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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 10 March 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 46 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 10 March 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Geography, Current Affairs, Modern History, Static GK, Polity.

📚 46 questions🗓️ 10 March 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Economics (1) · Geography (2) · Current Affairs (1) · Modern History (2) · Static GK (1) · Polity (1) · Biology (12) · Physics (14) · Chemistry (12)

Economics (1)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q1. In which year did India completely eliminate Quantitative Restrictions (QRs) on imports as part of trade liberalization?

  1. (a) 2005
  2. (b) 2001
  3. (c) 1998
  4. (d) 1996
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2001

India eliminated Quantitative Restrictions (QRs) on imports in 2001.
This was a major step in trade liberalization to promote freer trade.
2001 marks the year when restrictions on import quantities were fully removed.
Hence, India moved towards a more open economy from this year onward.

Geography (2)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q2. India shares a maritime boundary (sea boundary) with which one of the following countries across the Arabian Sea or the Indian Ocean?

  1. (a) Russia
  2. (b) Mongolia
  3. (c) Maldives
  4. (d) Afghanistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maldives

India shares maritime boundaries with several countries across the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean.
Russia and Mongolia are landlocked or located far from India, so no sea boundary exists with them.
Afghanistan is a landlocked country with no direct access to the sea, so it does not share a maritime boundary with India.
Maldives is an island nation located in the Indian Ocean, south-west of India, sharing a maritime boundary with India.
Therefore, the correct answer is Maldives.
India - Agriculture · Cropping seasons (kharif, rabi, zaid)

Q3. Complete the analogy.
Kharif : Rainy season :: Rabi :____________

  1. (a) Spring season
  2. (b) Winter season
  3. (c) Summer season
  4. (d) Autumn season
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Winter season

Kharif crops are sown and harvested during the rainy season.
Rabi crops are sown in winter and harvested in spring.
Thus, Rabi is associated with the winter season.
Therefore, the answer is Winter season.

Current Affairs (1)

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q4. PM Modi unveils how many Global Initiatives at the G20 Johannesburg Summit 2025?

  1. (a) Four
  2. (b) Six
  3. (c) Five
  4. (d) Seven
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Six

At the G20 Johannesburg Summit 2025, PM Modi unveiled six Global Initiatives.
These initiatives aim to strengthen global cooperation and development.
The number of initiatives announced is six, as confirmed by official G20 communications.

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q5. Provincial autonomy in provinces in place of dyarchy was introduced by which of the following British Indian government legislations?

  1. (a) Government of India Act of 1919
  2. (b) Indian Councils Act of 1909
  3. (c) Indian Councils Act of 1892
  4. (d) Government of India Act of 1935
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Government of India Act of 1935

Correct option is 4.
The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced Provincial Autonomy in provinces replacing dyarchy system.
Earlier, dyarchy was introduced under Government of India Act 1919 which divided subjects into two categories: transferred and reserved.
The 1935 Act abolished dyarchy in provinces and gave full autonomy to provincial legislatures and governments.
Hence, provincial autonomy came with the Government of India Act 1935.
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Battles of Plassey and Buxar

Q6. Which among the following battles in 1757 marked the beginning of British political control in India?

  1. (a) Battle of Colachel
  2. (b) Battle of Plassey
  3. (c) Battle of Buxar
  4. (d) Battle of Seringapatam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Battle of Plassey

The Battle of Plassey took place in 1757.
It marked the beginning of British political control in India.
The British East India Company defeated the Nawab of Bengal.
This victory allowed the British to establish their dominance in Indian politics.
Hence, the Battle of Plassey is considered the start of British rule in India.

Static GK (1)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q7. Which Indian classical dance form originated in the southern state of Tamil Nadu and is traditionally performed in temples as a devotional offering?

