RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 17 December 2024 Shift 1 GK Questions Asked – Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

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Subjects: Chemistry (9) · Biology (10) · Modern History (1) · Polity (3) · Physics (9) · Static GK (3) · Economics (1) · Current Affairs (5) · Geography (2)

Chemistry (9)

Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q1. Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for the versatile nature of carbon?

(a) Carbon has tetravalency
(b) Carbon can form single, double, and triple bonds
(c) Carbon exhibits catenation
(d) Carbon can form ionic bonds with itself

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Carbon can form ionic bonds with itself

Answer: Option 4 — Carbon can form ionic bonds with itself
Two carbon atoms have the same electronegativity, so neither can pull an electron away from the other.
They share electrons — every C–C bond is covalent, never ionic.
Revision note — Why carbon forms so many compounds
• Tetravalency: carbon has 4 valence electrons (2, 4) and forms 4 covalent bonds.
• Catenation: carbon links with other carbon atoms into long chains, branches and rings; the C–C bond is strong and stable.
• Carbon forms single (C–C), double (C=C) and triple (C≡C) bonds.
• Carbon cannot easily gain 4 (C⁴⁻) or lose 4 (C⁴⁺) electrons — so it shares them.
• Its small size lets the nucleus hold the shared electrons tightly, giving strong bonds.
• Silicon also shows catenation, but its chains (up to about 7–8 atoms) are reactive and short.
Also asked from this topic: the properties that let carbon form so many compounds (catenation and tetravalency); why carbon forms a large number of compounds (the C–C bond is very strong and stable).

Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q2. 20 ml of NaOH is neutralised by 10 ml of HNO_(3). How much NaOH will be required to neutralise 15 ml of HNO_(3)?

(a) 20 ml
(b) 30 ml
(c) 40 ml
(d) 25 ml

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 30 ml

Rule — neutralisation of the same acid and base.
For complete neutralisation, moles of H^(+) from the acid = moles of OH^(−) from the base.
With the same two solutions, the volume of NaOH needed is directly proportional to the volume of HNO_(3).
Find the ratio from the given data.
20 ml NaOH ↔ 10 ml HNO_(3)
NaOH needed per ml of HNO_(3) = 20 ÷ 10 = 2 ml
Apply it to 15 ml HNO_(3).
NaOH = 15 × 2 = 30 ml
Answer: 30 ml
Revision note — Neutralisation
• Acid + base → salt + water; here HNO_(3) + NaOH → NaNO_(3) + H_(2)O.
• In solution, H^(+) of the acid and OH^(−) of the base combine to form water.
• Neutralisation is a type of double displacement reaction and is exothermic.
• HNO_(3) and HCl are monobasic acids; NaOH is a monoacidic base — they react 1 : 1 by moles.
• Everyday uses: antacid (milk of magnesia) for acidity, baking soda on a bee sting, lime for acidic soil.
Also asked from this topic: the products of an acid–base reaction (salt and water); the type of reaction HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H_(2)O (double displacement); the ions that form water (H^(+) and OH^(−)).
Half the acid needs half the base — the ratio 2 : 1 fixed in the first line carries straight to 15 ml.

Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q3. Which of the following best describes a common industrial use of washing soda?

(a) Cement production
(b) Fertiliser manufacturing
(c) Glass manufacturing
(d) Vinegar production

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Glass manufacturing

Answer: Option 3 — Glass manufacturing
Washing soda (sodium carbonate, Na_(2)CO_(3)·10H_(2)O) is a major raw material of the glass industry, together with sand and limestone.
It is also used in the soap and paper industries.
Revision note — Four common salts (Class 10 Acids, Bases and Salts)
• Washing soda — Na_(2)CO_(3)·10H_(2)O; made by recrystallising sodium carbonate.
• Uses of washing soda: glass, soap, paper, making borax, cleaning, removing permanent hardness.
• Baking soda — NaHCO_(3); uses: baking powder, antacid, soda-acid fire extinguisher.
• Bleaching powder — CaOCl_(2); made by passing chlorine over dry slaked lime; uses: bleaching, disinfecting drinking water, oxidising agent.
• Plaster of Paris — CaSO_(4)·½H_(2)O; made by heating gypsum at 373 K; uses: plaster for fractures, toys, decoration.
• Na_(2)CO_(3) solution is basic (salt of a strong base and a weak acid).
Do not mix these up
• Washing soda vs baking soda — washing soda is Na_(2)CO_(3)·10H_(2)O (cleaning, glass); baking soda is NaHCO_(3) (cooking, antacid).
Also asked from this topic: the industries that use sodium carbonate (glass, soap and paper); why baking soda suits fire extinguishers (releases CO_(2) easily with acid); a use of bleaching powder (oxidising agent).

Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q4. A piece of zinc is placed in three different solutions: lead nitrate, aluminium sulphate and silver nitrate. Which solution(s) will zinc be able to displace the metal from its solution?

(a) Lead nitrate and silver nitrate
(b) Lead nitrate and aluminium sulphate
(c) Only silver nitrate
(d) Aluminium sulphate and silver nitrate

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lead nitrate and silver nitrate

Answer: Option 1 — Lead nitrate and silver nitrate
A metal displaces only a less reactive metal from its salt solution.
Zinc is above lead and silver but below aluminium in the reactivity series.
Revision note — Reactivity series and displacement
• Order (NCERT): K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > H > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au.
• Zn + Pb(NO_(3))_(2) → Zn(NO_(3))_(2) + Pb; Zn + 2AgNO_(3) → Zn(NO_(3))_(2) + 2Ag.
• Zn + Al_(2)(SO_(4))_(3) → no reaction — aluminium is more reactive than zinc.
• Fe + CuSO_(4) → FeSO_(4) + Cu — the blue solution turns light green.
• Metals above hydrogen release H_(2) from dilute acids; Cu, Ag, Au do not.
• Cu + 2AgNO_(3) → Cu(NO_(3))_(2) + 2Ag — the solution turns blue.
Also asked from this topic: what happens when a zinc strip is dipped in iron(II) sulphate (zinc displaces iron); why lead does not react with iron(II) sulphate (lead is less reactive than iron).

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Decomposition reactions (thermal, electrolytic, photolytic)

Q5. The balanced equation which shows the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is:

(a) 2H_(2)O_(2) → 2H_(2)O + O_(2)
(b) H_(2)O_(2) → H_(2)O + O_(2)
(c) H_(2)O_(2) → 2H_(2)O + O_(2)
(d) 2HO_(2) → 2HO + O_(2)

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2H_(2)O_(2) → 2H_(2)O + O_(2)

Answer: Option 1 — 2H_(2)O_(2) → 2H_(2)O + O_(2)
Hydrogen peroxide breaks down into water and oxygen.
Atoms check: left 4 H, 4 O; right 4 H, 2 + 2 = 4 O — balanced.
Revision note — Decomposition reactions
• One compound breaks into two or more simpler substances (AB → A + B).
• Thermal: CaCO_(3) → CaO + CO_(2) on heating; 2Pb(NO_(3))_(2) → 2PbO + 4NO_(2) + O_(2) (brown fumes).
• Electrolytic: 2H_(2)O → 2H_(2) + O_(2) — hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 2 : 1 by volume.
• Photolytic: 2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl_(2) in sunlight — used in black-and-white photography.
• H_(2)O_(2) decomposes slowly on its own; MnO_(2) acts as a catalyst to speed it up.
• A balanced equation has equal numbers of each atom on both sides — the law of conservation of mass.
Do not mix these up
• Option 2 keeps 2 O on the left but 3 O on the right; option 3 puts 2 H on the left and 4 H on the right.
Also asked from this topic: the H_(2) : O_(2) ratio in electrolysis of water (2 : 1); silver salts used in black-and-white photography (AgCl, AgBr).

