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Polity Miscellaneous PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

176 Polity Miscellaneous (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 176 questionsSSC 141 · Railway 35
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SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q1. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Admission defined — Section 15
  2. (b) Burden of proof — Section 118
  3. (c) Electronic records — Section 67
  4. (d) Previous judgments — Section 39
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Admission defined — Section 15

Answer: Option 1 — Admission defined — Section 15
Section 15 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 defines an admission (the old Section 17 of the Evidence Act).
The other three pairs point to the wrong sections: burden of proof is Section 104 and electronic records are Sections 61 to 63.
Previous judgments begin at Section 34 — Section 39 is the opinion of experts.
Revision note — Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
• Replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; assented to on 25 December 2023, in force from 1 July 2024 along with the BNS (in place of the IPC) and the BNSS (in place of the CrPC).
• It has 170 sections in 12 chapters, against 167 in the old Act.
• Key section numbers: admission defined — s.15; confession to a police officer not provable — s.23; previous judgments — ss.34 to 38; opinion of experts — s.39; oral evidence must be direct — s.55.
• Electronic and digital records are treated as documents (s.2) and as primary evidence (s.57); their admissibility and the certificate for them are in ss.61 to 63 (old s.65B).
• Burden of proof — s.104; presumption as to dowry death — s.118; estoppel — s.121; who may testify — s.124.
• Terms the Act does not define, such as electronic record and electronic signature, take their meaning from the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Do not mix these up
• Admission vs confession — every confession is an admission, but an admission of guilt in a criminal case is a confession (ss.22 to 24); admissions in general start at s.15.
• Section 39 vs Section 34 — s.39 is expert opinion; s.34 is where previous judgments become relevant.
Also asked from this topic: the law the BSA replaced (Indian Evidence Act, 1872); the number of sections in the BSA (170); the section that makes expert opinion relevant (Section 39).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q2. Which of the following best illustrates a controversial yet constitutionally upheld provision of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, that marks a significant shift from the earlier 2000 Act?

  1. (a) The 2015 Act prohibits all forms of juvenile detention and mandates only rehabilitative care for all children below 18, regardless of offence
  2. (b) The 2015 Act permits the trial of children aged 16–18 as adults for heinous offences, but only after a preliminary assessment by the Child Welfare Committee.
  3. (c) The Act allows a child aged 16–18 accused of a heinous offence to be tried as an adult, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board regarding the child's mental and physical capacity, understanding of consequences, and circumstances of the offence.
  4. (d) The 2015 Act categorically treats all offences committed by juveniles as bailable and non-cognizable, regardless of the nature or severity.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Act allows a child aged 16–18 accused of a heinous offence to be tried as an adult, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board regarding the child's mental and physical capacity, understanding of consequences, and circumstances of the offence.

Answer: Option 3 — A child aged 16–18 accused of a heinous offence may be tried as an adult, after a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board of capacity, understanding and circumstances.
Section 15 of the 2015 Act requires the Juvenile Justice Board, not the Child Welfare Committee, to make the preliminary assessment.
Only after that can the case go to the Children's Court for trial as an adult — the biggest departure from the 2000 Act, which treated every child under 18 alike.
Revision note — Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
• Passed by Parliament in December 2015 and in force from 15 January 2016; it replaced the JJ Act, 2000. The push for change came after the Delhi gang-rape case of December 2012.
• Offences are graded: petty (up to 3 years), serious (3 to 7 years) and heinous (7 years or more). Only a heinous offence by a child of 16 to 18 can lead to trial as an adult.
• The Juvenile Justice Board completes its preliminary assessment within 3 months.
• Even when tried as an adult, a child cannot be sentenced to death or life imprisonment without the possibility of release (Section 21).
• The Child Welfare Committee handles children in need of care and protection; the JJB handles children in conflict with law.
• The Act made the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) a statutory body and streamlined adoption; the 2021 amendment empowered the District Magistrate to issue adoption orders.
• The nodal ministry is the Ministry of Women and Child Development; the Act reads with Article 15(3) and Article 39(e) and (f) of the Constitution.
Do not mix these up
• Juvenile Justice Board vs Child Welfare Committee — the Board deals with a child accused of an offence; the Committee deals with a child who needs care and protection.
• Heinous vs serious offence — heinous means punishable with 7 years or more; serious means 3 to 7 years, and never invites adult trial.
Also asked from this topic: what the JJ Act 2015 allows in cases of heinous crimes (children of 16–18 to be tried as adults); the body that makes the preliminary assessment (Juvenile Justice Board).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 12 September 2026 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q3. Which section deals with the right to private defense in mob attack cases, as introduced in July 2024?

  1. (a) Section 44, BNS
  2. (b) Section 23, BNSS
  3. (c) Section 103, IPC
  4. (d) Section 20, BSA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Section 44, BNS

Answer: Option 1 — Section 44, BNS
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024.
Its Section 44 (old IPC Section 106) covers a deadly assault where the defender cannot save himself without risking harm to an innocent person — his right of private defence extends to running that risk.
The section's own illustration is a person attacked by a mob trying to murder him — he may fire on the mob even though children mingled with it may be harmed.
Revision note — Right of private defence under the BNS
• The right of private defence is in Sections 34 to 44 of the BNS (old IPC Sections 96 to 106); nothing done in private defence is an offence (Section 34).
• Section 35 — every person may defend his own body and property, and another's, against an offence.
• Section 38 lists when defence of the body may extend to causing death — assault threatening death, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, acid attack, etc.
• The three new criminal laws — BNS (replaces IPC 1860), BNSS (replaces CrPC 1973) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replaces Indian Evidence Act 1872).
• All three were passed in December 2023 and enforced from 1 July 2024.
• BNS: 358 sections, 20 chapters (IPC had 511); BNSS: 531 sections (CrPC 484); BSA: 170 sections (Evidence Act 167).
• Key BNS sections: 103 (murder), 111 (organised crime), 112 (petty organised crime), 113 (terrorist act), 152 (replaces sedition); community service is a new punishment.
• Section 103 of the old IPC was a different thing — the right of private defence of property extending to causing death.
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS vs BSA — BNS defines offences and punishments; BNSS lays down procedure (arrest, bail, trial); BSA governs evidence.
• Section 103 IPC vs Section 103 BNS — the same number means private defence of property in the IPC but murder in the BNS.
Also asked from this topic: the law that replaced the IPC 1860 (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita); the number of sections in the BNS (358); the date the three new criminal laws came into force (1 July 2024).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 11 September 2026 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q4. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, the term “Document” is defined under which section?

  1. (a) Section 2(6)
  2. (b) Section 2(8)
  3. (c) Section 2(10)
  4. (d) Section 2(12)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Section 2(8)

Answer: Option 2 — Section 2(8)
All the definitions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 sit in Section 2, listed in alphabetical order.
“Document” is defined in Section 2(8) — matter expressed or described on any substance by letters, figures or marks, and it expressly includes electronic and digital records.
Revision note — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• The BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860; it received Presidential assent on 25 December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024.
• It has 358 sections in 20 chapters, against 511 sections in the IPC.
• