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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 23 September 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 22 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 23 September 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Economics, Modern History, Polity, Ancient History, Geography.

📚 22 questions🗓️ 23 September 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Static GK (8) · Economics (5) · Modern History (2) · Polity (1) · Ancient History (2) · Geography (1) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (1) · Physics (1)

Static GK (8)

Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q1. Why "Space Situational Awareness (SSA)" program by ISRO important?

  1. (a) Tracks energy usage in orbit
  2. (b) Monitors space debris and protects Indian space assets
  3. (c) Observes black holes in the deep sky
  4. (d) Provides satellite TV services across Asia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Monitors space debris and protects Indian space assets

ISRO's Space Situational Awareness program tracks space objects, predicts collisions, and monitors space debris.
Its primary importance is to protect Indian satellites and space assets from collision threats.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q2. Which country helped develop Chabahar Port?

  1. (a) China
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) Russia
  4. (d) United States
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India

Chabahar Port is a deep-water seaport in Iran developed with significant financial and operational involvement from India.
It provides India access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q3. The Jagannath Temple in Puri is an example of which style of architecture?

  1. (a) Dravidian
  2. (b) Maratha
  3. (c) Nagara (Kalinga)
  4. (d) Vesara
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagara (Kalinga)

The Jagannath Temple in Puri (12th century) is a prime example of the Kalinga style, which is a regional variation of the Nagara school of architecture.
Dravidian style is found mainly in South India, Vesara is a hybrid style.
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q4. In Carnatic music, which type of composition is most commonly performed during a concert, focusing on a fixed melody and rhythm?

  1. (a) Varnam
  2. (b) Kriti
  3. (c) Raga Alapana
  4. (d) Tillana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kriti

In Carnatic music, the Kriti is the most prevalent composition during concerts, with a fixed melodic and rhythmic structure (Pallavi, Anupallavi, Charanam) set to a specific raga and tala.
Varnam is an opening item, Alapana is improvisation, Tillana is a fast finale.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q5. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the biomechanical coordination during the throwing phase of discus throw?

  1. (a) The shoulders and trunk continue rotating till 1 minute after the discus is released to maintain momentum.
  2. (b) The left foot remains fixed while the right foot rotates and stays straight throughout the motion.
  3. (c) Both knees stay straight during rotation, but the right knee bends after forward extension for balance.
  4. (d) The body's weight shifts entirely to the left foot while the right leg stabilizes the upper body lean.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both knees stay straight during rotation, but the right knee bends after forward extension for balance.

In discus throw, during rotation both knees remain relatively straight; after the forward extension and as the thrower comes through, the right knee bends to provide balance and support to the body.
The other options are biomechanically inaccurate.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q6. Which describes the "bunch start" position in sprinting?

  1. (a) Blocks 25–30 inches from line, feet parallel
  2. (b) Blocks 16–19 inches from line, rear toe and front heel aligned
  3. (c) Hips below shoulders, arms bent
  4. (d) Toes ahead of starting line
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Blocks 16–19 inches from line, rear toe and front heel aligned

In the bunch (or bullet) start used in sprinting, the starting blocks are placed close together — about 16-19 inches from the starting line — and the rear toe is aligned with the front heel.
This enables a quick start but is less stable than the medium/elongated start.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q7. Fill in the Blank:
Dumhal dancers wear ______ during the performance.

  1. (a) colorful robes
  2. (b) Masks
  3. (c) Veils
  4. (d) Bells
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) colorful robes

Dumhal is a traditional folk dance of the Wattal tribe of Kashmir, performed only by men.
The dancers wear long,colorful robes(cholas) and tall conical caps embroidered with beads and shells.
Personalities and Nicknames · Famous personalities and their fields

Q8. Dr. Tessy Thomas is also known as the 'Missile Woman of India'. She is best associated with which of the following achievements?