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Writing and balancing chemical equations

Q6. Which of the following statements is true for a balanced chemical equation?

(a) The total number of moles is the same on both sides.
(b) The total number of molecules is the same on both sides.
(c) The total mass of molecules is unequal on both sides.
(d) The total number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides.

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The total number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides.

Answer: Option 4 — The total number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides.
Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a reaction (law of conservation of mass).
So a balanced equation has the same number of atoms of each element on both sides.
Revision note — Balancing chemical equations
• Example: 2H_(2) + O_(2) → 2H_(2)O — 3 molecules become 2 molecules, yet H (4 = 4) and O (2 = 2) match.
• So the number of molecules or moles need not be equal on both sides.
• The total mass of reactants equals the total mass of products.
• Balance by changing only the coefficients, never the subscripts of a formula.
• Method taught in NCERT: hit-and-trial, starting with the compound that has the most atoms.
• Law of conservation of mass — given by Antoine Lavoisier (1789).
Also asked from this topic: who gave the law of conservation of mass (Antoine Lavoisier); the reaction that violates it (2Mg + O_(2) → MgO); what stoichiometric calculations need (a balanced equation).

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q7. What is formed when sodium sulfate reacts with barium chloride in a double displacement reaction?

(a) Sodium chloride and barium sulfate
(b) Sodium hydroxide and barium chloride
(c) Sodium chloride and barium hydroxide
(d) Sodium sulfate and barium chloride

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sodium chloride and barium sulfate

Answer: Option 1 — Sodium chloride and barium sulfate
In double displacement, the two compounds swap ions.
Na_(2)SO_(4)(aq) + BaCl_(2)(aq) → BaSO_(4)(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
Revision note — Double displacement reactions
• Ba^(2+) pairs with SO_(4)^(2−); Na^(+) pairs with Cl^(−).
• Barium sulphate is insoluble — it separates as a white precipitate.
• A reaction that gives an insoluble solid is called a precipitation reaction.
• Another NCERT example: lead nitrate + potassium iodide → yellow precipitate of lead iodide.
• Neutralisation (acid + base → salt + water) is also a double displacement reaction.
• In single displacement, a more reactive metal pushes out a less reactive one — e.g. Fe + CuSO_(4) → FeSO_(4) + Cu.
Also asked from this topic: the physical state of BaSO_(4) in this reaction ((s), a solid precipitate); the evidence that the reaction has occurred (formation of a precipitate).

Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q8. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to a solution individually. The results obtained have been listed as follows.A can displace B from its solutionB can displace D from its solutionC can displace D from its solutionC can displace A from its solutionWhich is the most reactive metal?

(a) C
(b) B
(c) D
(d) A

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) C

Answer: Option 1 — C
A metal can displace another from its salt solution only if it is more reactive.
The clues give C > A, A > B and B > D, so the order is C > A > B > D and C is the most reactive.
Revision note — Reactivity series and displacement
• Reactivity series: K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > (H) > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au.
• A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution — a displacement reaction.
• Fe + CuSO_(4) → FeSO_(4) + Cu: the blue solution turns pale green and reddish-brown copper coats the iron nail.
• Metals above hydrogen displace H_(2) from dilute acids; Cu, Ag, Au (below hydrogen) do not.
• K and Na are so reactive they are stored under kerosene; gold and platinum occur free (native) in nature.
Also asked from this topic: the most reactive of P, Q, R, S when each displaces the next (P); why lead cannot displace iron (lead is less reactive).

Carbon and its Compounds · Homologous series

Q9. Which of the following statements is true about the physical properties of compounds in a homologous series?

(a) Their boiling points decrease as the number of carbon atoms increase.
(b) They have a regular change in melting and boiling points.
(c) Their physical properties do not change.
(d) They have identical melting and boiling points.

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They have a regular change in melting and boiling points.

Answer: Option 2 — They have a regular change in melting and boiling points.
Each member differs from the next by –CH_(2)– (14 u), so molecular mass rises step by step.
Physical properties such as melting and boiling points therefore change gradually (gradation).
Revision note — Homologous series
• A homologous series has the same functional group and the same general formula.
• Successive members differ by –CH_(2)–, i.e. 14 u in molecular mass.
• Chemical properties are similar (same functional group); physical properties show gradation.
• Boiling point rises with the number of carbon atoms: methane < ethane < propane.
• Alkanes C_(n)H_(2n+2) (CH_(4), C_(2)H_(6), C_(3)H_(8)); alkenes C_(n)H_(2n); alkynes C_(n)H_(2n−2).
Do not mix these up
• Chemical vs physical properties — chemical properties stay similar; physical properties change regularly.
Also asked from this topic: compounds differing by –CH_(2)– (homologous series); what stays similar in the series (chemical properties); what rises as an alkane chain grows (boiling point).

Biology (10)

Heredity and Evolution · Mendel's laws and experiments

Q10. Suppose a gardener wants to plant pea which should be of the dwarf varieties. What do you suggest for the choice of the parent plant seeds by the gardener?

(a) All seeds should be of tall varieties.
(b) All seeds should be of dwarf varieties.
(c) All seeds should be of mixed varieties.
(d) Any kind of seed can be used.

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) All seeds should be of dwarf varieties.

Answer: Option 2 — All seeds should be of dwarf varieties.
Dwarfness is a recessive trait, so a dwarf plant is always tt.
tt × tt gives only tt — every offspring is dwarf.
A tall parent could carry T and give tall plants.
Revision note — Mendel's monohybrid cross
• Mendel worked on the garden pea (Pisum sativum); tall (T) is dominant over dwarf (t).
• TT and Tt are both tall; only tt is dwarf.
• Tall (TT) × dwarf (tt) → F_(1) all tall (Tt).
• F_(1) selfed (Tt × Tt) → F_(2) phenotype 3 : 1 (tall : dwarf), genotype 1 : 2 : 1 (TT : Tt : tt).
• A recessive trait shows only when both copies are recessive — hence a dwarf plant breeds true.
• The dwarf trait reappears in F_(2) — the factor is not lost, only hidden in F_(1).
Do not mix these up
• Genotype vs phenotype — genotype is the gene pair (Tt); phenotype is what we see (tall).
Also asked from this topic: the allele combination that gives a short pea plant (tt); the type of trait tallness is in pea plants (dominant).

