test Range, Rajasthan
  4. (d) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur, Odisha

Answer: Option 2 — Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur, Odisha
Agni-1 was test-launched fromITR, Chandipur→ Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Q4. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 is linked with which major governance reform agenda?

  1. (a) Privatization of public sector enterprises
  2. (b) Trust-based ease of business governance
  3. (c) Space mission reforms
  4. (d) Expansion of direct tax collection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Trust-based ease of business governance

Answer: Option 2 — Trust-based ease of business governance
The Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 supportstrust-based, ease-of-businessgovernance (decriminalisation) → Option 2.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q5. According to the 2025 Kantar BrandZ report, which financial services giant has reclaimed its crown as India's most valued brand?

  1. (a) State Bank of India
  2. (b) HDFC Bank
  3. (c) ICICI Bank
  4. (d) Axis Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) HDFC Bank

Answer: Option 2 — HDFC Bank
Per the 2025 Kantar BrandZ report,HDFC Bankis India's most valued brand → Option 2. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q6. Who was sworn in as the fifteenth Vice President of India and ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in 2025?

  1. (a) Jagdeep Dhankhar
  2. (b) Ramesh Bais
  3. (c) C.P. Radhakrishnan
  4. (d) Acharya Devvrat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) C.P. Radhakrishnan

Answer: Option 3 — C.P. Radhakrishnan
C.P. Radhakrishnanwas sworn in as the 15th Vice President of India (2025) → Option 3.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q7. Which of the following individuals became a Full-time Member of NITI Aayog during 2026?

  1. (a) Dr. Joram Aniya
  2. (b) Gobardhan Das
  3. (c) Rajiv Gauba
  4. (d) Suman K. Bery
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dr. Joram Aniya

Answer: Option 1 — Dr. Joram Aniya
Dr. Joram Aniyabecame a full-time NITI Aayog member (2026) → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q8. Which institutional body's Frontier Tech Hub unveiled the groundbreaking agricultural roadmap titled “Reimagining Agriculture: A Roadmap for Frontier Technology Led Transformation” in 2025?

  1. (a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
  2. (b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  3. (c) NITI Aayog
  4. (d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) NITI Aayog

Answer: Option 3 — NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog's Frontier Tech Hub released the agriculture roadmap → Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q9. Which of the following players made the highest individual score in the 2026 Men'sT20 World Cup final?

  1. (a) Tilak Varma
  2. (b) Ishan Kishan
  3. (c) Sanju Samson
  4. (d) Abhishek Sharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sanju Samson

Answer: Option 3 — Sanju Samson
Sanju Samsonmade the highest individual score in the 2026 T20 World Cup final → Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. Which city was selected to host the 2026 Pickleball World Cup, marking the tournament's first edition to be held in Asia?

  1. (a) Da Nang
  2. (b) Tokyo
  3. (c) Beijing
  4. (d) Singapore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Da Nang

Answer: Option 1 — Da Nang
Da Nang (Vietnam)hosts the 2026 Pickleball World Cup → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q11. During the COP30 negotiations in Belém, India strongly advocated for developing countries by highlighting the urgent need for enhanced _____.

  1. (a) Industrial production cuts
  2. (b) Cross-border trade curbs
  3. (c) Commercial bank deregulation
  4. (d) Climate finance support
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Climate finance support

Answer: Option 4 — Climate finance support
At COP30 (Belém), India pushed for enhancedclimate financefor developing nations → Option 4.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q12. According to the Padma Awards 2026, which of the following awardees is linked with Literature and Education from West Bengal?

  1. (a) Asok Kumar Haldar
  2. (b) Dr. Anjali Menon
  3. (c) Prakash Gupta
  4. (d) Meena Raju
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Asok Kumar Haldar

Answer: Option 1 — Asok Kumar Haldar
Per Padma Awards 2026,Asok Kumar Haldar(Literature & Education, West Bengal) → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Environment and Climate - Current · Disasters and extreme weather events - current

Q13. In 2026, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) reviewed and expanded an early warning system for Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) after a pilot project in which Himalayan state?

