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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 10 March 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 50 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 10 March 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Geography, Economics, Current Affairs, Static GK, Modern History.

📚 50 questions🗓️ 10 March 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (2) · Geography (2) · Economics (1) · Current Affairs (4) · Static GK (1) · Modern History (1) · Physics (14) · Biology (13) · Chemistry (12)

Polity (2)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q1. Allocation of seats to States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha is provided under which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Sixth Schedule
  2. (b) Tenth Schedule
  3. (c) Fourth Schedule
  4. (d) Eighth Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fourth Schedule

The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories.
It specifies the distribution of seats among the different states based on their population.
Other options refer to different aspects: Sixth Schedule deals with tribal areas, Tenth Schedule with anti-defection law, and Eighth Schedule lists official languages.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q2. Which of the following Directive Principles was NOT added to the Indian Constitution as part of the 42ⁿᵈ Amendment Act of 1976?

  1. (a) Article 48A: To protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife
  2. (b) Article 38: State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities
  3. (c) Article 39: To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
  4. (d) Article 39A: To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 38: State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added three Directive Principles to the Indian Constitution:
Article 48A − Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
Article 39A − Promotion of equal justice and providing free legal aid to poor.
Article 40 (not in options) − Organisation of village panchayats.
Article 38 was already part of the Constitution before 1976, so it was NOT added by the 42nd Amendment.

Geography (2)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Rainfall distribution

Q3. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram, two places that generally receive the maximum rainfall in India, are located in:

  1. (a) Satpura Hills
  2. (b) Khasi Hills
  3. (c) Aravalli Hills
  4. (d) Nilgiri Hills
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Khasi Hills

Cherrapunji and Mawsynram are known as the wettest places in India.
Both are located in the Khasi Hills in Meghalaya.
This area receives maximum rainfall due to the south-west monsoon winds hitting the hills.
Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Water cycle and groundwater

Q4. In a dug well, water is collected from:

  1. (a) Impervious strata
  2. (b) Deep strata
  3. (c) Water-bearing strata
  4. (d) Neighbouring strata
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Water-bearing strata

Water in a dug well is collected from water-bearing strata.
Water-bearing strata, also called aquifers, are permeable layers of rock or sediment that hold water.
Impervious strata do not allow water to pass through, so they do not contribute to water in wells.
Deep strata or neighbouring strata are not specific terms related to water collection in wells.
Hence, water-bearing strata is the correct and scientific source of water in dug wells.

Economics (1)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty - measurement and committees

Q5. Which of the following committees, in its 2009 report, is known for introducing a widely used method to estimate poverty levels in India?

  1. (a) B.N. Yugandhar Committee
  2. (b) Suresh Tendulkar Committee
  3. (c) Rangarajan Expert Group
  4. (d) A.V. Subramanian Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Suresh Tendulkar Committee

The Suresh Tendulkar Committee, in its 2009 report, introduced a new method to estimate poverty levels in India.
This method is widely used and focuses on consumption expenditure based poverty lines.
It improved upon earlier committees by better capturing poverty through comprehensive data and methodology.
Hence, Suresh Tendulkar Committee is known for this significant contribution in poverty estimation.
This is essential knowledge for competitive exams relating to Indian economics and poverty.

Current Affairs (4)

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q6. Which of the following is the primary objective of Mission Sudarshan Chakra, launched by India in August 2025?

  1. (a) Promote economic reform
  2. (b) Strengthen civil aviation
  3. (c) Support agricultural innovation
  4. (d) Create a powerful defence weapon system
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Create a powerful defence weapon system

Mission Sudarshan Chakra was launched by India in August 2025.
Its primary objective is to develop a powerful defence weapon system.
This mission aims to enhance the country's defence capabilities.
Hence, the correct option is to create a powerful defence weapon system.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q7. Which of the following successfully conducted user trials of the Akash-NG missile?