Reproduction · Pollination and fertilisation in plants

Q11. Pollen grains are transferred to which part of pistil?

(a) Style
(b) Ovary
(c) Ovule
(d) Stigma

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Stigma

Answer: Option 4 — Stigma
In pollination, pollen grains move from the anther to the stigma, the sticky tip of the pistil that receives them.
Revision note — Pistil and pollination
• Pistil (carpel) = stigma (receives pollen) + style (tube) + ovary (holds ovules).
• Stamen = anther (makes pollen) + filament.
• Self-pollination: pollen reaches the stigma of the same flower; cross-pollination: of another flower.
• Agents of cross-pollination: wind, water, insects, birds.
• On the stigma the pollen grain grows a pollen tube down the style to the ovule.
• Fertilisation = fusion of the male gamete with the egg inside the ovule.
Do not mix these up
• Pollination vs fertilisation — pollination is transfer of pollen; fertilisation is fusion of gametes.
Also asked from this topic: Pollination : transfer of pollen :: Fertilisation : ? (fusion of gametes); the female reproductive part of a flower (gynoecium or pistil).

Reproduction · Flower structure and sexual reproduction in plants

Q12. What is the role of the ovary in the process of fertilisation in plants?

(a) To provide nutrients to the pollen grains
(b) To store the male gametes
(c) To produce the egg cell
(d) To produce pollen

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To produce the egg cell

Answer: Option 3 — To produce the egg cell
The ovary holds the ovules, and each ovule carries the egg cell — the female gamete.
The male gamete from the pollen tube fuses with this egg in fertilisation.
Revision note — Parts of the pistil and what they become
• Anther makes pollen grains (male gametes); the ovary holds ovules with the egg.
• Pollen tube grows through the style into the ovule — it is guided chemically (chemotropism).
• Zygote → embryo; ovule → seed; ovary → fruit; ovary wall → pericarp.
• Petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma usually wither and fall after fertilisation.
• A unisexual flower (papaya, watermelon) has either stamens or pistil; a bisexual one (hibiscus, mustard) has both.
Do not mix these up
• Ovary vs ovule — the ovary becomes the fruit; the ovule inside it becomes the seed.
Also asked from this topic: Pollination : transfer of pollen :: Fertilisation : ? (fusion of gametes); the tropism shown by a pollen tube growing towards the ovule (chemotropism).

Heredity and Evolution · Heredity and variation

Q13. The first fundamental factor for evolution is:

(a) competition among individuals
(b) healthy offsprings
(c) genetic variation
(d) cell division for growth

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) genetic variation

Answer: Option 3 — genetic variation
Evolution can act only when individuals of a population differ from one another.
Those heritable differences (genetic variations) are the raw material on which natural selection works, so variation is the first and basic factor.
Revision note — Variation and evolution
• Variation arises mainly during reproduction — small errors in DNA copying and the mixing of genes in sexual reproduction.
• Sexual reproduction produces more variation than asexual reproduction.
• Variations that help survival are favoured by natural selection (Charles Darwin, On the Origin of Species, 1859).
• Genetic drift — chance changes in gene frequency, most marked in small populations.
• Accumulation of variations over many generations leads to speciation (new species).
• A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence; it is the ultimate source of new variation.
• Traits acquired during life (e.g. a body builder's muscles) are not inherited — they cause no evolution.
Do not mix these up
• Variation vs natural selection — variation supplies the differences; natural selection chooses among them.
Also asked from this topic: the process by which small heritable differences over generations produce new life forms (evolution); a change in the DNA sequence that alters genotype and phenotype (mutation).

Reproduction · Seed, fruit and germination

Q14. Seeds that are dispersed by animals often:

(a) have hooks or edible flesh
(b) can float easily in water
(c) are very small and light weight
(d) have wings or parachutes

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) have hooks or edible flesh

Answer: Option 1 — have hooks or edible flesh
Animals carry seeds in two ways: hooked or spiny fruits cling to their fur, and fleshy fruits are eaten and the seeds passed out.
Revision note — Dispersal of seeds
• Why disperse: avoids competition with the parent plant for light, water and minerals; lets the plant reach new places.
• Animals: hooks or spines — Xanthium, Urena; fleshy edible fruits — mango, guava, berries.
• Wind: small, light, winged or hairy seeds — drumstick, maple, madar (aak), sunflower, cotton.
• Water: light, spongy or fibrous coats that float — coconut, lotus.
• Explosion: fruits burst and fling seeds — castor, balsam.
• After fertilisation the ovary becomes the fruit and the ovules become seeds.
Wings or parachutes mean wind, floating means water — hooks or flesh mean animals.

Reproduction · Asexual reproduction (fission, budding, fragmentation, spores)

Q15. In which process multicellular organisms break into smaller pieces upon maturation?

(a) Fragmentation
(b) Sporulation
(c) Fission
(d) Regeneration

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Fragmentation

Answer: Option 1 — Fragmentation
In fragmentation, a simple multicellular organism breaks into smaller pieces on maturing.
Each piece grows into a new individual — e.g. the filamentous alga Spirogyra.
Revision note — Modes of asexual reproduction
• Fission — a single-celled organism divides; binary fission in Amoeba, Paramecium; multiple fission in Plasmodium (malaria parasite).
• Budding — a bud grows out and detaches; Hydra and yeast.
• Fragmentation — mature body breaks into pieces on its own; Spirogyra.
• Regeneration — a cut or broken part regrows into a full organism; Planaria, Hydra. It needs specialised cells.
• Spore formation — spores inside sporangia; Rhizopus (bread mould).
• Vegetative propagation — new plants from root, stem or leaf; Bryophyllum leaves, potato tubers.
Do not mix these up
• Fragmentation vs regeneration — fragmentation happens naturally on maturation; regeneration follows an accidental cut or injury.
Also asked from this topic: what Amoeba, yeast and Hydra reproducing from a single parent shows about asexual reproduction (it occurs without fusion of gametes).

Heredity and Evolution · Mendel's laws and experiments

Q16. Mendel had selected garden pea for certain favourable reasons. Which of the following is NOT a reason for his choice required for his experiments?

(a) They produce many offsprings.
(b) They have easily observable traits.
(c) They can be self-pollinated and cross-pollinated.
(d) They have a long generation time.

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They have a long generation time.

