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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 10 March 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 10 March 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Polity, Economics, Current Affairs, Geography, Physics.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 10 March 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Modern History (1) · Polity (2) · Economics (1) · Current Affairs (3) · Geography (1) · Physics (14) · Chemistry (12) · Biology (13)

Modern History (1)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q1. Keshab Chandra Sen was a prominent leader of which of the following reform movements in India?

  1. (a) Prarthana Samaj
  2. (b) Ramakrishna Mission
  3. (c) Brahmo Samaj
  4. (d) Arya Samaj
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Brahmo Samaj

Keshab Chandra Sen was a key leader of the Brahmo Samaj.
He worked extensively for social and religious reform in India.
Among the given options, Brahmo Samaj is the correct association.
Prarthana Samaj, Ramakrishna Mission, and Arya Samaj were led by other leaders.

Polity (2)

Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q2. The provision of 'Single citizenship' for all in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the constitution of which of the following countries?

  1. (a) US Constitution
  2. (b) British Constitution
  3. (c) Canadian Constitution
  4. (d) Australian Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) British Constitution

The concept of 'Single citizenship' in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the British Constitution.
India, being a former British colony, incorporated many such features from the British system.
Unlike the US which has separate state citizenships, India follows single citizenship for the entire country.
Thus, the provision is drawn directly from the British constitutional framework.
Amendments and Important Articles · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q3. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the mechanism and power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 368
  2. (b) Article 362
  3. (c) Article 372
  4. (d) Article 356
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 368

The power and procedure of Parliament to amend the Constitution is given under Article 368.
This article empowers Parliament to make amendments by way of adding, varying, or repealing any part of the Constitution.
Other articles like 362, 372, and 356 deal with different subjects such as protection of laws, transitional provisions, and President's Rule respectively.
Hence, the correct article dealing with constitutional amendments is Article 368.

Economics (1)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q4. The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) was strategically designed to accelerate India’s long-term growth by prioritizing which of the following sectors?

  1. (a) Heavy industries
  2. (b) Public health infrastructure
  3. (c) Renewable energy expansion
  4. (d) Village-level artisan development
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Heavy industries

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) aimed at rapid industrialisation.
It focused primarily on developing Heavy industries like steel, coal, and machinery.
This was based on the Mahalanobis model, prioritising capital goods over consumer goods.
The plan sought to build a strong industrial base for India’s future economic growth.
Other sectors like public health or renewable energy were not the main focus then.
Village-level artisan development was emphasised more in later plans or other schemes.
Hence, Heavy industries was the correct strategic priority.

Current Affairs (3)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q5. The Supreme Court dismissed which state's plea to halt Karnataka's Mekedatu project in November 2025?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Goa
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu

The Supreme Court dismissed the plea of Tamil Nadu to halt Karnataka's Mekedatu project.
The dispute relates to water sharing between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
In November 2025, the court ruled against Tamil Nadu's plea to stop the project.
Hence, Tamil Nadu's plea was dismissed by the Supreme Court.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q6. What is the main purpose of the vehicle-mounted Laser DEW MK-II(A) tested by DRDO in April 2025?

  1. (a) Anti-ballistic missile defense
  2. (b) Drone neutralization
  3. (c) Satellite launching
  4. (d) Space communication
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Drone neutralization

The vehicle-mounted Laser DEW MK-II(A) tested by DRDO is designed to neutralize aerial threats.
Its primary purpose is to target and destroy drones, enhancing battlefield security.
Therefore, it acts as a drone neutralization system, not for missile defense or satellite launching.
This aligns with modern defence focus on counter-drone technology.
Defence and Security - Current · Security operations

Q7. Which major operation did the Indian government launch in May 2025 following the terrorist attack in Pahalgam?

  1. (a) Operation Sindoor
  2. (b) Operation Trident
  3. (c) Operation Shakti
  4. (d) Operation Vijay
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Operation Sindoor

After thePahalgam terrorist attack (May 2025), India launchedOperation Sindoor
It focused onsecurity response and counter-terror actions in J&K
Result: Operation Sindoor

Geography (1)

Environment and Protected Areas · Biosphere reserves

Q8. Which distinguishing feature primarily differentiates a biosphere reserve from a national park in India, as per conservation and management objectives?