  1. (a) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
  2. (b) Hindustan Aeronautics (HAL)
  3. (c) Bharat Electronics (BEL)
  4. (d) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

Option 4 is correct: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
DRDO is the premier agency responsible for the development and user trials of the Akash-NG missile.
User trials and testing of missile systems like Akash-NG are conducted and overseen by DRDO.
Other organisations like HAL, BEL, and Mazagon Dock are involved in production and supply, but not the user trials phase.
Therefore, the successful user trials of the Akash-NG missile are conducted by DRDO.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q8. Who became the first Indian senior world champion in speed skating by winning the 1,000 m sprint at the World Championships in September 2025?

  1. (a) Anish Raj
  2. (b) Dhanush Babu
  3. (c) Krish Sharma
  4. (d) Anandkumar Velkumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Anandkumar Velkumar

The first Indian senior world champion in speed skating is Anandkumar Velkumar.
He won the 1,000 m sprint at the World Championships in September 2025.
This is a significant achievement as no Indian had won a senior world title in speed skating before.
Hence, the correct answer is Anandkumar Velkumar.
State News · State elections and results

Q9. Who took the oath as Bihar's Chief Minister for the record 10ᵗʰ time in 2025?

  1. (a) Tejashwi Prasad Yadav
  2. (b) Lalu Prasad Yadav
  3. (c) Shri Nishant Kumar
  4. (d) Shri Nitish Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Shri Nitish Kumar

Correct option is 4: Shri Nitish Kumar.
He took oath as Bihar's Chief Minister for a record 10th time in 2025.
This makes him the longest-serving CM of Bihar by number of terms.
This fact is notable in Indian state politics.
Hence, the answer is Shri Nitish Kumar.

Static GK (1)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musicians and singers

Q10. Which of the following renowned Indian musicians performed at the Red Fort on the occasion of India’s independence in 1947?

  1. (a) Ustad Bismillah Khan
  2. (b) Pandit Ravi Shankar
  3. (c) Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
  4. (d) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ustad Bismillah Khan

The musician who performed at the Red Fort during India's independence in 1947 was Ustad Bismillah Khan.
He is famous for playing the shehnai and is regarded as a cultural icon.
Pandit Ravi Shankar, Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia, and Pandit Bhimsen Joshi are also renowned musicians but were not the ones who performed at that event.
Therefore, the correct answer is Ustad Bismillah Khan.

Modern History (1)

Revolt of 1857 · Causes of the revolt

Q11. Which policy of Lord Dalhousie was a significant political cause of the 1857 Revolt?

  1. (a) Dual Government
  2. (b) Doctrine of Lapse
  3. (c) Ryotwari System
  4. (d) Vernacular Press Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Doctrine of Lapse

The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
Under this policy, if a ruler died without a natural heir, their kingdom would be annexed by the British East India Company.
This policy disturbed many Indian rulers and caused widespread resentment.
It was one of the significant political causes that led to the Indian Revolt of 1857.
Therefore, the Doctrine of Lapse directly contributed to the outbreak of the 1857 Revolt.

Physics (14)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Numericals on refraction and lenses

Q12. A 2.0 cm tall object is placed 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. What is the magnification produced by the lens?

  1. (a) -3
  2. (b) - 1
  3. (c) +3
  4. (d) +1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) -3

The magnification (M) produced by a convex lens is given by the formula: M = − v / u, where v is image distance and u is object distance.
Given: object height (h_o) = 2.0 cm, object distance (u) = -20 cm (since object distances are negative for lenses), focal length (f) = +15 cm (convex lens).
Using lens formula: 1/f = 1/v − 1/u
1/15 = 1/v − 1/(-20)
1/15 = 1/v + 1/20
1/v = 1/15 − 1/20
1/v = (4 − 3)/60 = 1/60
v = 60 cm
Magnification M = − v / u = -60 / (-20) = +3
Since the answer options include negative 3 and positive 3, the correct magnification according to signs is +3; but in lens sign convention magnification is negative if image is real and inverted.
Calculations show image distance positive and magnification positive indicating an upright image, which is unusual for convex lens with object outside focal length.
However, given the data and calculation, magnification = +3.
Check carefully; as per sign conventions, object distance is negative, focal length positive, image distance positive => real image formed on opposite side (inverted) => magnification negative.
So final magnification is -3.
Therefore, option 1 (-3) is correct.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q13. A body of mass 10 kg is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. How much potential energy will be possessed by the body when it reaches the maximum height? (Take g = 10 m/s²)

  1. (a) 250 J
  2. (b) 2.5 J
  3. (c) 500 J
  4. (d) 25 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 500 J

Given
mass (m) = 10 kg, initial velocity (u) = (10 m)/(s, acceleration due to gravity (g)) = (10 m)/(s²)
At maximum height, velocity v = (0 m)/(s)
Use the formula for maximum height (h)
v² = u² - 2gh
0 = 10² - 2 × 10 × h
= > 0 = 100 - 20h
= > 20h = 100
= > h = (100)/(20) = 5 m
Calculate potential energy (PE) at max height
PE = mgh
PE = 10 × 10 × 5 = 500 Joules
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q14. A girl weighing 420 N climbs a rope to a height of 6 m and takes 20 seconds to do it. What is her power output?

  1. (a) 105 W
  2. (b) 90 W
  3. (c) 126 W
  4. (d) 155 W
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 126 W

Power is the rate of doing work or energy transfer.
Work done = force × distance moved in the direction of the force.
Here, force = weight = 420 N, distance = height = 6 m.
Work done = 420 N × 6 m = 2520 J (joules).
Time taken = 20 seconds.
Power = Work done / time = 2520 J / 20 s = 126 W.
But among options given, 126 W is Option 3, so check carefully:
Calculation confirms power output = 126 W.
Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q15. A sound wave has a frequency of 2 kHz and a wavelength of 45 cm. How much time will it take to cover a distance of 1.8 km?

  1. (a) 1 second
  2. (b) 4 seconds
  3. (c) 2 seconds
  4. (d) 0.5 seconds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2 seconds

Frequency (f) = 2 kHz = 2000 Hz
Wavelength (λ) = 45 cm = 0.45 m
Speed of sound (v) = Frequency × Wavelength
v = 2000 × 0.45 = 900 m/s
Distance to cover = 1.8 km = 1800 m
Time (t) = Distance / Speed
t = 1800 / 900 = 2 seconds
But the closest option given is 4 seconds, check again as speed calculation is correct.
Re-calculating can confirm:
Speed = 2 kHz × 0.45 m = 900 m/s
Time = 1800 m ÷ 900 m/s = 2 seconds
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Solenoid and electromagnet

Q16. A strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of soft iron placed inside the coil. The resulting magnet is called a/an __________.

  1. (a) Permanent magnet
  2. (b) Toroid
  3. (c) Natural magnet
  4. (d) Electromagnet
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Electromagnet

The magnetic field inside a solenoid is strong and uniform.
When a piece of soft iron is placed inside this coil, it becomes magnetised due to the induced magnetic field.
This magnet produced by electric current in the coil and the soft iron inside is called an electromagnet.
Therefore, the correct answer is Electromagnet.
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Unit conversions and prefixes

Q17. A train starting from rest reaches a speed of 40 km/h in 10 minutes. What is its final speed in m/s?

  1. (a) 6.67 m/s
  2. (b) 400 m/s
  3. (c) 4 m/s
  4. (d) 11.11 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 11.11 m/s

(The final speed of the train is given as 40 km)/(h.)
(To convert km)/(h to m/s, multiply by (1000 m / 1 km) and divide by (3600 s / 1 hour).)
(Speed in m)/(s) = 40 × (1000/3600) = 40 × (5/18) = (200)/(18) = (11.11 m)/(s.)
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q18. If a conductor has a potential difference of 1 V across its ends and a current of 1 A flows through it, what is the resistance of the conductor?

  1. (a) 2 Ω
  2. (b) 10 Ω
  3. (c) 0.5 Ω
  4. (d) 1 Ω
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1 Ω

Use Ohm's Law which states: V = IR
Given, V = 1 volt and I = 1 ampere
Calculate resistance, R = V / I
So, R = 1 V / 1 A = 1 ohm
Therefore, resistance of the conductor is 1 ohm.
Gravitation · Acceleration due to gravity (g) and its variation

Q19. If the radius of the Earth were to double while mass remains the same, the new value of g would be ___________the original value.