Answer: Option 4 — They have a long generation time.
Garden pea has a short life cycle, so Mendel could study many generations quickly.
A long generation time would be a disadvantage, not a reason.
Revision note — Mendel and the garden pea
• Gregor Johann Mendel — the Father of Genetics; worked on garden pea (Pisum sativum) from 1856 to 1863.
• Reasons for the pea: short life cycle, many seeds (offspring), clear contrasting traits, and flowers that can be self-pollinated as well as cross-pollinated.
• He studied 7 pairs of contrasting traits — e.g. tall/dwarf plant, round/wrinkled seed, yellow/green seed.
• Monohybrid cross (tall × dwarf): F2 phenotype ratio 3 : 1, genotype ratio 1 : 2 : 1.
• Dihybrid cross: F2 phenotype ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
• Mendel's laws: Dominance, Segregation (purity of gametes), Independent Assortment.
Also asked from this topic: the allele combination that gives short pea plants (tt); the type of trait tallness is (dominant); the law of separation of alleles (Law of Segregation).

Heredity and Evolution · Genetic terms (dominant, recessive, genotype, phenotype)

Q17. What are the two versions of a gene controlling a trait called?

(a) Alleles
(b) Chromosomes
(c) Mutations
(d) Proteins

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alleles

Answer: Option 1 — Alleles
The two alternative forms of a gene that control one trait are its alleles.
In pea, T (tall) and t (dwarf) are alleles of the gene for plant height.
Revision note — Basic genetic terms
• Gene — a segment of DNA that codes for a protein; the unit of heredity.
• Homozygous — both alleles the same (TT or tt); heterozygous — different (Tt).
• Dominant allele shows even in a single copy (T); recessive shows only in a pair (tt).
• Genotype — the allele make-up (Tt); phenotype — the visible trait (tall).
• Alleles sit at the same position (locus) on a pair of homologous chromosomes.
• Humans have 46 chromosomes — 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
Do not mix these up
• Allele vs gene — the gene is the trait's instruction; alleles are its versions (T and t).
Also asked from this topic: the allele combination that gives short pea plants (tt); the law explaining separation of alleles during gamete formation (Law of Segregation).

Reproduction · Vegetative propagation

Q18. In the process of vegetative propagation, which part of the plant is used in grafting?

(a) Stem
(b) Seed
(c) Leaf
(d) Root

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Stem

Answer: Option 1 — Stem
In grafting, a stem piece of one plant (scion) is joined to the rooted stem of another (stock).
The two grow together as one plant.
Revision note — Vegetative propagation
• New plants from vegetative parts — root, stem or leaf — without seeds.
• Natural: potato (stem tuber), ginger (rhizome), Bryophyllum (buds on leaf margins), sweet potato (root).
• Artificial: cutting (rose, sugarcane), layering (jasmine), grafting (mango, apple, citrus).
• In grafting, the scion gives the fruit quality; the stock gives the root system.
• Advantages: plants genetically identical to the parent, fruit earlier, and plants that have lost the ability to make seeds — banana, rose, jasmine — can be grown.
Do not mix these up
• Scion vs stock — scion is the upper shoot put on top; stock is the lower, rooted part.
Also asked from this topic: why farmers prefer cutting, grafting and tissue culture (genetically identical plants); the false claim about vegetative propagation (new plants grow from seed-bearing structures).

Reproduction · Reproductive health and contraception

Q19. How do hormonal contraceptives prevent pregnancy?

(a) By changing the hormonal balance to prevent egg release
(b) By increasing sperm production
(c) By blocking the fallopian tubes
(d) By creating a physical barrier

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) By changing the hormonal balance to prevent egg release

Answer: Option 1 — By changing the hormonal balance to prevent egg release
Hormonal contraceptives such as oral pills change the body's hormonal balance so that eggs are not released from the ovary.
With no egg, fertilisation cannot take place.
Revision note — Methods of contraception
• Barrier methods — condom, diaphragm, cervical cap stop sperm reaching the egg; the condom also protects against STDs.
• Hormonal (chemical) methods — oral pills; they may have side effects.
• Intra-uterine devices (IUCD) — loop or Copper-T placed in the uterus; they may cause irritation.
• Surgical methods — vasectomy blocks the vas deferens (male); tubectomy blocks the fallopian tubes (female).
• Surgery prevents pregnancy but gives no protection against STDs such as gonorrhoea, syphilis, warts and HIV-AIDS.
Do not mix these up
• Hormonal vs barrier — pills stop egg release; condoms and diaphragms physically block sperm.
Also asked from this topic: the limitation of surgical contraception (it does not prevent sexually transmitted infections); the technique used when a woman's oviducts are blocked (in vitro fertilisation).

Modern History (1)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Anti-caste and depressed-class movements

Q20. What was the name of the movement started in 1927 in Maharashtra, led by Dr. BR Ambedkar to access public resources such as water bodies, temples and schools?

(a) Bombay Peasants Revolt
(b) Kheda Satyagraha
(c) Shahada Movement
(d) Mahad Satyagraha

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mahad Satyagraha

Answer: Option 4 — Mahad Satyagraha
In March 1927, Dr B.R. Ambedkar led Dalits to drink water from the public Chavdar tank at Mahad (Raigad district, Maharashtra).
It asserted their right to use public water sources and other public places.
Revision note — Dr B.R. Ambedkar and the anti-caste movement
• Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha — founded 1924, Bombay, for education and welfare of the depressed classes.
• Mahad Satyagraha — 20 March 1927; on 25 December 1927 Ambedkar publicly burnt the Manusmriti at Mahad.
• Kalaram Temple entry satyagraha — Nashik, 1930.
• Depressed Classes Association — 1930.
• Poona Pact — 1932 with Gandhi: reserved seats for depressed classes in place of separate electorates.
• Newspapers: Mooknayak (1920), Bahishkrit Bharat (1927); book Annihilation of Caste (1936).
Do not mix these up
• Mahad Satyagraha vs Vaikom Satyagraha — Mahad (1927, Maharashtra) was for water, led by Ambedkar; Vaikom (1924–25, Kerala) was for use of temple roads, linked to T.K. Madhavan and E.V. Ramasamy Periyar.
Also asked from this topic: the leader of the Mahad Satyagraha (B.R. Ambedkar); the founder of the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha (B.R. Ambedkar, 1924); the year of Ambedkar's Depressed Classes Association (1930).

Polity (3)

Union Executive · President - election and qualifications

Q21. Which of the following is NOT an essential qualification for being elected as the President?

(a) Highly educated
(b) Citizen of India
(c) Qualified for election as a member of the House of the People
(d) Completion of 35 years

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Highly educated

Answer: Option 1 — Highly educated
Article 58 lays down the qualifications for the office of President.
It prescribes no educational qualification at all.
Revision note — Qualifications and election of the President
• Article 58: must be a citizen of India, have completed 35 years and be qualified for election to the Lok Sabha.
• Must not hold any office of profit under the Union, a state or a local authority.
• Article 54: elected by an electoral college — elected MPs of both Houses + elected MLAs of states, Delhi and Puducherry.
• Nomination needs 50 proposers and 50 seconders; security deposit ₹15,000.
• Article 56: term of 5 years; eligible for re-election (Article 57).
• Article 71: disputes about the election are decided by the Supreme Court.
Do not mix these up
• President vs Vice-President — both need 35 years, but the President must be qualified for the Lok Sabha and the Vice-President for the Rajya Sabha.
Also asked from this topic: the minimum age for a Presidential candidate (35 years); the only President elected as an independent (V. V. Giri); who settles Presidential election disputes (Supreme Court, Art. 71).

Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q22. The concepts no double jeopardy, no self incrimination and no ex post facto are mentioned under _____ of the Indian Constitution.

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 23
(d) Article 20

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 20

Answer: Option 4 — Article 20
Article 20 gives protection in respect of conviction for offences.
It covers ex post facto laws, double jeopardy and self-incrimination.
Revision note — Article 20 and its neighbours
• Article 20(1) — no punishment under an ex post facto (retrospective) criminal law.
• Article 20(2) — no one prosecuted and punished twice for the same offence (double jeopardy).
• Article 20(3) — no accused person can be compelled to be a witness against himself (self-incrimination).
• Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency (44th Amendment, 1978).
• Article 21 — protection of life and personal liberty; Article 21A — free and compulsory education (6–14 years), added by the 86th Amendment, 2002.
• Article 22 — protection against arrest and detention; Article 23 — bans human trafficking and forced labour (begar).
Also asked from this topic: the Amendment that added Article 21A (86th Amendment Act); the two kinds of detention Article 22 covers (punitive and preventive).

Union Executive · Attorney General and Solicitor General

Q23. Who among the following was the first attorney General of Independent India?

(a) Soli Sorabjee
(b) SV Gupta
(c) Niren de
(d) MC Setalvad

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) MC Setalvad

Answer: Option 4 — MC Setalvad
M.C. (Motilal Chimanlal) Setalvad was the first Attorney General of independent India, serving from 1950 to 1963.
He remains the longest-serving Attorney General.
Revision note — Attorney General of India
• Article 76 — the highest law officer of India, appointed by the President.
• Qualification: must be qualified to be a Supreme Court judge.
• No fixed tenure; holds office during the pleasure of the President.
• Has the right of audience in all courts of India — Article 76(3).
• May speak in Parliament but has no vote — Article 88; is not a member of the Cabinet.
• Other Attorneys General: Niren De (1968–77), Soli Sorabjee (1989–90, 1998–2004); R. Venkataramani has held the office since October 2022.
Do not mix these up
• Attorney General vs Advocate General — the Union's law officer (Article 76) vs a State's law officer (Article 165, appointed by the Governor).
Also asked from this topic: the Article for the Attorney General (Article 76); who appoints him (the President); his tenure (not fixed by the Constitution); the highest law officer of a state (Advocate General).

Physics (9)

Electricity · Electric power and electrical energy

Q24. Equipment such as geysers and air conditioners, compared to light bulbs and fans, require:

(a) higher power
(b) less voltage
(c) less power
(d) higher voltage

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) higher power

Answer: Option 1 — higher power
Every appliance in a house gets the same 220 V because household wiring is in parallel.
Geysers and ACs have a far higher power rating (about 1,500–2,000 W) than a bulb (about 60 W) or a fan (about 75 W).
Since P = VI, at the same voltage they draw a larger current.
Revision note — Power of household appliances
• P = V × I; unit watt (W); 1 kW = 1000 W.
• Indian household supply: 220 V AC, 50 Hz.
• High-power appliances (geyser, AC, heater, iron) run on the 15 A circuit; bulbs and fans on the 5 A circuit.
• Heating appliances use the heating effect of current (H = I²Rt) — hence the large current.
• Energy used = power × time; 1 kWh = 1 unit = 3.6 × 10⁶ J.
Do not mix these up
• Higher power vs higher voltage — all appliances get the same voltage; the difference is in power and current.
Also asked from this topic: the current rating of the circuit used for geysers and air coolers (15 A).

Electricity · Resistors in series and parallel

Q25. When several resistors are joined in series, the equivalent resistance of the combination is:

(a) less than the sum of the individual resistances
(b) greater than the sum of the individual resistances
(c) equal to the sum of the individual resistances
(d) equal to the product of the individual resistances

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) equal to the sum of the individual resistances

Answer: Option 3 — equal to the sum of the individual resistances
In series the same current flows through every resistor, and the potential differences add up.
So R_(s) = R_(1) + R_(2) + R_(3) + …
Revision note — Resistors in series and parallel
• Series: same current through each; V = V_(1) + V_(2) + V_(3); R_(s) is greater than the largest resistor.
• Parallel: same potential difference across each; 1/R_(p) = 1/R_(1) + 1/R_(2) + …
• R_(p) is less than the smallest resistor in the combination.
• n equal resistors R: series = nR, parallel = R/n; ratio R_(s) : R_(p) = n² : 1.
• Household wiring is in parallel — each appliance gets the full 220 V and can be switched separately.
• In series, if one element fails the whole circuit breaks.
Do not mix these up
• Sum vs greater than the sum — the series total is exactly the sum; it is greater than each resistor, not greater than the sum.
Also asked from this topic: current when 3 Ω, 2 Ω and 1 Ω in series are joined to a 9 V battery (1.5 A); a practical reason for a series combination (to increase total resistance and limit current).

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Convex lens - image formation and uses

Q26. Which of the following describes the relationship between the aperture of a lens and its radius of curvature in the context of thin lenses?

(a) The aperture is much smaller than the radius of curvature.
(b) The aperture is independent of the radius of curvature.
(c) The aperture equals the radius of curvature.
(d) The aperture is much larger than the radius of curvature.

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The aperture is much smaller than the radius of curvature.

Answer: Option 1 — The aperture is much smaller than the radius of curvature.
NCERT studies only lenses whose aperture is much less than the radius of curvature.
Such lenses are called thin lenses with small apertures; the lens formula and ray rules hold for them.
Revision note — Spherical lens terms
• Aperture: the effective diameter of the circular outline of a lens.
• Centre of curvature (C): centre of the sphere of which a lens surface is a part; a lens has two (C_(1), C_(2)).
• Principal axis: the line through both centres of curvature.
• Optical centre (O): the central point of the lens; a ray through it passes undeviated.
• Power P = 1/f (f in metres); SI unit dioptre (D).
• Convex lens converges light (f positive); concave lens diverges light (f negative).
Do not mix these up
• Aperture vs focal length — aperture is a width of the lens; focal length is a distance along the axis.
Also asked from this topic: the path of a ray through the optical centre of a thin lens (it goes straight on without deviation).

Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Mirror formula and magnification

Q27. If an image is formed by a spherical mirror with a magnification of +1, which of the following statements is true?

(a) The image is virtual and equal in size to the object.
(b) The image is real and equal in size to the object.
(c) The image is real and twice the size of the object.
(d) The image is virtual and half the size of the object.

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The image is virtual and equal in size to the object.

Answer: Option 1 — The image is virtual and equal in size to the object.
Positive magnification means the image is erect, and an erect image from a single mirror is always virtual.
Magnitude 1 means the image is the same size as the object.
Revision note — Magnification by a spherical mirror
• m = height of image ÷ height of object = −v/u.
• m positive ⇒ virtual and erect; m negative ⇒ real and inverted.
• |m| > 1 enlarged, |m| = 1 same size, |m| < 1 diminished.
• A convex mirror always gives m positive and less than 1.
• A concave mirror gives m = −1 with the object at C, and m positive and greater than 1 with the object between P and F.
• A plane mirror always gives m = +1.
Do not mix these up
• m = +1 vs m = −1 — +1 is virtual and erect (plane mirror); −1 is real and inverted (concave mirror, object at C).
Also asked from this topic: the sign and size of magnification for an inverted, smaller image (negative, less than one); the magnification of a concave mirror of f = 10 cm with the object at 15 cm (−2).

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Solenoid and electromagnet

Q28. The pattern of the magnetic field lines of a solenoid is similar to that of a:

(a) ring magnet
(b) horseshoe magnet
(c) button magnet
(d) bar magnet

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) bar magnet

Answer: Option 4 — bar magnet
A current-carrying solenoid has field lines like a bar magnet.
One end behaves as a north pole, the other as a south pole.
Revision note — Magnetic field of a solenoid
• Solenoid — a coil of many closely wound turns of insulated copper wire in the shape of a cylinder.
• Inside the solenoid the field lines are parallel straight lines — the field is uniform there.
• Outside, the lines run from the N end to the S end, exactly as around a bar magnet.
• Field strength rises with more turns, more current and a soft iron core.
• A solenoid with a soft iron core is an electromagnet — magnetism stays only while the current flows.
• The polarity of each end follows the right-hand thumb rule (clockwise current seen from an end = S pole).
Do not mix these up
• Electromagnet vs permanent magnet — electromagnet uses soft iron, temporary and adjustable; permanent magnet uses steel / alnico.
Also asked from this topic: the shape of field lines of a solenoid (parallel straight lines inside); why a solenoid can magnetise soft iron placed inside it (strong, uniform field inside).

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Scattering of light (blue sky, red sunset, Tyndall effect)

Q29. Why are danger signals typically red in colour?

(a) Red light is more reflective than other colours.
(b) The colour red is aesthetically pleasing.
(c) Red light is easier to produce artificially.
(d) Red light has a longer wavelength and is scattered the least, making it visible from a distance.

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Red light has a longer wavelength and is scattered the least, making it visible from a distance.

Answer: Option 4 — Red light has a longer wavelength and is scattered the least, making it visible from a distance.
Tiny particles scatter short wavelengths much more than long ones.
Red has the longest wavelength of visible light, so it passes through fog and smoke with the least scattering.
Revision note — Scattering of light
• Rayleigh scattering: intensity ∝ 1/λ^(4) — halve the wavelength and scattering rises 16 times.
• Visible order by wavelength: VIBGYOR — violet is shortest (about 400 nm), red is longest (about 700 nm).
• Blue sky — air molecules scatter blue light more than red.
• Red sun at sunrise and sunset — light crosses a thicker layer of air, blue is scattered away, red reaches the eye.
• Sky looks black to astronauts in space — no atmosphere to scatter light.
• Tyndall effect — scattering of light by colloidal particles, e.g. a sunbeam in a dusty room.
• Very large particles (clouds) scatter all colours equally, so clouds look white.
Also asked from this topic: why the sky looks blue in the daytime (blue, shorter wavelength, is scattered more); how particle size affects scattering (smaller particles scatter shorter wavelengths more).

Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q30. An object is placed 12 cm in front of a convex mirror with a focal length of 8 cm. What is the image distance (v)?

(a) +20 cm
(b) −20 cm
(c) +4.8 cm
(d) −4.8 cm

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) +4.8 cm

Mirror formula.
1/v + 1/u = 1/f
So 1/v = 1/f − 1/u
Signs (New Cartesian convention).
Object in front of the mirror ⇒ u = −12 cm
Convex mirror ⇒ focus behind ⇒ f = +8 cm
Substitute.
1/v = 1/8 − 1/(−12)
= 1/8 + 1/12
= 3/24 + 2/24
= 5/24
v = 24/5 = +4.8 cm
Answer: +4.8 cm
Revision note — Convex mirror
• A convex mirror always gives a virtual, erect, diminished image behind the mirror, between P and F.
• f and R of a convex mirror are positive; R = 2f.
• Magnification here: m = −v/u = −4.8/(−12) = +0.4 (erect, smaller).
• Used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles — gives a wider field of view.
Also asked from this topic: image of a car 3 m from a convex mirror of radius 2 m (0.75 m behind the mirror); focus of a convex mirror of radius 50 cm (25 cm behind the mirror).
A positive v for a convex mirror just means the image is behind it — −4.8 cm comes from forgetting that f is positive.

Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q31. An electric fan is connected to a 220 V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power used by the fan?

(a) 440 Watt
(b) 11 Watt
(c) 110 Watt
(d) 220 Watt

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 110 Watt

Formula — electric power.
Power = potential difference × current
P = V × I
Substitute.
V = 220 V, I = 0.50 A
P = 220 × 0.50 = 110 W
Answer: 110 Watt
Revision note — Electric power
• P = VI = I²R = V²/R; SI unit watt (W): 1 W = 1 V × 1 A.
• Electrical energy = power × time; commercial unit kilowatt hour (kWh) = 1 unit.
• 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10^(6) J.
• An appliance rated 220 V, 100 W draws I = P ÷ V ≈ 0.45 A.
Also asked from this topic: the formula for electrical energy (Energy = Power × Time); 1 kilowatt hour in joules (3.6 × 10^(6) J); units used by a 60 W lamp run 5 hours a day for 30 days (9 units).
Multiply V by I for power; dividing gives resistance (V ÷ I = 440 Ω), not power.

Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q32. Which combination of factors would result in the lowest resistance for a conductor?

(a) Long length and small cross-sectional area
(b) Short length and large cross-sectional area
(c) Long length and large cross-sectional area
(d) Short length and small cross-sectional area

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Short length and large cross-sectional area

Answer: Option 2 — Short length and large cross-sectional area
Resistance R = ρL/A: it increases with length and decreases with cross-sectional area.
So the shortest, thickest conductor has the lowest resistance.
Revision note — Factors affecting resistance
• R ∝ L (length) and R ∝ 1/A (area of cross-section); SI unit ohm (Ω).
• ρ (resistivity) depends on the material and temperature only; SI unit Ω m.
• Stretching a wire to double its length halves its area, so resistance becomes 4 times.
• Copper and aluminium (low ρ) are used for transmission wires.
• Alloys such as nichrome (high ρ, do not oxidise easily) are used in heating elements.
Also asked from this topic: the resistance when length is doubled and area halved (four times); which of two wires of the same material and length has greater resistance (the one with the smaller cross-sectional area).
Long and thin means high resistance; short and thick means low.

Static GK (3)

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q33. Who is the author of "Postcolonial Elements in Amitav Ghosh's 'The Shadow Lines,'" published in 2018?