  1. (a) Bharatanatyam
  2. (b) Mohiniyattam
  3. (c) Kathak
  4. (d) Odissi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bharatanatyam

Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu, a southern state of India.
It is traditionally performed in temples as a form of devotional offering to God.
Other options like Mohiniyattam, Kathak, and Odissi belong to Kerala, North India, and Odisha respectively.
Hence, the correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Polity (1)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · UPSC and State PSCs

Q8. Who among the following appoints the members of the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) under Article 316 of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Chief Justice of the High Court
  2. (b) Governor of the State
  3. (c) President of India
  4. (d) Prime Minister of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Governor of the State

Members of the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) are appointed under Article 316 of the Indian Constitution.
According to Article 316, the Governor of the State appoints the members of the SPSC.
This ensures that the commission functions under the state government for which it is constituted.
Therefore, the correct appointing authority is the Governor of the State.

Biology (12)

Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q9. ______________ is a process in which persistent, non-degradable chemicals become progressively more concentrated at each higher trophic level in a food chain.

  1. (a) Biological magnification
  2. (b) Ecological succession
  3. (c) Bioremediation
  4. (d) Biodegradation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biological magnification

The process described is Biological magnification.
It refers to the increasing concentration of persistent, non-degradable chemicals at each higher trophic level in a food chain.
This happens because such chemicals are absorbed and accumulated by organisms and are not easily broken down or excreted.
Hence, pollutants become more concentrated in organisms higher up in the food chain.
Other options do not describe this process:
Ecological succession − change in species composition over time.
Bioremediation − use of organisms to clean pollutants.
Biodegradation − breakdown of substances by organisms.
Therefore, the correct answer is Biological magnification.
Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q10. Choose a term to complete the analogy.
Apical Meristem : Length :: Lateral Meristem : _______________

  1. (a) Cell differentiation only
  2. (b) Girth
  3. (c) Nodes
  4. (d) Tips of stems
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Girth

Apical meristem is responsible for the elongation or increase in length of plant stems and roots.
Lateral meristem is responsible for increasing the girth or thickness of stems and roots.
Hence, the analogy: Apical Meristem relates to Length as Lateral Meristem relates to Girth.
Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q11. Choose a term to complete the analogy.
Prokaryotic cell : Small and simple :: Eukaryotic cell : _______

  1. (a) Smaller and simple
  2. (b) Larger and complex
  3. (c) Irregular and simple
  4. (d) Same size and complexity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Larger and complex

The question compares the characteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic cells are generally small and simple in structure.
Eukaryotic cells are usually larger and more complex due to organelles and a defined nucleus.
Hence, the analogy is: Prokaryotic cell : Small and simple : : Eukaryotic cell : Larger and complex.
Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q12. Meristematic tissue contributes to plant growth because its cells:

  1. (a) Contain large central vacuoles
  2. (b) Continuously divide throughout life
  3. (c) Have thick secondary walls
  4. (d) Are permanently differentiated
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Continuously divide throughout life

Meristematic tissue in plants is responsible for growth.
Its cells have the unique ability to continuously divide throughout the plant's life.
This continuous cell division produces new cells that contribute to the increase in plant size.
Therefore, the key reason meristematic tissue contributes to growth is its ongoing cell division capability.
Cell - Structure and Function · Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes

Q13. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is associated with:

  1. (a) Enzyme breakdown
  2. (b) DNA replication
  3. (c) Lipid synthesis
  4. (d) Protein synthesis
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Protein synthesis

The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is studded with ribosomes on its surface.
Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis.
Therefore, the rough ER is primarily involved in protein synthesis and processing.
Options 1, 2, and 3 are functions associated with other organelles.
Hence, the correct answer is protein synthesis.
Reproduction · Pollination and fertilisation in plants

Q14. What is formed when the male germ-cell from the pollen grain fuses with the female gamete in flowering plants?

  1. (a) Ovule
  2. (b) Zygote
  3. (c) Pollen grain
  4. (d) Stigma
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Zygote

In flowering plants, the male germ-cell from the pollen grain fuses with the female gamete (egg cell).
This fusion results in the formation of a zygote.
The zygote later develops into an embryo inside the seed.
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q15. What specialisation is commonly found in the epidermal cells of plant roots to aid in their primary function?

  1. (a) Long, hair-like extensions
  2. (b) Irregularly thickened corners
  3. (c) A thick, waxy coating of cutin
  4. (d) Large air cavities (aerenchyma)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Long, hair-like extensions

The primary function of epidermal cells in plant roots is to absorb water and minerals from the soil.
To increase absorption efficiency, these cells develop long, hair-like extensions called root hairs.
These root hairs increase the surface area of the roots significantly, allowing more water and nutrients to enter the plant.
Therefore, the specialisation commonly found is long, hair-like extensions.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q16. Which cropping pattern maintains soil fertility through planned crop succession?

  1. (a) Mixed cropping
  2. (b) Monocropping
  3. (c) Relay cropping
  4. (d) Crop rotation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Crop rotation

Crop rotation is an agricultural practice where different types of crops are planted in the same area in sequential seasons.
This planned succession helps maintain and improve soil fertility by balancing nutrient usage and reducing depletion.
Other options like mixed cropping, monocropping, and relay cropping do not specifically focus on maintaining soil fertility through planned succession.
Therefore, the correct answer is Crop rotation.
End of solution.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q17. Which of the following correctly explains why veins have valves but arteries do not?

  1. (a) Veins carry blood under high pressure, so valves prevent it from bursting
  2. (b) Arteries carry oxygenated blood and do not need valves
  3. (c) Veins carry blood at low pressure and need valves to prevent backflow
  4. (d) Arteries are located deep inside the body and are supported by muscles
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Veins carry blood at low pressure and need valves to prevent backflow

Veins carry blood at low pressure.
Because of low pressure, blood flow can reverse direction in veins.
Valves in veins prevent this backflow and ensure one-way blood flow to the heart.
Arteries carry blood under high pressure, so they do not require valves.
Hence, veins have valves but arteries do not.
Reproduction · Fertilisation, embryo development and pregnancy

Q18. Which of the following is correct regarding the male and female gamete?

  1. (a) Male gamete is large and motile; and female gamete is smaller and non-motile.
  2. (b) Male gamete is small and motile; and female gamete is larger and non-motile.
  3. (c) Male gamete is large and non-motile; and female gamete is smaller and motile.
  4. (d) Male gamete is small and non-motile; and female gamete is larger and motile.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Male gamete is small and motile; and female gamete is larger and non-motile.

Male gamete is typically small and motile, adapted to move and fertilize the female gamete.
Female gamete is larger in size and non-motile, containing stored nutrients for the developing embryo.
This characteristic is consistent in most animals, including humans.
Hence, the correct statement is: Male gamete is small and motile; and female gamete is larger and non-motile.
Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q19. Which of the following is NOT attributed to Areolar connective tissues in the human body?

  1. (a) Filling the space inside organs
  2. (b) Helping in the repair of tissues
  3. (c) Storing fat globules for insulation
  4. (d) Supporting internal organs
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Storing fat globules for insulation

Areolar connective tissue is a loose connective tissue scattered throughout the body.
It fills spaces inside organs providing support and cushioning.
It helps in the repair of tissues by providing a matrix for new cells.
It supports internal organs by binding tissues together.
However, storing fat globules for insulation is the function of adipose tissue, not areolar tissue.
Therefore, storing fat globules for insulation is NOT attributed to areolar connective tissue.
Ecology and Environment · Food chains and food webs

Q20. Which statement most accurately describes why food webs provide greater stability to an ecosystem compared to single food chains?

  1. (a) They have fewer organisms.
  2. (b) They allow multiple feeding relationships, ensuring balance.
  3. (c) They involve only producers.
  4. (d) They recycle only energy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They allow multiple feeding relationships, ensuring balance.

Food webs show multiple feeding relationships among organisms.
This diversity allows energy to flow through various paths.
If one species declines, others can fill that role, maintaining balance.
Single food chains are linear and more vulnerable to disruption.
Thus, food webs provide greater ecosystem stability through complexity and redundancy.

Physics (14)

Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q21. A car has a mass of 120 kg. How much work must be done to raise its speed from 72 km/h to 108 km/h?