  1. (a) 2 times
  2. (b) Half
  3. (c) One-fourth
  4. (d) 4 times
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) One-fourth

Acceleration due to gravity g = G × M / R²
If radius R doubles and mass M remains the same, new g' = G × M / (2R)²
= G × M / 4R²
= (1/4) × original g
So, new value of g will be one-fourth the original value.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q20. In Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, which finger represents the direction of the magnetic field?

  1. (a) First (index) finger
  2. (b) Middle finger
  3. (c) Little finger
  4. (d) Thumb
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) First (index) finger

The Fleming's Left Hand Rule helps find the direction of force, magnetic field, and current in an electric motor.
According to the rule:
- The First finger (index finger) points at the direction of magnetic field.
- The seCond finger (middle finger) points at direction of current.
- The thuMb points at direction of motion or force.
Here, the question asks for the magnetic field direction, which is the First finger, i.e. index finger.
But from options, the magnetic field direction is represented by the First (index) finger.
Final answer: Option 1
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q21. Reshma swims back and forth in a 120 m long pool, covering a total distance of 240 m in 1 minute. What is her average velocity?

  1. (a) 5 m/s
  2. (b) 0 m/s
  3. (c) 4 m/s
  4. (d) 2 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 0 m/s

Reshma swims back and forth in a 120 m pool, total distance = 240 m.
Time taken = 1 minute = 60 seconds.
Displacement = Final position - Initial position = 0 m (since she ends where she started).
Average velocity = (Displacement)/(Time) = (0)/(60) = 0m/s
Average velocity depends on displacement, not total distance.
Hence, the average velocity is 0 m/s
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q22. The SI unit of the universal gravitation constant is ____________.

  1. (a) Nm2kg-2
  2. (b) Nm2kg-1
  3. (c) Nm-2kg-1
  4. (d) Nm-2kg2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nm2kg-2

The universal gravitation constant (G) relates gravitational force, mass, and distance.
Its SI unit comes from Newton's law of gravitation: F = G × (m1 × m2) / r².
Force (F) unit = Newton (N).
Mass (m) unit = kilogram (kg).
Distance (r) unit = metre (m).
Rearranging for G: G = F × r² / (m1 × m2).
Substitute units: [G] = N × m² / kg² = Nm²kg⁻².
Therefore, the SI unit of the universal gravitation constant is Nm²kg⁻².
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Prism and dispersion of light

Q23. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true when a beam of white light is incident on a glass prism?
(i) The white light undergoes dispersion.
(ii) The speed of light remains constant when it goes from air into the prism.
(iii) The speed of light decreases as the light goes from air into the prism.

  1. (a) Only (ii)
  2. (b) Only (i)
  3. (c) Both (ii) and (iii)
  4. (d) Both (i) and (iii)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both (i) and (iii)

Correct option is 4.
(i) When white light passes through a glass prism, it splits into its constituent colours due to dispersion. This is true.
(ii) The speed of light does not remain constant when it goes from air into the prism. It changes due to the refractive index of glass.
(iii) The speed of light decreases when it goes from air (a less dense medium) into the glass prism (a denser medium). This is true.
Hence, only statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
Gravitation · Mass and weight

Q24. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between mass and weight?

  1. (a) Mass changes from one planet to another, but weight stays the same.
  2. (b) Weight and mass both remain constant everywhere.
  3. (c) Mass stays the same everywhere, but weight changes with location.
  4. (d) Both mass and weight change with location.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mass stays the same everywhere, but weight changes with location.

Mass is the quantity of matter in a body and remains constant everywhere.
Weight is the force due to gravity acting on the mass and varies with location.
Hence, mass stays the same everywhere, but weight changes according to gravitational force.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Scattering of light (blue sky, red sunset, Tyndall effect)

Q25. Why does the sky appear dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes?

  1. (a) They are above the atmosphere.
  2. (b) The air molecules absorb all blue light at that altitude.
  3. (c) The path of light is scattered back towards the sun.
  4. (d) Scattering of light is not prominent at such heights.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Scattering of light is not prominent at such heights.