(a) Amitav Ghosh
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Nivedhaa Nivi
(d) Salman Rushdie

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nivedhaa Nivi

Answer: Option 3 — Nivedhaa Nivi
The work is a 2018 critical study of Amitav Ghosh's novel The Shadow Lines, credited to Nivedhaa Nivi.
Amitav Ghosh wrote the novel itself; a study titled "Postcolonial Elements in Amitav Ghosh's …" is written about him, not by him.
Revision note — Amitav Ghosh and The Shadow Lines
• The Shadow Lines (1988) — set in Calcutta, Dhaka and London; themes of memory, borders, nationalism and Partition.
• It won the Sahitya Akademi Award (1989).
• Amitav Ghosh received the Jnanpith Award (2018) — the first English-language writer to get it.
• Ibis Trilogy: Sea of Poppies (2008, Booker shortlist), River of Smoke, Flood of Fire.
• Other works: The Calcutta Chromosome, The Hungry Tide (Sundarbans), The Glass Palace, Gun Island, The Great Derangement (climate change).
• Arundhati Roy — The God of Small Things (Booker 1997); Salman Rushdie — Midnight's Children (Booker 1981).
Do not mix these up
• Author of a novel vs author of a study on it — a title naming "Amitav Ghosh's" book is criticism by another writer.
Also asked from this topic: the author of The Shadow Lines (Amitav Ghosh); the author of The Calcutta Chromosome (Amitav Ghosh); the first book of the Ibis Trilogy (Sea of Poppies).

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q34. One of the famous Kali temples in India, Kalighat, is located in which of the following Indian states?

(a) Maharastra
(b) Odisha
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) West Bengal

Answer: Option 4 — West Bengal
The Kalighat Kali Temple stands in Kolkata, West Bengal, on the bank of the Adi Ganga (an old channel of the Hooghly).
It is counted among the 51 Shakti Peethas.
Revision note — Famous Shakti and Kali temples
• Kalighat Kali Temple — Kolkata; one of the Shakti Peethas; gave its name to Kalighat painting (patachitra) of the 19th century.
• Dakshineswar Kali Temple — Kolkata, built by Rani Rashmoni (1855); Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was its priest.
• Kamakhya Temple — Nilachal Hill, Guwahati (Assam); the Ambubachi Mela is held here every June.
• Tarapith — Birbhum district, West Bengal; temple of goddess Tara.
• Vaishno Devi — Trikuta hills, Jammu and Kashmir; Jwalamukhi — Kangra, Himachal Pradesh.
Do not mix these up
• Kalighat vs Dakshineswar — both are Kali temples in Kolkata; Dakshineswar is linked with Ramakrishna and Vivekananda.
Also asked from this topic: the temple where Swami Vivekananda first met Ramakrishna Paramahamsa (Dakshineswar Kali temple); the state where the Ambubachi Mela is held at the Kamakhya Temple (Assam).

Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q35. Quwwat-al-islam mosque is located in which of the following cities?

(a) Sikar
(b) Hyderabad
(c) New Delhi
(d) Ajmer

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) New Delhi

Answer: Option 3 — New Delhi
The Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque stands in the Qutb complex at Mehrauli, Delhi.
It was begun by Qutbuddin Aibak around 1192–93, and is the earliest surviving mosque in India.
Revision note — The Qutb complex, Delhi
• The mosque was built with material from demolished Hindu and Jain temples.
• Iltutmish and Alauddin Khalji later extended it.
• Qutb Minar — begun by Aibak, completed by Iltutmish; about 72.5 m tall; a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1993).
• Alai Darwaza (1311) — the southern gateway built by Alauddin Khalji, noted for its true arch and dome.
• The Iron Pillar in the courtyard dates from the Gupta period and has not rusted.
Do not mix these up
• Quwwat-ul-Islam vs Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra — both built by Aibak; the first is in Delhi, the second in Ajmer.
Also asked from this topic: who built the Alai Darwaza (Alauddin Khalji); the builder of the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque (Qutbuddin Aibak); the style of the Qutb Minar (Mamluk / Indo-Islamic).

Economics (1)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Market structures (perfect competition, monopoly, oligopoly)

Q36. Which of the following is an example of a natural monopoly?

(a) Malls
(b) Railways
(c) Apple store in delhi
(d) Bookshop

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Railways

Answer: Option 2 — Railways
A natural monopoly arises when one firm can serve the whole market at a lower cost than two or more firms could.
Railways need huge fixed investment (tracks, stations, signalling); duplicating the network would be wasteful, so a single supplier is the natural outcome.
Revision note — Market structures
• Monopoly — single seller, no close substitute, strong barriers to entry; the firm is a price maker.
• Natural monopoly — caused by economies of scale and very high fixed costs; e.g. railways, electricity transmission, water supply, gas pipelines.
• Oligopoly — a few large, interdependent sellers; e.g. telecom, automobiles, airlines.
• Monopolistic competition — many sellers of differentiated products; e.g. malls, bookshops, restaurants, branded stores.
• Perfect competition — very large number of buyers and sellers, homogeneous product, free entry and exit; firms are price takers.
• Indian Railways is run by the Ministry of Railways — a government undertaking with no competing rail network.
Do not mix these up
• Natural vs legal monopoly — a natural monopoly comes from cost conditions; a legal monopoly comes from a law, patent or licence.
Also asked from this topic: a feature that is not a characteristic of oligopoly (infinite sellers); a feature of a perfectly competitive market (free entry and exit of firms).

Current Affairs (5)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q37. Which Indian cricketer was appointed as the brand ambassador for MotoGP in India in July 2024?

(a) Rohit Sharma
(b) Virat Kohli
(c) Shikhar Dhawan
(d) Jasprit Bumrah

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shikhar Dhawan

Answer: Option 3 — Shikhar Dhawan
In July 2024, former India opener Shikhar Dhawan was named the brand ambassador of MotoGP Bharat, the Indian round of the MotoGP world championship.
Revision note — MotoGP Bharat
• MotoGP is the top class of motorcycle road racing, run by Dorna under the FIM.
• India hosted its first MotoGP race (Indian Oil Grand Prix of India) in September 2023.
• Venue: Buddh International Circuit, Greater Noida (Uttar Pradesh) — also India's former Formula One venue (2011–2013).
• The 2023 race was won by Marco Bezzecchi (Italy).
• Promoter in India: FairStreet Sports.
• Shikhar Dhawan announced his retirement from international and domestic cricket in August 2024.
Also asked from this topic: the venue of MotoGP Bharat 2023 (Buddh International Circuit, Greater Noida).

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q38. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(a) Narendra Modi took oath as the Prime Minister of India in June 2024.
(b) Amit Shah assumed charge as Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation in June 2024.
(c) Om Birla is elected as the Speaker of the 18^(th) Lok Sabha.
(d) Sonia Gandhi became the Leader of Opposition in the 18^(th) Lok Sabha.

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sonia Gandhi became the Leader of Opposition in the 18^(th) Lok Sabha.