  1. (a) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) allow research, tourism, and local livelihoods in designated buffer and transition zones.
  2. (b) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) covers a smaller geographical area than national parks.
  3. (c) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) does not aim at conservation of biological diversity.
  4. (d) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) focuses exclusively on protection of wild animals.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biosphere Reserves (BRs) allow research, tourism, and local livelihoods in designated buffer and transition zones.

The key difference is that Biosphere Reserves (BRs) integrate conservation with sustainable use.
BRs have zonation: core, buffer, and transition areas allowing research, tourism, and local livelihoods.
National parks mainly focus on strict protection of biodiversity with limited human activity.
Therefore, BRs support both conservation and local community involvement, unlike national parks.

Physics (14)

Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q9. A constant force of 21 N moves a body through 3 m in its own direction. Work done is _____.

  1. (a) 7 J
  2. (b) 24 J
  3. (c) 18 J
  4. (d) 63 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 63 J

Work done (W) = Force (F) × Distance (d)
Given, F = 21 N, d = 3 m
So, W = 21 × 3 = 63 Joules
Motion · Distance and displacement

Q10. A farmer walks along the boundary of a square field with side 11 m, completing one round in 20 seconds. After walking for 3 minutes and 20 seconds, what is the magnitude of the displacement from his starting point?

  1. (a) 22 m
  2. (b) 11 m
  3. (c) 15.56 m
  4. (d) 0 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 0 m

The farmer walks along a square field with side 11 m.
One complete round means walking the perimeter of the square.
Perimeter = 4 × side = 4 × 11 = 44 m.
(He completes one round in 20 seconds, so his speed is 44 m)/(20 s) = (2.2 m)/(s.)
Total walking time = 3 minutes 20 seconds = 200 seconds.
Number of complete rounds in 200 seconds = (200)/(20) = 10 rounds.
After 10 complete rounds, he returns to the starting point.
Displacement is the straight-line distance from the starting point to the ending point.
Since he ends at the starting point, displacement = 0 m.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q11. A wire has a resistance of 10 Ω. If it is stretched to three times its original length (volume remaining constant), its new resistance will be _______.

  1. (a) 90 Ω
  2. (b) 10 Ω
  3. (c) 30 Ω
  4. (d) 3.33 Ω
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 90 Ω

Original resistance, R = 10 Ω
Length is stretched to 3 times, so new length, L2 = 3L1
Volume remains constant, so cross-sectional area changes accordingly
Volume formula
V = Area × Length
Initial volume
A1 × L1 = Final volume: A2 × L2
So, A2 = A1 × (L1 / L2) = A1 × (1/3)
Resistance R is given by R = ρ × (Length / Area)
New resistance R2 = ρ × (L2 / A2) = ρ × (3L1 / (A1 /3)) = ρ × (3L1 × 3 / A1) = 9 × (ρ × L1 / A1) = 9 × R
Hence, new resistance = 9 × 10 Ω = 90 Ω
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q12. An object has a mass of 12 kg and moves with a constant speed of 8 m/s. How much kinetic energy does it have?

  1. (a) 256 J
  2. (b) 768 J
  3. (c) 384 J
  4. (d) 512 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 384 J

Kinetic energy (KE) is calculated by the formula KE = 1/2 × mass × velocity².
Given: mass (m) = 12 kg, velocity (v) = 8 m/s.
Calculate KE = 1/2 × 12 × (8)²
= 6 × 64
= 384 Joules.
Therefore, the kinetic energy of the object is 384 J.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q13. An object with a mass of 15 kg is placed 8 m above the ground. How much potential energy does the object have? (Using g = 9.8 m/s²)

  1. (a) 1500 J
  2. (b) 1176 J
  3. (c) 980 J
  4. (d) 784 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1176 J

Potential energy (PE) is given by the formula
PE = m × g × h
Here, mass (m) = 15 kg,
gravitational acceleration (g) = (9.8 m)/(s²,)
height (h) = 8 m
Calculate PE = 15 × 9.8 × 8
PE = 15 × 78.4
PE = 1176 Joules
Therefore, potential energy of the object is 1176 J.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q14. How much work is required to move a charge of 3 C between two points that have a potential difference of 15 V?

  1. (a) 14 J
  2. (b) 45 J
  3. (c) 21 J
  4. (d) 5 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 45 J

The work done to move a charge (Q) across a potential difference (V) is given by: Work = Q × V
Here, Q = 3 C, V = 15 V
Work = 3 × 15 = 45 J
Therefore, the work required is 45 joules.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Refractive index and optical density

Q15. If the speed of light in a medium is 2.25 × 10⁸ m/s, its refractive index is ________.

  1. (a) 1.33
  2. (b) 1.50
  3. (c) 1.75
  4. (d) 0.75
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1.33

Refractive index, n = speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in medium.
Speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 10^8 m/s.
Given speed of light in medium = 2.25 × 10^8 m/s.
Calculate n = (3 × 10^8) / (2.25 × 10^8) = 4/3 = 1.33.
Hence, the refractive index of the medium is 1.33.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Defects of vision and their correction

Q16. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. Assuming the far point for normal vision is infinity, what is the required power (P) of the corrective lens?

  1. (a) +0.80 D
  2. (b) -1.25 D
  3. (c) +1.25 D
  4. (d) -0.80 D
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) -1.25 D

The far point of the myopic eye is 80 cm, so the lens must make distant objects appear at 80 cm.
Use lens formula: Power P = -100 / far point distance in cm for myopia.
P = -100 / 80 = -1.25 Diopters.
The negative sign indicates a concave lens is required.
Hence, the corrective lens power is -1.25 D.
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q17. The motion of an athlete running along a circular path with constant speed is an example of accelerated motion because ___________.

  1. (a) The athlete's speed is increasing
  2. (b) The direction of motion changes continuously
  3. (c) A constant external force is applied
  4. (d) The mass of the athlete is constant
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The direction of motion changes continuously

The athlete runs with constant speed but along a circular path.
In circular motion, velocity direction continuously changes even if speed is constant.
Acceleration depends on change in velocity (magnitude or direction).
Since direction changes, velocity changes, causing acceleration.
Hence, motion is accelerated due to continuous change in direction.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Spherical mirror terminology

Q18. The principal focus of a concave mirror is:

  1. (a) The pole of the mirror
  2. (b) The point where rays parallel to the principal axis converge after reflection
  3. (c) A point on the mirror where all rays meet
  4. (d) The center of curvature of the mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The point where rays parallel to the principal axis converge after reflection

The principal focus of a concave mirror is the point where rays parallel to its principal axis meet after reflection.
This is the defining property of the principal focus in concave mirrors.
It is not simply the pole, centre of curvature, or any random point on the mirror.
Thus, the principal focus is the convergence point of these reflected rays.
Answer complete.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q19. Two resistors of 5 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in series to a battery of 10 V. How much will flow through the circuit?

  1. (a) 0.4 A
  2. (b) 0.5 A
  3. (c) 2 A
  4. (d) 200 A
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 0.5 A

The total resistance in series is the sum of resistances.
R_total = 5 Ω + 15 Ω = 20 Ω
Current I = Voltage / Total resistance
I = 10 V / 20 Ω = 0.5 A
The current flowing through the circuit is 0.5 A.
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q20. Which of the following is NOT explained by the Universal Law of Gravitation?

  1. (a) Weight of objects on Earth
  2. (b) Formation of tides
  3. (c) Resistance offered by air to a moving object
  4. (d) Falling of apples from a tree
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Resistance offered by air to a moving object

The Universal Law of Gravitation explains the gravitational attraction between two masses.
It accounts for the weight of objects on Earth (gravitational force between Earth and object).
It explains the formation of tides due to gravitational pull of the Moon and Sun on Earth.
It also explains the falling of apples from a tree (gravity pulls objects towards Earth).
However, resistance offered by air to a moving object is due to air friction or drag, not gravitation.
Therefore, option 3 is NOT explained by the Universal Law of Gravitation.
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q21. Which of the following is the best example of uniform circular motion?

  1. (a) A racing car on a curved track slowing down
  2. (b) A yo-yo being swung in a vertical circle at changing speed
  3. (c) A roller coaster on a loop
  4. (d) Moon revolving around the Earth in a circular orbit
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Moon revolving around the Earth in a circular orbit

Uniform circular motion means motion in a circle at a constant speed.
Option 1: The car is slowing down, so speed changes, not uniform.
Option 2: Yo-yo speed changes; not uniform.
Option 3: Roller coaster speed varies on loop; not uniform.
Option 4: The Moon moves in nearly circular orbit at almost constant speed; best example.
Sound and Waves · Speed of sound in different media

Q22. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the speed of sound?
(i) The speed of sound decreases with an increase in the temperature of the medium.
(ii) The speed of sound in solid state is greater than the speed of sound in gaseous state under the same external conditions.
(iii) The speed of sound is independent of the properties of the medium through which it travels.

  1. (a) Both (i) and (iii)
  2. (b) Both (i) and (ii)
  3. (c) Only (iii)
  4. (d) Only (ii)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only (ii)

Statement (i) is incorrect: Speed of sound increases with an increase in temperature, because warmer air has molecules moving faster, aiding wave propagation.
Statement (ii) is correct: Speed of sound is greatest in solids, slower in liquids, and slowest in gases because particles are closer and more tightly bonded in solids.
Statement (iii) is incorrect: Speed of sound depends strongly on properties of the medium like density and elasticity.
Hence, only statement (ii) is true.

Chemistry (12)

Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q23. A scientist observed that an iron railing near the sea corroded faster than the same type of railing in a dry city. What could the main reason be?

  1. (a) The sea air is more humid, diluting the rusting process.
  2. (b) The city air has less oxygen, preventing rust.
  3. (c) Sea air contains salt and moisture, which accelerates rusting.
  4. (d) The iron near the sea is exposed to more sunlight.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sea air contains salt and moisture, which accelerates rusting.

Sea air contains salt and moisture.
Salt and moisture increase the rate of corrosion (rusting) of iron.
This accelerates the rusting process compared to dry city air.
Hence, the iron railing near the sea corrodes faster.
Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q24. What is the concentration of H⁺ ions in pure water at 25°C ?

  1. (a) 1×10−1 M
  2. (b) 1×10−5 M
  3. (c) 1×10−4 M
  4. (d) 1×10−7 M
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1×10−7 M

The concentration of H⁺ ions in pure water at 25°C is 1×10⁻⁷ M.
This is because water self-ionises slightly, producing equal concentrations of H⁺ and OH⁻ ions as 10⁻⁷ M each.
This is a fundamental property used to define neutral pH as 7 at 25°C.
Hence, the correct concentration is 1×10⁻⁷ M.
Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q25. Which condition is required for methane to undergo a substitution reaction with chlorine?

  1. (a) Heat
  2. (b) Acidic medium
  3. (c) Electric current
  4. (d) Sunlight
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sunlight

The substitution reaction of methane with chlorine is a photochemical reaction.
It requires energy to break the bonds in the chlorine molecule to initiate the reaction.
Sunlight provides the UV radiation needed to start the reaction.
Hence, the condition required is sunlight.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Elements and compounds

Q26. Which of the following correctly represents a diatomic element?

  1. (a) H
  2. (b) He
  3. (c) H₂
  4. (d) CO
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) H₂

Diatomic elements always consist of two atoms bonded together.
Hydrogen (H₂) is a common diatomic element.
Option 1 (H) is a single atom, not diatomic.
Option 2 (He) is a noble gas and monoatomic.
Option 4 (CO) is a compound, not a pure diatomic element.
Therefore, the correct representation of a diatomic element is H₂.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q27. Which of the following correctly represents the unit mass of a molecule of water (H₂O)?

  1. (a) 20 u
  2. (b) 10 u
  3. (c) 18 u
  4. (d) 16 u
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18 u

Molecular mass of water (H2O) is the sum of atomic masses of 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom.
Atomic mass of hydrogen (H) = 1 u.
Atomic mass of oxygen (O) = 16 u.
Total molecular mass = (2 × 1) + 16 = 18 u.
Hence, the unit mass of a molecule of water is 18 u.
Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q28. Which of the following is correct for substitution reaction?

  1. (a) A reaction where two compounds combine to form one.
  2. (b) A reaction where a compound breaks down into simpler substances.
  3. (c) A reaction where atoms or groups in a molecule are replaced by another atom or group.
  4. (d) A reaction where hydrogen is added to a compound.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A reaction where atoms or groups in a molecule are replaced by another atom or group.