The sky appears blue due to Rayleigh scattering in the Earth's atmosphere.
At very high altitudes, the atmosphere is very thin, so scattering of sunlight is minimal.
With less scattering of light, the sky appears black or very dark.
Hence, passengers flying at very high altitudes see a dark sky because scattering of light is not prominent at such heights.

Biology (13)

Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q26. Epithelial tissue primarily functions in:

  1. (a) Secretion and protection
  2. (b) Support
  3. (c) Muscle contraction
  4. (d) Coordination
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Secretion and protection

Epithelial tissue covers the body surfaces and lines body cavities.
It acts as a barrier to protect underlying tissues.
It is involved in secretion of substances like enzymes, hormones, and mucus.
Thus, the primary functions are secretion and protection.
Ecology and Environment · Trophic levels and the 10 percent law

Q27. Food chains generally do not extend beyond four trophic levels because:

  1. (a) of large loss of energy at each level
  2. (b) carnivores feed only on producers
  3. (c) of limited number of producers
  4. (d) decomposers outnumber consumers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) of large loss of energy at each level

The energy transfer between trophic levels is inefficient.
About 90% of energy is lost as heat or through metabolic processes at each level.
This limits the number of levels a food chain can support.
Hence, food chains usually do not extend beyond four trophic levels due to large energy loss.
This is the key reason why the length of food chains is restricted.
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q28. In a school canteen, students notice that many plastic cups and plates are thrown away daily. To solve this problem, they suggest switching to steel plates and reusable water bottles. This action mainly promotes ________.

  1. (a) Reduction and reuse of waste
  2. (b) Faster waste collection
  3. (c) Better packaging design
  4. (d) More plastic recycling
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reduction and reuse of waste

The students suggest using steel plates and reusable water bottles instead of disposable plastic items.
This reduces the amount of plastic waste generated.
Reusing items directly prevents waste accumulation and promotes sustainability.
Hence, the action mainly promotes reduction and reuse of waste rather than disposal or recycling.
Reproduction · Flower structure and sexual reproduction in plants

Q29. The female reproductive part of the flower is known as:

  1. (a) sepals
  2. (b) pistil
  3. (c) stamens
  4. (d) petals
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) pistil

The female reproductive part of a flower is called the pistil.
It consists of the stigma, style, and ovary.
The stigma receives pollen, which travels down the style to fertilise the ovules in the ovary.
Therefore, the correct answer is pistil.
Cell - Structure and Function · Golgi apparatus, lysosomes and vacuoles

Q30. The principal role of the large central vacuole in mature plant cells is to:

  1. (a) Synthesize proteins for export.
  2. (b) Carry out cellular respiration to produce energy.
  3. (c) Control cell division and heredity.
  4. (d) Store cell sap and help maintain turgor pressure.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Store cell sap and help maintain turgor pressure.

The large central vacuole in mature plant cells primarily stores cell sap.
It helps maintain turgor pressure, which keeps the cell rigid and supports the plant structure.
Other options are functions of different organelles: Proteins are synthesised by ribosomes,
cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria,
and cell division control is done by the nucleus.
Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q31. Two beakers contain sugar solution of different concentrations. A semipermeable membrane separates them. After some time, the level of solution in one beaker rises while in the other, it falls. Which property of solutions does this experiment best demonstrate, and why?

  1. (a) Sedimentation – because sugar crystals settle at the bottom due to gravity
  2. (b) Diffusion – because sugar molecules move freely across the membrane until equilibrium is reached
  3. (c) Osmosis – because solvent molecules move from the dilute solution to the concentrated solution through the semipermeable membrane
  4. (d) Evaporation – because water molecules escape from the surface of the solution causing a level difference
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Osmosis – because solvent molecules move from the dilute solution to the concentrated solution through the semipermeable membrane

This experiment shows osmosis.
Explanation:
A semipermeable membrane allows only solvent (usually water) molecules to pass through, not sugar molecules.
Solvent moves from the dilute solution (less sugar) to the concentrated solution (more sugar).
This causes the level in one beaker to rise and the other to fall.
Thus, the movement of solvent due to concentration difference across a semipermeable membrane is osmosis.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Crop improvement and hybridisation

Q32. What is the main purpose of hybridisation in crop improvement programmes?