  1. (a) Led Agni-V project; began career at LRDE
  2. (b) Was Chairperson of ISRO
  3. (c) Founded a private satellite company
  4. (d) Headed HAL's aeronautics division
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Led Agni-V project; began career at LRDE

Dr. Tessy Thomas is the first woman to head a missile project in India.
She was the Project Director of Agni-V missile and began her career at DRDO's LRDE.
She was never Chairperson of ISRO, did not found a private satellite company, and did not head HAL.

Economics (5)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q9. The "Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)" aims to address the housing shortage in urban areas. Which of the following approaches is a key component of this scheme to achieve its objectives?

  1. (a) Primarily focusing on providing rental housing for migrant workers.
  2. (b) Providing financial assistance to beneficiaries for the construction, purchase, or enhancement of affordable housing.
  3. (c) Mandating the use of only indigenous building materials in all PMAY-U projects.
  4. (d) Concentrating housing development efforts in Tier-1 and Tier-2 cities.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Providing financial assistance to beneficiaries for the construction, purchase, or enhancement of affordable housing.

PMAY-U provides financial assistance through various components (CLSS, AHP, BLC, ISSR) to economically weaker sections, low-income groups, and middle-income groups for purchase, construction, or enhancement of affordable housing.
It does not focus only on rental or Tier-1/2 cities, nor mandate only indigenous materials.
Planning and NITI Aayog · NITI Aayog

Q10. Who joined as the CEO of NITI Aayog in February 2023?

  1. (a) Parameswaran Iyer
  2. (b) V.K. Paul
  3. (c) B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
  4. (d) Amitabh Kant
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) B.V.R. Subrahmanyam

B.V.R. Subrahmanyam, a 1987-batch IAS officer, joined as the CEO of NITI Aayog in February 2023, succeeding Parameswaran Iyer.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q11. Why is revenue deficit a concern for the economy?

  1. (a) It increases productive investment
  2. (b) It improves trade surplus
  3. (c) It indicates borrowing for current spending
  4. (d) It boosts capital creation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It indicates borrowing for current spending

Revenue deficit means that government's revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts, forcing it to borrow to meet current (non-capital) spending.
This is a concern because the borrowing does not create productive assets and adds to future repayment burden.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q12. The World Competitiveness Index primarily assesses a country's ability to:

  1. (a) Attract tourists
  2. (b) Create and maintain an environment for enterprises to compete
  3. (c) Innovation in cultural heritage
  4. (d) Conserve natural resources
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Create and maintain an environment for enterprises to compete

The IMD World Competitiveness Index (published annually) ranks countries on their ability to create and maintain an environment that sustains the competitiveness of enterprises.
It covers economic performance, government efficiency, business efficiency and infrastructure.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q13. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): One objective of liberalisation was to remove barriers to entry and growth of firms.
Reason(R): The license raj restricted entrepreneurial freedom and market competition.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion is correct: liberalisation in 1991 aimed at removing entry barriers and easing firm growth.
Reason is correct: the pre-1991 license raj indeed restricted entrepreneurial freedom and competition.
Reason properly explains Assertion — the removal of license-raj barriers was a key reason behind liberalisation.

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q14. The Ilbert Bill controversy of 1883-84 was related to:

  1. (a) The imposition of new taxes on agricultural produce.
  2. (b) The issue of allowing Indian judges to try European offenders in criminal cases.
  3. (c) The introduction of English as the medium of instruction in all schools.
  4. (d) The demarcation of boundaries between British India and princely states.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The issue of allowing Indian judges to try European offenders in criminal cases.

The Ilbert Bill (1883), introduced by Sir C.P. Ilbert, sought to allow senior Indian judges and magistrates to try European offenders in criminal cases.
It led to a major controversy and racial agitation by Europeans, eventually being passed in a modified form in 1884.
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q15. Which tribal leader from Jharkhand led the 'Ulgulan' (Great Rebellion) movement against British exploitation of tribal lands?