  1. (a) 2.0 × 10⁴ J
  2. (b) 1.0 × 10⁴ J
  3. (c) 3.0 × 10⁴ J
  4. (d) 4.0 × 10⁴ J
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3.0 × 10⁴ J

To find the work done to increase the speed, calculate the change in kinetic energy.
Initial speed u = 72 km/h = 72 × (1000/3600) = 20 m/s.
Final speed v = 108 km/h = 108 × (1000/3600) = 30 m/s.
Mass m = 120 kg.
Kinetic energy change = 0.5 × m × (v² − u²).
= 0.5 × 120 × (30² − 20²).
= 60 × (900 − 400) = 60 × 500 = 30000 J = 3.0 × 10⁴ J.
None of the given options exactly match 3.0 × 10⁴ J except option 3, but calculation shows 3.0 × 10⁴ J is correct.
Hence, correct option is Option 3.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q22. A convex mirror of focal length 'X' cm forms an image at a distance of 8 cm when the object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of the mirror. What is the value of X?

  1. (a) + 20/3 cm
  2. (b) - 10 cm
  3. (c) + 10 cm
  4. (d) - 20/3 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) + 10 cm

For a convex mirror, focal length (f) is positive.
Given
Object distance, u = -40 cm (object is in front, so negative convention)
Image distance, v = +8 cm (image is virtual and formed behind the mirror for convex mirror, so positive)
Mirror formula
(1)/(f) = (1)/(v + 1/u)
Substitute values
(1)/(f) = (1)/(8 + 1/(-40))
(1)/(f) = (1)/(8 - 1/40)
Find common denominator 40
(1)/(f) = (5)/(40 - 1/40) = (4)/(40) = (1)/(10)
So, focal length f = 10 cm
Since convex mirror has positive focal length, f = +10 cm
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q23. A convex mirror produces a magnification of 1/3 when an object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from it. How much will be the image distance?

  1. (a) - 90 cm
  2. (b) - 10 cm
  3. (c) + 10 cm
  4. (d) + 90 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) + 10 cm

Given
Magnification (m) = (1)/(3.)
Object distance (u) = -30 cm (since object distances are negative in mirror formula).
For a convex mirror, the magnification m = (v)/(u, where v is the image distance.)
Rearranging, v = m × u.
Substitute values
v = (1/3) × (-30) = -10 cm.
Sign of v is negative indicating the image is virtual and behind the mirror.
Therefore, the image distance is +10 cm (behind the mirror).
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q24. A device often used in electric circuits to change the resistance without changing the voltage source is the ___________.

  1. (a) Rheostat
  2. (b) Voltmeter
  3. (c) Fuse
  4. (d) Ammeter
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rheostat

The device used to change resistance without altering the voltage source is called a Rheostat.
A Rheostat controls current by varying resistance in the circuit.
Voltmeters measure voltage and do not change resistance.
Fuses protect circuits by breaking the circuit when current is too high.
Ammeters measure current and do not adjust resistance.
Hence, the correct device is Rheostat.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q25. A distance–time graph for uniform motion must pass through ________.

  1. (a) The origin
  2. (b) Any point
  3. (c) (1, 1) only
  4. (d) (0, 1)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The origin

For uniform motion, an object starts from zero distance at zero time, which means the graph passes through the origin (0,0).
The distance-time graph must begin at the origin to show that at time zero, distance travelled is zero.
Hence, the correct point the graph passes through is the origin.
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q26. Even though action and reaction forces are equal in size, they may not cause equal accelerations. Why?

  1. (a) Because the forces act on the same object
  2. (b) Because reaction forces are always weaker in effect
  3. (c) Because only the larger force causes acceleration
  4. (d) Because each force acts on a different object, and the objects may have different masses
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Because each force acts on a different object, and the objects may have different masses

Action and reaction forces are equal in magnitude but act on two different objects according to Newton's third law.
Acceleration depends on the net force acting on an object and the object's mass (Newton's second law: F = ma).
Since action and reaction forces act on different objects, they may have different masses.
Because acceleration (a) = Force (F) / Mass (m), the accelerations of the objects can differ even if forces are equal.
Hence, equal forces acting on different objects do not produce equal accelerations if the masses differ.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q27. If the velocity-time graph is curved (non-linear), the object is moving with _________.