  1. (a) To combine desirable traits by crossing genetically dissimilar plants
  2. (b) To produce genetically identical plants through cloning
  3. (c) To increase the natural mutation rate in crop plants
  4. (d) To grow crops without using fertilizers or irrigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To combine desirable traits by crossing genetically dissimilar plants

The main purpose of hybridisation in crop improvement programmes is to combine desirable traits.
It involves crossing genetically dissimilar plants to produce offspring with improved qualities.
This method enhances yield, disease resistance, and stress tolerance by mixing genes.
Hence, hybridisation aims at obtaining better crop varieties by genetic combination.
Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q33. What is the primary function of the axon in a neuron?

  1. (a) Provide structural support to the neuron.
  2. (b) Store neurotransmitters for later use.
  3. (c) Transmit electrical impulses to other neurons or target organs.
  4. (d) Supply nutrients to the cell body.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Transmit electrical impulses to other neurons or target organs.

The axon is a long, slender projection of a neuron.
Its main role is to transmit electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body.
These impulses are sent to other neurons, muscles, or glands.
This function is vital for communication within the nervous system.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Aerobic and anaerobic respiration

Q34. Which of the following best explains why anaerobic respiration releases less energy than aerobic respiration?

  1. (a) It does not require enzymes.
  2. (b) It uses less glucose.
  3. (c) It partially breaks down glucose.
  4. (d) It occurs slower than aerobic respiration.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It partially breaks down glucose.

Anaerobic respiration releases less energy because it does not completely break down glucose.
In anaerobic respiration, glucose is only partially broken down into products like lactic acid or ethanol and carbon dioxide.
In contrast, aerobic respiration fully breaks down glucose into carbon dioxide and water, releasing more energy.
Partial breakdown means less energy is extracted from each glucose molecule, resulting in lower energy yield.
Tissues · Muscular tissue

Q35. Which of the following movements is controlled by unstriated and involuntary smooth muscle tissue?

  1. (a) Movement of food in the alimentary canal
  2. (b) Waving the hand
  3. (c) Moving the legs to walk
  4. (d) Rhythmic contraction of the heart
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Movement of food in the alimentary canal

The movement controlled by unstriated and involuntary smooth muscle tissue is in the alimentary canal.
Smooth muscles are responsible for the involuntary movements of internal organs, such as the movement of food through the digestive tract.
The heart's rhythmic contraction is done by cardiac muscle, which is striated and involuntary.
Voluntary movements like waving the hand or moving legs use skeletal muscles, which are striated and voluntary.
Hence, the correct answer is the movement of food in the alimentary canal.
Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q36. Which part of a plant cell helps it stay intact and prevents bursting in a hypotonic environment?

  1. (a) Cell wall made of cellulose
  2. (b) Cell membrane
  3. (c) Vacuole
  4. (d) Cytoplasm
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cell wall made of cellulose

Correct option is 1.
The cell wall made of cellulose provides structural support to plant cells.
It prevents the cell from bursting when water enters in a hypotonic environment.
The cell membrane alone cannot prevent bursting, but the rigid cell wall ensures cell integrity.
Hence, the cell wall helps plant cells stay intact in hypotonic conditions.
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q37. Why are xylem and phloem called “complex permanent tissues”?

  1. (a) They are temporary in function and disappear after growth.
  2. (b) They contain different types of cells working together for transport.
  3. (c) Their cells can divide and form new tissues.
  4. (d) They consist of only one type of cell for performing a single function.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They contain different types of cells working together for transport.

Xylem and phloem are called complex permanent tissues because they contain different types of cells.
These different cell types work together to perform the function of transport in plants.
Xylem primarily transports water and minerals, while phloem transports food.
Their complexity arises from this combination of cells with a common function.
Hence, they are complex permanent tissues.
Reproduction · Reproductive health and contraception

Q38. Why is the use of condoms during sexual intercourse recommended?

  1. (a) Condoms help prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases to some extent
  2. (b) Condoms completely eliminate the risk of pregnancy and infections
  3. (c) Condoms are required by law to maintain the population balance
  4. (d) Condoms are used to increase fertility in both males and females
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Condoms help prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases to some extent

Condoms act as a barrier during sexual intercourse.
They prevent the exchange of bodily fluids.
This reduces the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
They also lower the chance of pregnancy but do not eliminate it completely.
Therefore, condoms help prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases to some extent.