Answer: Option 4 — Sonia Gandhi became the Leader of Opposition in the 18^(th) Lok Sabha.
The Leader of Opposition in the 18^(th) Lok Sabha is Rahul Gandhi (Congress), recognised in June 2024.
Sonia Gandhi is a member of the Rajya Sabha (from Rajasthan, elected in 2024), not of the Lok Sabha.
Revision note — 18^(th) Lok Sabha (2024)
• Narendra Modi took oath as Prime Minister for a third consecutive term on 9 June 2024.
• Amit Shah kept Home Affairs and Cooperation (Ministry of Cooperation created in July 2021).
• Om Birla (MP from Kota, Rajasthan) was elected Speaker on 26 June 2024 by voice vote — his second term as Speaker.
• Rahul Gandhi (MP from Rae Bareli) became Leader of Opposition — the post had been vacant since 2014.
• A party needs at least 10% of the House (55 seats) for its leader to be recognised as LoP; the LoP holds Cabinet-minister rank.
Do not mix these up
• LoP Lok Sabha vs LoP Rajya Sabha — Lok Sabha: Rahul Gandhi; Rajya Sabha: Mallikarjun Kharge.
Also asked from this topic: seats needed for a recognised Leader of Opposition (10% of the House); the Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha (Om Birla); Amit Shah's portfolios (Home Affairs and Cooperation).

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Health policy and programmes - current

Q39. The National Health Authority (NHA) and _________ signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on 11^(th) September. The partnership aims to revolutionise artificial intelligence in health research with an innovative data platform.

(a) IIT Kanpur
(b) IIT Delhi
(c) IIT Kharagpur
(d) IIT Madras

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IIT Kanpur

Answer: Option 1 — IIT Kanpur
On 11 September 2024, the National Health Authority (NHA) signed an MoU with IIT Kanpur.
The aim is a data platform and digital public goods for AI in healthcare research.
Revision note — National Health Authority (NHA)
• NHA is the apex body that runs Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY).
• It also runs the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), launched on 27 September 2021.
• NHA works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• AB PM-JAY gives a health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year; it was launched on 23 September 2018 from Ranchi.
• Under ABDM each citizen can get an ABHA number (Ayushman Bharat Health Account).
Also asked from this topic: the scheme West Bengal was set to implement in 2026 as the 36th State/UT to join (AB PM-JAY).

Art, Culture and Events - Current · New UNESCO inscriptions

Q40. Which of the following was the venue of the 46^(th) session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee?

(a) New Delhi, India
(b) Paris, France
(c) New York, United States
(d) Dubai, United Arab Emirates

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) New Delhi, India

Answer: Option 1 — New Delhi, India
The 46th session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
It ran from 21 to 31 July 2024 — the first time India hosted the Committee.
Revision note — 46th World Heritage Committee session
• Inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 21 July 2024.
• Chaired by Vishal V. Sharma, India's Permanent Representative to UNESCO.
• India's nomination Moidams — the mound-burial system of the Ahom dynasty (Charaideo, Assam) was inscribed as India's 43rd World Heritage Site.
• Moidams is the first cultural site from the North-East on the list.
• UNESCO headquarters: Paris, France; the World Heritage Convention was adopted in 1972.
• The Committee has 21 member States and meets once a year.
• As of 2026: the 47th session was held in Paris (July 2025), which inscribed the Maratha Military Landscapes as India's 44th site.
Also asked from this topic: the monument that is NOT a UNESCO World Heritage Site in India (India Gate).

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q41. Which of the following received the top honour in the Best Urban Local Body category at the 5^(th) National Water Awards for its innovative water conservation initiatives?

(a) Pune, Maharashtra
(b) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Surat, Gujarat

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Surat, Gujarat

Answer: Option 4 — Surat, Gujarat
The Surat Municipal Corporation won the first prize in the Best Urban Local Body category of the 5th National Water Awards.
The awards were presented by President Droupadi Murmu on 22 October 2024 in New Delhi.
Revision note — National Water Awards
• Given by the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• Instituted in 2018 to honour work in water conservation and management, in line with Jal Shakti Abhiyan.
• The 5th edition (for 2023) was presented in October 2024.
• Odisha won the Best State award in the 5th edition.
• Categories include Best State, Best District, Best Village Panchayat, Best Urban Local Body, Best School, Best Industry and Best NGO.
The National Water Awards come from the Ministry of Jal Shakti — not the Environment Ministry.

Geography (2)

India - Transport and Communication · Inland waterways

Q42. Which of the following is the National Waterway 2 in India?

(a) East Coast canal and Matai river
(b) Kakinada canal (Kakinada to Rajahmundry)
(c) Brahmaputra river
(d) West Coast canal and Champakara and Udyogmandal canals

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Brahmaputra river

Answer: Option 3 — Brahmaputra river
National Waterway 2 runs on the Brahmaputra from Sadiya to Dhubri in Assam, about 891 km.
Revision note — National Waterways of India
• NW-1: Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly, Prayagraj to Haldia (about 1,620 km) — the longest.
• NW-2: Brahmaputra, Sadiya to Dhubri (891 km), Assam.
• NW-3: West Coast Canal (Kottapuram–Kollam) with Champakara and Udyogmandal canals, Kerala.
• NW-4: Godavari–Krishna rivers with the Kakinada and other canals (Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry).
• NW-5: Brahmani–Mahanadi delta with the East Coast Canal and Matai river (Odisha, West Bengal).
• The National Waterways Act, 2016 raised the number to 111; managed by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (1986), HQ Noida.
Do not mix these up
• The other three options are parts of NW-3, NW-4 and NW-5 — the distractors are real waterways, just different numbers.
Also asked from this topic: the length of NW-2 (891 km); the landlocked river port on NW-2 (Pandu, Guwahati).

India - Drainage System · West-flowing rivers

Q43. Which of the following rivers is ephemeral?

(a) Beas
(b) Chambal
(c) Yamuna
(d) Luni

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Luni

Answer: Option 4 — Luni
An ephemeral river flows only for a short time after rain and stays dry for most of the year.
The Luni of the Thar Desert is the textbook example.
Revision note — Luni and the desert drainage
• The Luni rises in the Aravalli range near Pushkar (Ajmer) and flows south-west.
• It passes through Barmer and Jalore and ends in the marshes of the Rann of Kachchh — it does not reach the sea.
• Its water is sweet up to Balotra and saline beyond it.
• It is the only large river of the desert; most desert streams vanish into the sand — inland drainage.
• Perennial rivers flow all year: Himalayan rivers (Yamuna, Beas) are fed by snow and glaciers.
• The Chambal (from Janapav hills near Mhow, MP) is a Yamuna tributary, known for its ravines (badlands).
Do not mix these up
• Ephemeral vs perennial — ephemeral flows only after rain; perennial flows throughout the year.
Also asked from this topic: the main river of the Thar Desert (Luni); where the Luni ends (in the Rann of Kachchh, without reaching the sea); the river famous for badland topography (Chambal).

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