Option 3 is correct for substitution reaction.
In a substitution reaction, an atom or a group in a molecule is replaced by another atom or group.
This is different from combination, decomposition, or addition reactions.
Hence, the correct definition is given by option 3.
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q29. Which of the following isotopes is used in the treatment of cancer?

  1. (a) Isotope of uranium
  2. (b) Isotope of cobalt
  3. (c) Isotope of carbon
  4. (d) Isotope of iodine
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Isotope of cobalt

The isotope of cobalt, specifically Cobalt-60, is used in cancer treatment.
Cobalt-60 emits gamma rays, which are used in radiotherapy to kill cancer cells.
Other isotopes listed are not commonly used for direct cancer treatment.
Hence, the correct choice is the isotope of cobalt.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q30. Which of the following methods is commonly used to extract metals low in the activity series, such as mercury and copper, from their ores?

  1. (a) Reduction with aluminium powder
  2. (b) Roasting
  3. (c) Electrolysis of molten ore
  4. (d) Displacement by carbon monoxide gas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Roasting

Metals low in activity series (Hg, Cu) are extracted byheating sulphide ores in air
This process is calledroasting
Example:
HgS → Hg + SO₂
Result: Roasting
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q31. Which of the following pairs are isotopes?

  1. (a) ¹⁶O and ¹⁶F
  2. (b) ⁴⁰Ca and ⁴⁰Ar
  3. (c) ¹²C and ¹⁴N
  4. (d) ¹H and ²H
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ¹H and ²H

Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
Option 4 has ¹H (hydrogen) and ²H (deuterium), which are isotopes of hydrogen.
Other options involve different elements (oxygen and fluorine, calcium and argon, carbon and nitrogen).
Thus, only option 4 contains isotopes.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Valency and chemical formulae

Q32. Which of the following pairs of compounds contain the same total number of atoms per molecule?

  1. (a) C₂H₆O and PCl₃
  2. (b) NH₃ and CH₄
  3. (c) H₂SO₄ and N₂O₅
  4. (d) CO₂ and H₂O₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) H₂SO₄ and N₂O₅

Count total atoms in CO₂: C (1) + O (2) = 3 atoms
Count total atoms in H₂O₂: H (2) + O (2) = 4 atoms
So options 4 total atoms are 3 and 4, not equal
Check others quickly:
Option 1: C₂H₆O (2+6+1=9), PCl₃ (1+3=4), not equal
Option 2: NH₃ (1+3=4), CH₄ (1+4=5), not equal
Option 3: H₂SO₄ (2+1+4=7), N₂O₅ (2+5=7), equal atoms
Therefore, Option 3 compounds have the same total number of atoms per molecule.
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q33. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the reaction of a metal ‘A’ with metal ‘B’ of its solution, in which metal ‘A’ displaces metal ‘B’?

  1. (a) ‘A’ is more reactive than ‘B’.
  2. (b) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ have the same reactivity.
  3. (c) The reaction cannot take place at all.
  4. (d) ‘B’ is more reactive than ‘A’.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ‘A’ is more reactive than ‘B’.

The metal 'A' displaces metal 'B' from its solution only if 'A' is more reactive than 'B'.
This is because a more reactive metal can replace a less reactive metal from its compound in the solution.
Hence, the correct statement is that 'A' is more reactive than 'B'.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q34. Why is electrolysis used for the extraction of metals high up in the reactivity series, such as sodium and aluminum?

  1. (a) Because these metals have low melting points
  2. (b) Because these metals form volatile oxides
  3. (c) Because these metals cannot be reduced by carbon or hydrogen
  4. (d) Because these metals exist in native state
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Because these metals cannot be reduced by carbon or hydrogen

Option 3 is correct.
Metals high in the reactivity series, such as sodium and aluminium, form very stable oxides due to their high reactivity.
These stable oxides cannot be reduced by carbon or hydrogen, which are common reducing agents in traditional extraction methods.
Therefore, electrolysis is used to extract these metals because it uses electrical energy to break down the compounds.
This process is effective where chemical reduction is not feasible for highly reactive metals.
Hence, electrolysis is necessary for isolating such metals from their ores.