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Sikkim
  3. (c) Uttarakhand
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: Option 1 — Himachal Pradesh
The GLOF early-warning pilot expanded fromHimachal Pradesh→ Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q14. On January 9, 2026, Defence Research and Development Laboratory successfully conducted a long-duration ground test of an Actively Cooled Full-Scale Scramjet Combustor. This technology is primarily associated with the development of which type of propulsion systems?

  1. (a) Cryogenic rocket propulsion system
  2. (b) Turbofan propulsion system
  3. (c) Nuclear-powered propulsion system
  4. (d) Hypersonic air-breathing propulsion system
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hypersonic air-breathing propulsion system

Answer: Option 4 — Hypersonic air-breathing propulsion system
The scramjet combustor test supportshypersonic air-breathing propulsion→ Option 4.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q15. Which team won the Indian Super League football championship title, 2026?

  1. (a) Mumbai City FC
  2. (b) Mohun Bagan
  3. (c) East Bengal
  4. (d) Odisha FC
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) East Bengal

Answer: Option 3 — East Bengal
Per the paper,East Bengalwon the 2026 ISL title → Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*
State News · State firsts

Q16. Which of these states launched India's first deep tech start-up policy in January 2026?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu

Answer: Option 1 — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadulaunched India's first deep-tech start-up policy (Jan 2026) → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q17. On April 28, 2026, the Meeting of Defence Ministers of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Member States was held under the chairmanship of which country?

  1. (a) Republic of India
  2. (b) Republic of Uzbekistan
  3. (c) Russian Federation
  4. (d) Kyrgyz Republic
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kyrgyz Republic

Answer: Option 4 — Kyrgyz Republic
The SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting (Apr 2026) was chaired by theKyrgyz Republic→ Option 4. *(Verify against the official key.)*
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q18. As of February 2026, how many projects were approved for research and development in 6G technology?

  1. (a) 104 projects
  2. (b) 126 projects
  3. (c) 78 projects
  4. (d) 92 projects
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 104 projects

Answer: Option 1 — 104 projects
As of Feb 2026,1046G R&D projects were approved → Option 1. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Static GK (1)

Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q19. Who among the following is the author of the book titled ‘The Director’?

  1. (a) George Orwell
  2. (b) Haruki Murakami
  3. (c) Daniel Kehlmann
  4. (d) Orhan Pamuk
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Daniel Kehlmann

Answer: Option 3 — Daniel Kehlmann
'The Director' is authored byDaniel Kehlmann→ Option 3. *(Verify against the official key.)*

Biology (8)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Vaccines and vaccination

Q20. The Government of India emphasized HPV vaccination during 2025–26 primarily to reduce the burden of which disease among women?

  1. (a) Cervical cancer among women
  2. (b) Diabetes among urban patients
  3. (c) Malaria among pregnant mothers
  4. (d) Tuberculosis among rural women
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cervical cancer among women

Answer: Option 1 — Cervical cancer among women
HPV vaccination targetscervical cancer→ Option 1.
Reproduction · Reproduction in animals

Q21. A pond contains a large cluster of jelly-like eggs laid by a female frog. What is the most likely mode of fertilisation in frogs?

  1. (a) External fertilisation in water
  2. (b) Asexual budding of the jelly-like eggs
  3. (c) In-vitro fertilisation by scientists
  4. (d) Internal fertilisation inside pond plants
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) External fertilisation in water

Answer: Option 1 — External fertilisation in water
Frogs lay jelly-covered eggs in water and fertilise themexternally→ Option 1.
Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q22. After the dendrite receives information, what is the next structure the impulse moves to?