Chemistry (12)

Carbon and its Compounds · Esters and esterification

Q39. Ethanol and ethanoic acid react in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to form a sweet-smelling compound. Which of the following correctly identifies the reaction type and the role of concentrated H₂SO₄?

  1. (a) It is an esterification reaction; H₂SO₄ acts as a catalyst and a dehydrating agent.
  2. (b) It is a substitution reaction; H₂SO₄ acts as a dehydrating agent to remove water molecules.
  3. (c) It is a neutralization reaction; H₂SO₄ acts as an acid to neutralize the base.
  4. (d) It is an oxidation reaction; H₂SO₄ acts as an oxidizing agent.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It is an esterification reaction; H₂SO₄ acts as a catalyst and a dehydrating agent.

Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid to form an ester and water.
This reaction is known as esterification.
Concentrated sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) acts as a catalyst to speed up the reaction.
H₂SO₄ also acts as a dehydrating agent, removing the water formed to drive the reaction forward.
The product formed is a sweet-smelling compound, characteristic of esters.
Therefore, the correct identification is esterification with H₂SO₄ as catalyst and dehydrating agent.
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q40. If A displaces B, and C displaces A, then the order of reactivity is:

  1. (a) B > A > C
  2. (b) C > B > A
  3. (c) C > A > B
  4. (d) A > B > C
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) C > A > B

If A displaces B, it means A is more reactive than B.
If C displaces A, it means C is more reactive than A.
Therefore, the order of reactivity is C > A > B.
Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q41. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct option.
Statement-I: Most carbon compounds are poor conductors of electricity.
Statement-II: Carbon compounds have low melting and boiling points as compared to ionic compounds.

  1. (a) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
  2. (b) Both the statements are false.
  3. (c) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
  4. (d) Both the statements are true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both the statements are true.

Both statements are correct.
Statement-I: Most carbon compounds (covalent compounds) do not conduct electricity because they lack free ions or electrons.
Statement-II: Carbon compounds generally have low melting and boiling points compared to ionic compounds due to weak intermolecular forces.
Hence, both statements are true.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Indicators (natural, synthetic, olfactory)

Q42. Read the given statements carefully. Select which statement(s) is/are correct.
Statement-I: There are some substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media. These are called olfactory indicators.
Statement-II: Vanilla extract and onion can be used as olfactory indicators.

  1. (a) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
  2. (b) Both statements I and II are false.
  3. (c) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
  4. (d) Both statements I and II are true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both statements I and II are true.

Statement-I says that substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media are called olfactory indicators, which is true.
Statement-II states that vanilla extract and onion can be used as olfactory indicators, which is also correct.
Therefore, both statements are correct. This topic relates to the use of olfactory indicators in chemistry for pH detection by smell change.
Hence, the correct answer is that both statements I and II are true.
Structure of Atom · Rutherford's model and gold foil experiment

Q43. The alpha particles that passed straight through the gold foil showed that:

  1. (a) the nucleus is negatively charged
  2. (b) the atom has a positive charge
  3. (c) the nucleus is huge
  4. (d) the atom is mostly empty space
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) the atom is mostly empty space

Alpha particles that passed straight through the gold foil indicated that atoms are not solid throughout.
This showed that most of the atom's volume is empty space, allowing particles to pass through without deflection.
Hence, atoms consist largely of empty space with a small dense nucleus.
Therefore, the correct conclusion from this experiment is that the atom is mostly empty space.
Structure of Atom · Electronic configuration and shells

Q44. The M shell can take a maximum of ____ electrons, but in Ca it has _____ electrons. [Atomic Number of Ca = 20]

  1. (a) 8, 8
  2. (b) 18, 10
  3. (c) 8, 10
  4. (d) 18, 8
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 18, 8

The M shell (n=3) can hold a maximum of2n² = 2×3² = 18 electrons.
Calcium (Ca, atomic number 20) electron configuration: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² → M shell (n=3) has3s² + 3p⁶ = 8 electrons.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q45. What is produced when an acid reacts with a metal hydrogen carbonate?

  1. (a) Salt, ammonia and water
  2. (b) Salt, oxygen and water
  3. (c) Salt, hydrogen gas and water
  4. (d) Salt, carbon dioxide and water
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Salt, carbon dioxide and water

When an acid reacts with a metal hydrogen carbonate, the products are salt, carbon dioxide and water.
This reaction occurs because hydrogen carbonate decomposes releasing carbon dioxide and water, while the acid forms a salt with the metal.
Hence, the correct answer is salt, carbon dioxide and water.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q46. What is the formula unit mass of ammonium sulphate (NH₄)₂SO₄?

  1. (a) 132 u
  2. (b) 146 u
  3. (c) 98 u
  4. (d) 114 u
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 132 u

Ammonium sulphate formula: (NH4)2SO4
Calculate atomic masses: N = 14 u, H = 1 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u
Mass of two NH4 groups: 2 × (14 + 4×1) = 2 × 18 = 36 u
Mass of SO4 group: 32 + 4×16 = 32 + 64 = 96 u
Total formula unit mass = 36 + 96 = 132 u
Check calculation: (NH4)2 = 36 u, SO4 = 96 u, Sum = 132 u
Option 1 states 132 u, but usually ammonium sulphate's molar mass is around 132 g/mol
Metals and Non-metals · Ionic compounds and their properties

Q47. Which of the following are properties of ionic compounds?
A. High melting point
B. Soluble in non-polar solvents
C. Conduct electricity in solid state
D. Brittle in nature

  1. (a) Only (C) and (D)
  2. (b) Only (A) and (D)
  3. (c) Only (C) and (B)
  4. (d) Only (A) and (B)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only (A) and (D)

The properties of ionic compounds include:
A. High melting point due to strong electrostatic forces between ions.
B. They are not soluble in non-polar solvents; they dissolve in polar solvents like water.
C. They do not conduct electricity in solid state; they conduct in molten or aqueous state.
D. Brittle nature because when layers shift, like charges repel causing the lattice to break.
Hence, only statements A and D are correct properties of ionic compounds.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q48. Which of the following observations best confirms that a neutralisation reaction has occurred?

  1. (a) The solution changes from blue to red.
  2. (b) The pH of the solution becomes close to 7.
  3. (c) The temperature of the solution drops drastically.
  4. (d) A gas with a pungent smell is evolved.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The pH of the solution becomes close to 7.

Neutralisation reaction occurs between an acid and a base producing water and salt.
This reaction typically moves the solution's pH towards neutral, which is around 7.
Therefore, the best confirmation of neutralisation is that the pH of the solution becomes close to 7.
Other options do not reliably indicate neutralisation: colour change depends on the indicator; temperature may rise not drop; pungent gas is unrelated.
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q49. Which of the following pairs must represent the same element?

  1. (a) Same number of neutrons, different atomic numbers
  2. (b) Same atomic number, different mass numbers
  3. (c) Different number of protons, same number of neutrons
  4. (d) Same mass number, different atomic numbers
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Same atomic number, different mass numbers

Elements are defined by their atomic number (number of protons).
If two atoms have the same atomic number but different mass numbers, they are isotopes of the same element.
Other options describe atoms with different atomic numbers, thus different elements.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Elements and compounds

Q50. Which of the following statements is correct regarding molecules of an element?

  1. (a) All elements exist as monoatomic molecules in their natural state.
  2. (b) A molecule of an element consists of only one type of atom bonded together.
  3. (c) Molecules of an element always contain two or more different types of atoms.
  4. (d) Elements do not form molecules, only compounds do.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A molecule of an element consists of only one type of atom bonded together.

A molecule of an element consists of atoms of the same type chemically bonded together.
For example, O2 is a molecule made of two oxygen atoms.
Monoatomic elements like noble gases do exist but not all elements are monoatomic in natural state.
Option 1 and 3 are incorrect because elements can be monoatomic or diatomic but not always multi-atom compounds.
Option 4 is wrong because elements can form molecules, such as O2 and N2.
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