  1. (a) Sidhu Murmu
  2. (b) Kanhu Murmu
  3. (c) Birsa Munda
  4. (d) Tilka Manjhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Birsa Munda

Birsa Munda led the Ulgulan (Great Tumult) movement from 1899 to 1900 in the Chotanagpur region of present-day Jharkhand.
The movement opposed British exploitation of tribal lands and the introduction of the dikku (outsider) system.

Polity (1)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q16. Under the BSA, 2023, oral evidence must be:

  1. (a) Direct and related to what the witness saw or heard
  2. (b) Based on assumptions
  3. (c) Only admissible if in English
  4. (d) Hearsay only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Direct and related to what the witness saw or heard

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, oral evidence must be direct — what the witness himself saw, heard or perceived.
Hearsay evidence is generally not admissible.

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Ancient literature and authors

Q17. Which of the following scholars wrote the Ashtanga Sangraha?

  1. (a) Charaka
  2. (b) Sushruta
  3. (c) Bhaskaracharya
  4. (d) Vagbhata
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Vagbhata

The Ashtanga Sangraha is a classical Ayurvedic text authored by Vagbhata, who lived in the 6th century CE.
Charaka wrote Charaka Samhita and Sushruta wrote Sushruta Samhita.
Gupta Empire · Gupta art and temples

Q18. Which of the following istrueabout the Deogarh temple built in the early 6th century CE?

  1. (a) It follows a panchayatana layout and is an early example of Nagara style.
  2. (b) It was built by Chandela rulers and faces east like most Hindu temples.
  3. (c) Its main deity is Shiva in the form of Mahadeo.
  4. (d) It is entirely rock-cut with vaulted interiors.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It follows a panchayatana layout and is an early example of Nagara style.

The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Uttar Pradesh), built in the early 6th century CE by the Guptas, is one of the earliest examples of the Nagara style of temple architecture and follows the panchayatana layout (a main shrine surrounded by four subsidiary shrines).

Geography (1)

Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q19. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The city of Chennai is popularly known as the Detroit of India.
Statement II: The city is a hub of the petrochemical industry and a leader in petrochemical product manufacturing in India.
Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. (a) Both Statements are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
  2. (b) Both Statements are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
  3. (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  4. (d) Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Chennai is correctly known as the "Detroit of India" because of its concentration of automobile and auto-component industries.
It is not, however, primarily known as a petrochemical hub — that distinction belongs to cities such as Jamnagar, Vadodara, and Vishakhapatnam.
Hence Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.

Medieval History (1)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara dynasties and rulers

Q20. In the traditional accounts of Vijayanagara, who were referred to as narapati or "lord of men"?

  1. (a) Mughals
  2. (b) Deccan Sultans
  3. (c) Cholas
  4. (d) Rayas
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rayas

In Vijayanagara traditions, the Rayas (the kings of Vijayanagara) were called "narapati" or "lord of men", emphasising their dominance over their human (military) forces.
The Gajapati of Odisha was "lord of elephants" and the Ashvapati of Bahmani were "lords of horses".

Current Affairs (1)

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q21. Where was the 2nd Para Table Tennis National Ranking Championships 2024-25 held?

  1. (a) Jaipur, Rajasthan
  2. (b) Vadodara, Gujarat
  3. (c) Pune, Maharashtra
  4. (d) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vadodara, Gujarat

The 2nd Para Table Tennis National Ranking Championships 2024-25 was hosted at Vadodara in Gujarat.

Physics (1)

Modern Physics and Electronics · Radioactivity (alpha, beta, gamma) and half-life

Q22. Which nuclear decay alters atomic number but not mass?

  1. (a) Alpha Decay
  2. (b) Beta Decay
  3. (c) Gamma Decay
  4. (d) Fission
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Beta Decay

In beta decay, a neutron is converted to a proton (β−) or vice-versa (β+).
The atomic number changes by ±1 but the mass number remains unchanged.
Alpha decay changes both A and Z; gamma decay changes neither.
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