Biology (13)

Reproduction · Fertilisation, embryo development and pregnancy

Q35. After fertilisation in humans, where does the growth and development of the embryo mainly occur?

  1. (a) Fallopian tube
  2. (b) Uterus
  3. (c) Vagina
  4. (d) Ovary
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uterus

After fertilisation, the zygote (fertilised egg) moves to the uterus.
The uterus provides the environment for the embryo's growth and development.
Therefore, embryo development mainly occurs in the uterus.
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q36. Choose a term to complete the analogy.
Chlorenchyma : Photosynthesis :: Aerenchyma : _______________

  1. (a) Food storage
  2. (b) Mechanical strength
  3. (c) Water absorption
  4. (d) Buoyancy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Buoyancy

Chlorenchyma is the plant tissue involved in photosynthesis.
Similarly, Aerenchyma tissue helps plants by providing buoyancy.
It contains large air spaces that aid in flotation and gas exchange.
Hence, the analogy is:
Chlorenchyma : Photosynthesis :: Aerenchyma : Buoyancy.
Ecology and Environment · Trophic levels and the 10 percent law

Q37. How much energy will be available to the tertiary consumer if a food chain begins with 5000 J of energy at the producer level?

  1. (a) 500 J
  2. (b) 50 J
  3. (c) 5 J
  4. (d) 0.5 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5 J

Energy transfer in a food chain follows the 10% energy transfer rule.
Only about 10% of energy is passed from one trophic level to the next.
Energy at producer level = 5000 J
Energy at primary consumer = 10% of 5000 = 500 J
Energy at secondary consumer = 10% of 500 = 50 J
Energy at tertiary consumer = 10% of 50 = 5 J
Hence, energy available to tertiary consumer is 5 J.
Cell - Structure and Function · Mitochondria

Q38. The deeply folded inner membrane of mitochondria helps to increase the __________ for ATP generation.

  1. (a) Surface area
  2. (b) Cell wall thickness
  3. (c) Volume
  4. (d) Colour
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Surface area

The inner membrane of mitochondria is highly folded into structures called cristae.
These folds increase the surface area available inside the mitochondria.
More surface area allows for more space where ATP generation can occur using enzymes and proteins.
Thus, the increased surface area facilitates efficient ATP production during cellular respiration.
Therefore, the correct answer is surface area.
Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q39. What causes only the animal cell to burst when both plant and animal cells are placed in pure water?

  1. (a) Plant cells have a rigid cell wall.
  2. (b) Plant cells can actively pump out water.
  3. (c) Animal cells have a thicker membrane.
  4. (d) Osmosis occurs only in animal cells.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Plant cells have a rigid cell wall.

Plant cells have a rigid cell wall that provides structural support.
This cell wall prevents plant cells from bursting when water enters by osmosis.
Animal cells lack this rigid cell wall; they have a flexible cell membrane only.
When animal cells are placed in pure water, water enters rapidly by osmosis, causing them to swell and burst.
Hence, only animal cells burst due to the absence of a cell wall.
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q40. Which characteristic best describes parenchyma?

  1. (a) Cells arranged in a single layer with guarding function.
  2. (b) Living cells with thin walls, capable of division in young tissues.
  3. (c) Rigid cells that withstand bending.
  4. (d) Dead at maturity with thick secondary walls.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Living cells with thin walls, capable of division in young tissues.

The parenchyma consists of living cells with thin walls.
These cells are capable of division, especially in young tissues, aiding growth and healing.
Unlike sclerenchyma or collenchyma, parenchyma cells are not rigid or dead at maturity.
Thus, the defining characteristic is their living, thin-walled nature and ability to divide.
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q41. Which of the following combinations best explains why waste generation has become a major environmental issue in modern societies?

  1. (a) Improved lifestyles leading to more disposable and non-biodegradable materials
  2. (b) Increased use of biodegradable materials and better disposal habits
  3. (c) Government regulations that limit the collection of biodegradable waste and its recycling
  4. (d) Reduced use of packaging materials and enhanced recycling
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Improved lifestyles leading to more disposable and non-biodegradable materials

Waste generation has increased mainly due to improved lifestyles.
Better living standards have led to more consumption of disposable goods.
Many of these goods are non-biodegradable, causing environmental problems.
Options 2, 3, and 4 suggest positive or restrictive measures, which don't explain waste increase.
Hence, improved lifestyles with increased use of disposable, non-biodegradable materials best explain the issue.
Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q42. Which of the following correctly differentiates ligament from tendon in human connective tissue?

  1. (a) Both ligament and tendon connect bones to bones but differ in color
  2. (b) Ligament connects muscle to bone, while tendon connects bone to bone
  3. (c) Ligament connects bone to bone; tendon connects muscle to bone
  4. (d) Tendon is elastic, while ligament is completely non-elastic
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ligament connects bone to bone; tendon connects muscle to bone

A ligament connects bone to bone, providing joint stability.
A tendon connects muscle to bone, helping transmit muscle force to move bones.
This is a fundamental difference in human connective tissue structure.
Hence, ligament links bone with bone; tendon links muscle with bone.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Food production and storage

Q43. Which of the following is NOT a factor responsible for grain storage losses?

  1. (a) Inadequate moisture and temperature
  2. (b) Rodents
  3. (c) Fungi and bacteria
  4. (d) High-quality packaging
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) High-quality packaging

Option 4, High-quality packaging, is NOT responsible for grain storage losses.
Inadequate moisture and temperature (Option 1) cause spoilage and loss.
Rodents (Option 2) damage stored grains by eating and contaminating them.
Fungi and bacteria (Option 3) cause decay through mould and rot.
High-quality packaging prevents losses, hence it is not a factor causing them.
Reproduction · Pollination and fertilisation in plants

Q44. Which of the following statements best explains the functional advantage of the pollen tube formation in the process of fertilisation in flowering plants?

  1. (a) It allows the pollen grain to attach firmly to the stigma for self-pollination to occur efficiently
  2. (b) It helps the pollen grain to release its stored nutrients for the ovule to develop into a seed
  3. (c) It ensures direct transfer of the male germ-cell to the ovary, preventing wastage of pollen grains
  4. (d) It enables the ovary to release egg cells toward the pollen grain for fusion to take place
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It ensures direct transfer of the male germ-cell to the ovary, preventing wastage of pollen grains

The pollen tube grows from the pollen grain on the stigma down through the style to reach the ovary.
It transports the male gamete directly to the ovule ensuring fertilisation.
This direct transfer prevents the wastage of pollen grains.
Option 3 correctly describes the functional advantage of pollen tube formation in fertilisation.
Tissues · Muscular tissue

Q45. Which of the following tissues is responsible for limb and body movement?

  1. (a) Epithelial tissue
  2. (b) Skeletal muscle
  3. (c) Smooth muscle
  4. (d) Cardiac muscle
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Skeletal muscle

The tissue responsible for limb and body movement is skeletal muscle.
Skeletal muscles are attached to bones and facilitate voluntary movements.
Other muscle tissues like smooth and cardiac muscle control involuntary actions and do not contribute to limb movement.
Epithelial tissue covers body surfaces but does not cause movement.
Hence, skeletal muscle is the correct answer.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q46. Why is regular and controlled irrigation important for crop production?

  1. (a) It increases soil salinity and prevents root growth.
  2. (b) It ensures optimal water supply at critical growth stages.
  3. (c) It reduces fertilizer use by supplying nutrients through water.
  4. (d) It makes plants dependent on artificial watering.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It ensures optimal water supply at critical growth stages.

Regular and controlled irrigation ensures water availability at the critical growth stages of crops.
This helps in optimal crop growth and yield by preventing water stress.
Hence, it is crucial for effective crop production.
Reproduction · Vegetative propagation

Q47. Why is vegetative propagation useful for agriculture purposes?

  1. (a) It requires seeds for every generation
  2. (b) It produces identical plants rapidly
  3. (c) It prevents diseases naturally
  4. (d) It increases genetic variation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It produces identical plants rapidly

Vegetative propagation produces genetically identical plants, ensuring uniformity in crops.
It allows rapid multiplication of plants without the need for seeds.
This helps maintain desirable traits in agriculture consistently.
Thus, it's widely used to quickly produce large numbers of the same plant type for agriculture.
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