  1. (a) Cell body
  2. (b) Axon end
  3. (c) Dendrite
  4. (d) Axon
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cell body

Answer: Option 1 — Cell body
Impulse path: dendrite →cell body→ axon → axon terminal → Option 1.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Basis and hierarchy of classification

Q23. Researchers studying genetic similarity in hornbill species are most likely to use which characteristic for classification?

  1. (a) DNA sequence comparison
  2. (b) Nesting site location
  3. (c) Diet composition
  4. (d) Beak shape and size
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) DNA sequence comparison

Answer: Option 1 — DNA sequence comparison
Genetic similarity is best assessed byDNA sequence comparison→ Option 1.
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q24. Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissues?

  1. (a) Secretion
  2. (b) Formation of red blood cells
  3. (c) Absorption
  4. (d) Protection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Formation of red blood cells

Answer: Option 2 — Formation of red blood cells
RBCs are formed in bone marrow, NOT by epithelial tissue. Epithelium does secretion, absorption, protection → Option 2.
Ecology and Environment · Trophic levels and the 10 percent law

Q25. Why are food chains generally made of only 3-4 trophic levels?

  1. (a) Energy availability to next trophic level is very low
  2. (b) Producer population is low
  3. (c) Decomposers terminate the food chain
  4. (d) Top carnivores cannot be eaten by any organism
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Energy availability to next trophic level is very low

Answer: Option 1 — Energy availability to next trophic level is very low
Only ~10% energy passes to the next level, so chains are limited to3–4 trophic levels→ Option 1.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q26. Which statement CORRECTLY describes systolic and diastolic pressure in the human circulatory system?

  1. (a) Systole and diastole are both relaxations
  2. (b) Systole and diastole are both contractions
  3. (c) Systole is relaxation, diastole is contraction
  4. (d) Systole is contraction,diastole is relaxation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Systole is contraction,diastole is relaxation

Answer: Option 4 — Systole is contraction, diastole is relaxation
Systole = contraction,diastole = relaxationof the heart → Option 4.

Q27. What is the process in which organisms take in oxygen and use it to break down food for cellular activities called?

  1. (a) Photosynthesis
  2. (b) Transpiration
  3. (c) Fermentation
  4. (d) Respiration
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Respiration

Answer: Option 4 — Respiration
Taking in oxygen to break down food for energy isrespiration→ Option 4.

Chemistry (8)

Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q28. Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:Statement I: When methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight, hydrogen atoms in methane are gradually replaced by chlorine atoms.Statement II: The reaction between methane and chlorine is called an addition reaction.

  1. (a) Only Statement II is correct.
  2. (b) Only Statement I is correct.
  3. (c) Both statements are correct.
  4. (d) Both statements are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only Statement I is correct.

Answer: Option 2 — Only Statement I is correct
Methane + chlorine (sunlight) is asubstitutionreaction — H atoms are replaced by Cl (I ✓). It is NOT an addition reaction (II ✗) → Option 2.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Displacement reactions

Q29. A student dips an iron nail in a blue solution of copper sulphate. After 30 minutes, the blue colour fades and a reddish-brown deposit forms on the nail. The reddish-brown deposit is due to _______.

  1. (a) Fe converting to copper oxide
  2. (b) copper sulphate converting to iron oxide (rust)
  3. (c) copper sulphate converting to metallic copper
  4. (d) copper sulphate converting to Cu⁺
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) copper sulphate converting to metallic copper

Answer: Option 3 — copper sulphate converting to metallic copper
Fe displaces Cu: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu. The reddish-brown deposit ismetallic copper→ Option 3.
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q30. Which of the following statements best explains why elements with the same atomic number exhibit identical chemical properties, even if their mass numbers are different?

  1. (a) Because they are found in the same physical state
  2. (b) Because they have similar atomic mass
  3. (c) Because they contain the same number of neutrons
  4. (d) Because they have the same number of protons and electrons
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Because they have the same number of protons and electrons

Answer: Option 4 — Same number of protons and electrons
Isotopes (same atomic number) have thesame protons and electrons, so identical chemical properties → Option 4.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of bases and alkalis

Q31. Why do basic solutions conduct electricity when dissolved in water?