  1. (a) Uniform acceleration
  2. (b) Constant speed
  3. (c) Constant rate of change of momentum
  4. (d) Non-uniform acceleration
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Non-uniform acceleration

The velocity-time graph shows how velocity changes over time.
If the graph is curved and not a straight line, acceleration is not constant.
This means the object has non-uniform acceleration.
Uniform acceleration would result in a straight line velocity-time graph.
Constant speed would be a flat, horizontal line on the graph.
Therefore, a curved velocity-time graph implies non-uniform acceleration.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Spherical mirror terminology

Q28. The centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror is located ____________.

  1. (a) At infinity
  2. (b) Behind the mirror
  3. (c) At the pole (P)
  4. (d) In front of the mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) In front of the mirror

The centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror is the centre of the sphere from which the mirror is a part.
It always lies on the principal axis, in front of the mirror surface, as the reflective side faces inwards.
Hence, the centre of curvature is in front of the mirror.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q29. The distance between the pole and the position of the object placed in front of a concave mirror is 120 cm. A real and inverted image is formed by this mirror on a screen at 40 cm from the pole of this mirror. What will be the focal length of this mirror?

  1. (a) + 60 cm
  2. (b) + 30 cm
  3. (c) - 60 cm
  4. (d) - 30 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) - 30 cm

Given: Object distance (u) = -120 cm (since object is in front of concave mirror, distance is negative).
Image distance (v) = -40 cm (image is real and formed on the same side as object for concave mirror, so distance is negative).
Use mirror formula: 1/f = 1/v + 1/u.
Substitute values: 1/f = 1/(-40) + 1/(-120) = -1/40 − 1/120.
Find common denominator: 120.
1/f = (-3/120) − (1/120) = -4/120 = -1/30.
Therefore, focal length f = -30 cm.
Negative focal length confirms concave mirror.
Motion · Distance and displacement

Q30. The location of an object is always described by specifying a point of reference known as the __________.

  1. (a) Origin
  2. (b) Final position
  3. (c) Axis
  4. (d) Displacement
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Origin

The position of an object is described relative to a fixed point, called the origin or point of reference.
This origin allows us to measure where the object is located in space.
Hence, the correct term for the point of reference is 'Origin'.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q31. Two bodies A and B are travelling in uniform motion, the slope of the distance- time graph of body A is greater than the slope of the distance - time graph of body B. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) The speed of body A is less than the speed of body B.
  2. (b) The acceleration of body A is greater than the acceleration of body B.
  3. (c) The speed of body A is equal to the speed of body B.
  4. (d) The speed of body A is greater than speed of body B.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The speed of body A is greater than speed of body B.

The slope of a distance-time graph represents the speed of the body.
If the slope of body A's graph is greater than that of body B, it means body A covers more distance in the same time.
Hence, the speed of body A is greater than the speed of body B.
Acceleration is not considered here as both bodies are in uniform motion, implying zero acceleration.
Therefore, the correct statement is: Speed of body A is greater than speed of body B.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Convex lens - image formation and uses

Q32. What happens to a ray of light that either passes through the principal focus (for a convex lens) or appears to meet at the principal focus (for a concave lens) before striking the lens?

  1. (a) It bends randomly after refraction.
  2. (b) It emerges parallel to the principal axis after refraction.
  3. (c) It always converges at the optical centre.
  4. (d) It forms an image at the focal plane of the lens.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It emerges parallel to the principal axis after refraction.

A ray of light passing through the principal focus of a convex lens refracts and emerges parallel to the principal axis.
Similarly, for a concave lens, a ray directed towards the principal focus appears to come from it and emerges parallel to the principal axis after refraction.
This is a fundamental property of lenses used in ray diagrams to locate images correctly.
Hence, the ray emerges parallel to the principal axis after refraction.
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q33. Which of the following is/are NOT true about action reaction forces?
(i) Action reaction forces are unequal in magnitude and always act in the same direction.
(ii) Action reaction forces act on different bodies.
(iii) Action reaction forces act on the same body.

  1. (a) Only (iii)
  2. (b) Only (ii)
  3. (c) Both (i) and (iii)
  4. (d) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both (i) and (iii)

Correct option: 3
Action and reaction forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, so statement (i) is false.
Statement (ii) is true because action and reaction forces act on different bodies.
Statement (iii) is false because action and reaction forces do not act on the same body.
Hence, both (i) and (iii) are NOT true about action reaction forces.
This aligns with Newton's third law of motion.
Electricity · Electric power and electrical energy

Q34. Which of the following relations is incorrect for electric power (P)?

  1. (a) P=I2R
  2. (b) P=R/V2
  3. (c) P=VI
  4. (d) P=V2/R
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) P=R/V2

Option 2 is incorrect: P = R / V² is not a valid formula for electric power.
Correct formulas for electric power are:
P = VI (Power = Voltage × Current)
P = I²R (Power = Current squared × Resistance)
P = V²/R (Power = Voltage squared / Resistance)
Thus, the power related to resistance and voltage is P = V²/R, not P = R/V².

Chemistry (12)

Structure of Atom · Bohr's model

Q35. According to Bohr’s model, where are electrons found in an atom?

  1. (a) Randomly scattered inside the atom
  2. (b) Fixed positions inside the nucleus
  3. (c) Moving in fixed circular orbits around the nucleus
  4. (d) Resting outside the atom in free space
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Moving in fixed circular orbits around the nucleus

According to Bohr's atomic model, electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed circular orbits.
These orbits have quantised energy levels and fixed radii.
Electrons do not move randomly but follow these specific paths around the nucleus.
Hence, option 3 is correct: Moving in fixed circular orbits around the nucleus.
Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q36. Addition reactions are characteristic of which type of hydrocarbons?

  1. (a) Only alkenes
  2. (b) Only alkynes
  3. (c) Only alkanes
  4. (d) Both alkynes and alkenes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both alkynes and alkenes

Addition reactions involve the addition of atoms to the carbon atoms of the hydrocarbon.
Alkenes have a double bond which can break to add atoms, allowing addition reactions.
Alkynes have a triple bond which can also undergo addition reactions similarly.
Alkanes, having only single bonds, typically do not undergo addition reactions but substitution reactions.
Therefore, addition reactions are characteristic of both alkenes and alkynes, but not alkanes.
Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q37. Identify the product formed when copper metal is exposed to dilute hydrochloric acid.

  1. (a) Salt and chlorine gas
  2. (b) Only Salt
  3. (c) Salt and hydrogen gas
  4. (d) No reaction
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) No reaction

Copper metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Hydrochloric acid typically reacts with metals above hydrogen in the activity series to produce salt and hydrogen gas.
Copper is less reactive and does not produce chlorine gas in this reaction.
The product of copper and dilute hydrochloric acid is copper chloride (salt) and hydrogen gas.
Hence, the correct answer is salt and hydrogen gas.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Ions and radicals

Q38. If an element forms an ion with a charge of −2, what does this indicate about its valency?

  1. (a) The element has 2 electrons in the nucleus.
  2. (b) The element has gained 2 electrons.
  3. (c) The element has gained 2 protons.
  4. (d) The element has lost 2 electrons.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The element has gained 2 electrons.

The charge of −2 on an ion means the element has gained 2 extra electrons.
Electrons have negative charge, so gaining electrons creates a negative ion.
Valency associated with negative charge shows electrons gained, not lost or protons changed.
Therefore, the element has gained 2 electrons to form a −2 charge ion.
Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q39. If the pH of a solution is 3, what is the concentration of hydrogen ions in the solution?

  1. (a) 1×10−2 M
  2. (b) 1×10−3 M
  3. (c) 3×10−2M
  4. (d) 3×10−3 M
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1×10−3 M

pH is defined as the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration.
pH = -log[H+]
Given pH = 3, so 3 = -log[H+]
log[H+] = -3
Therefore, [H+] = 10^(-3) M
Hence, the hydrogen ion concentration is 1×10^-3 M.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q40. In a chemical reaction, 5.6 g of sodium reacts with 8.0 g of chlorine to form sodium chloride. What is the mass of sodium chloride formed according to the Law of Conservation of Mass?