  1. (a) Hydroxide ions act as charge carriers
  2. (b) Heat energy produces electric current
  3. (c) Bases release free electrons
  4. (d) Bases dissolve completely without ions
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hydroxide ions act as charge carriers

Answer: Option 1 — Hydroxide ions act as charge carriers
Basic solutions conduct becauseOH⁻ ions(and cations) carry charge → Option 1.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q32. Consider the reaction:Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)Which statement best justifies classifying this reaction as a double displacement reaction?

  1. (a) Exchange of ions produces two new compounds
  2. (b) Reactants combine forming only one product
  3. (c) Heat causes compound to break into products
  4. (d) One metal displaces another from compound
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Exchange of ions produces two new compounds

Answer: Option 1 — Exchange of ions produces two new compounds
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl: ions areexchangedto form two new compounds — a double displacement reaction → Option 1.
Structure of Atom · Electronic configuration and shells

Q33. According to the Bohr–Bury rules, what is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the L shell of an atom?

  1. (a) Two electrons only
  2. (b) Sixteen electrons only
  3. (c) Four electrons only
  4. (d) Eight electrons only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Eight electrons only

Answer: Option 4 — Eight electrons only
The L shell (n = 2) holds a maximum of 2n² =8 electrons→ Option 4.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q34. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a suspension?

  1. (a) It is a homogeneous mixture with solute dissolved uniformly.
  2. (b) The particles are too small to settle down on standing.
  3. (c) Suspension shows Tyndall effect but is transparent.
  4. (d) Particles can be seen with the naked eye and settle on standing.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Particles can be seen with the naked eye and settle on standing.

Answer: Option 4 — Particles can be seen with the naked eye and settle on standing
Asuspensionhas large particles that are visible and settle on standing → Option 4.
Carbon and its Compounds · Soaps and detergents

Q35. How does saponification relate to soap formation?

  1. (a) Saponification makes ethanol for cleaning
  2. (b) Saponification is unrelated to soap production
  3. (c) Saponification produces only esters used in flavoring
  4. (d) Saponification produces sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids, which are soaps
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Saponification produces sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids, which are soaps

Answer: Option 4 — Produces sodium/potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids (soaps)
Saponification of fats with alkali yieldssoap(Na/K salts of fatty acids) → Option 4.

Physics (9)

Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q36. Which statement best describes a straight line sloping upwards on a distance-time graph for an object moving with uniform speed?

  1. (a) The object is stationary at all times
  2. (b) The object moves with varying speed throughout
  3. (c) The object returns to its starting point repeatedly
  4. (d) The object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time

Answer: Option 4 — Covers equal distances in equal intervals of time
A straight upward-sloping distance–time line meansuniform speed— equal distance in equal time → Option 4.
Sound and Waves · Applications of ultrasound and SONAR

Q37. Why are ultrasound waves used for cleaning delicate objects such as jewelry?

  1. (a) They heat the jewelry to remove stains
  2. (b) They dissolve dirt using special chemicals
  3. (c) They attract dirt particles with magnetism
  4. (d) They cause tiny vibrations that dislodge dirt
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They cause tiny vibrations that dislodge dirt

Answer: Option 4 — They cause tiny vibrations that dislodge dirt
Ultrasonic cleaning creates vibrating cavitation bubbles thatdislodge dirtfrom delicate objects → Option 4.
Work, Energy and Power · Work and its sign

Q38. If the displacement of an object doubles while the constant force remains unchanged, the area under the force–displacement graph _________.

  1. (a) becomes half of the original area
  2. (b) becomes twice the original area
  3. (c) remains unchanged
  4. (d) becomes four times the original area
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) becomes twice the original area

Answer: Option 2 — becomes twice the original area
Area under a force–displacement graph = F × d. Doubling d (F constant)doublesthe area → Option 2.
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q39. Which statement best describes the velocity of an object undergoing uniform circular motion?

  1. (a) The object’s speed increases and decreases as it moves around the circle.
  2. (b) The object moves with a changing velocity along a straight path.
  3. (c) The velocity remains unchanged in both magnitude and direction throughout motion.
  4. (d) The magnitude of velocity remains constant, but its direction continuously changes around the circle.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The magnitude of velocity remains constant, but its direction continuously changes around the circle.

Answer: Option 4 — Magnitude constant, direction continuously changes
In uniform circular motion,speed (magnitude) is constantbut thedirection of velocity changes→ Option 4.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Laws of refraction and Snell's law

Q40. Which of the following best explains why a pencil partially immersed in water appears bent at the surface?

  1. (a) Light reflects off the pencil and back to your eyes
  2. (b) The pencil absorbs light and emits it at a different angle
  3. (c) Light changes direction as it moves from air to water
  4. (d) Water makes the pencil look thicker
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Light changes direction as it moves from air to water

Answer: Option 3 — Light changes direction as it moves from air to water
The pencil looks bent due torefractionat the air–water boundary → Option 3.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Power of accommodation, near point and far point

Q41. What is the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length called?

  1. (a) Refraction
  2. (b) Myopia
  3. (c) Persistence of vision
  4. (d) Power of Accommodation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Power of Accommodation

Answer: Option 4 — Power of Accommodation
The eye lens's ability to change focal length is thepower of accommodation→ Option 4.
Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q42. A manufacturer wants to design heating elements that generate more heat when a current passes through. Which material property should be maximized for this purpose?

  1. (a) Conductivity should be maximized to increase heat generation for a given current.
  2. (b) Resistivity should be maximized to increase heat generation for a given current.
  3. (c) A material with zero resistivity should be used for maximum heat generation.
  4. (d) Resistivity should be minimized to increase heat generation for a given current.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Resistivity should be maximized to increase heat generation for a given current.

Answer: Option 2 — Resistivity should be maximized
Heat H = I²R, so ahigh-resistivitymaterial generates more heat for a given current → Option 2.
Work, Energy and Power · Power and its units (watt, horsepower)

Q43. A machine develops a power of 10 W. What does this imply?

  1. (a) It does 10 J of work every minute
  2. (b) It stores 10 J of energy
  3. (c) It applies a force of 10 N
  4. (d) It does 10 J of work every second
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It does 10 J of work every second

Answer: Option 4 — It does 10 J of work every second
Power 10 W = 10 joules per second → Option 4.
Electricity · Resistors in series and parallel

Q44. A circuit consists of three resistors of 4 ohms, 6 ohms, and 12 ohms connected in parallel. Which statement is correct about the total resistance?

  1. (a) The total resistance is equal to the largest individual resistance
  2. (b) The total resistance is less than the smallest individual resistance
  3. (c) The total resistance equals the sum of all resistances
  4. (d) The total resistance is equal to one of the individual resistances
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The total resistance is less than the smallest individual resistance

Answer: Option 2 — The total resistance is less than the smallest individual resistance
In parallel, total resistance is alwaysless than the smallestresistor → Option 2.

Geography (1)

Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q45. Venus is hotter than Mercury, even though Mercury is closer to the Sun. Based on Earth’s atmospheric science, which is the most plausible explanation?

  1. (a) Venus receives more sunlight due to its size
  2. (b) Mercury lacks any significant atmospheric layers
  3. (c) Venus's atmosphere creates a strong greenhouse effect
  4. (d) Mercury’s proximity to the Sun creates rapid heat loss
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Venus's atmosphere creates a strong greenhouse effect

Answer: Option 3 — Venus's atmosphere creates a strong greenhouse effect
Venus's thick CO₂ atmosphere causes an intensegreenhouse effect, making it hotter than Mercury → Option 3.
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