  1. (a) 8.0 g
  2. (b) 12.4 g
  3. (c) 14.4 g
  4. (d) 13.6 g
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 13.6 g

According to the Law of Conservation of Mass,
mass of reactants = mass of products.
Mass of sodium = 5.6 g
Mass of chlorine = 8.0 g
Therefore, mass of sodium chloride = 5.6 g + 8.0 g = 13.6 g.
But option 3 is 14.4 g which is incorrect; correct sum is 13.6 g.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 with 13.6 g sodium chloride formed.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q41. In the electrolytic refining of copper, which of the following acts as the anode?

  1. (a) Copper sulphate solution
  2. (b) Carbon electrode
  3. (c) Pure copper plate
  4. (d) Impure copper block
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Impure copper block

Option 4 is correct.
In electrolytic refining of copper, the impure copper block acts as the anode.
During electrolysis, copper from the impure anode dissolves into copper ions and deposits on the pure copper cathode.
Carbon electrode is generally used as an inert cathode in some processes but here pure copper plate is cathode, impure copper block is the anode.
Copper sulphate solution is the electrolyte, not the electrode.
Therefore, the anode is the impure copper block.
Carbon and its Compounds · Allotropes of carbon

Q42. The difference in electrical conductivity between diamond and graphite arises because:

  1. (a) Graphite has delocalized electrons; diamond does not
  2. (b) Diamond has metallic bonding, graphite does not
  3. (c) Diamond has tightly packed ions
  4. (d) Both have free electrons, but in different numbers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Graphite has delocalized electrons; diamond does not

Graphite conducts electricity because it has delocalised electrons free to move.
Diamond does not conduct electricity due to the absence of free electrons.
Hence, the difference in electrical conductivity is due to graphite having delocalised electrons, whereas diamond does not.
Therefore, graphite is a good conductor, and diamond is an insulator.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q43. The solubility of gases in liquids generally:

  1. (a) Decreases with increase in temperature
  2. (b) Increases with increase in temperature
  3. (c) Is unaffected by temperature
  4. (d) First increases then decreases with increase in temperature
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Decreases with increase in temperature

The solubility of gases in liquids decreases as temperature increases.
This happens because higher temperature gives gas molecules more energy to escape from the liquid.
So, gas is less soluble when liquid is hotter.
Hence, option 1 is correct.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q44. Which of the following is the method used for refining metals such as copper, zinc and silver?

  1. (a) Smelting
  2. (b) Extraction
  3. (c) Distillation
  4. (d) Electrolytic refining
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Electrolytic refining

Option 4 is correct: Electrolytic refining is the method commonly used to purify metals such as copper, zinc, and silver.
In this process, impure metal is made the anode, and pure metal is deposited on the cathode.
This technique removes impurities effectively and produces high-purity metals.
Other options are related to different metal processing stages:
Smelting is used to extract metal from ore.
Extraction is the overall process of obtaining metal from ore.
Distillation is used to separate mixtures based on boiling points, not for metal refining.
Hence, electrolytic refining is the best method for refining copper, zinc, and silver.
Carbon and its Compounds · Isomerism

Q45. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched as structural isomers?
A) Pentane − 2-methylbutane
B) Butane − 2-methylpropane
C) Benzene − cyclohexene

  1. (a) A, B and C
  2. (b) A and C only
  3. (c) B and C only
  4. (d) A and B only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A and B only

Structural isomers have the same molecular formula but differ in the connectivity of atoms.
Pentane (C5H12) and 2-methylbutane (C5H12) have the same formula but different structure, so they are structural isomers.
Butane (C4H10) and 2-methylpropane (C4H10) also have the same molecular formula but different structure, hence structural isomers.
Benzene (C6H6) and cyclohexene (C6H10) have different molecular formulas, so they are not structural isomers.
Therefore, pairs A and B are structural isomers, but pair C is not.
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q46. Which property do isobars share?

  1. (a) Same atomic number
  2. (b) Same chemical properties
  3. (c) Same mass number
  4. (d) Same number of protons
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Same mass number

Isobars are atoms of different elements.
They have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
Hence, isobars share the same mass number.
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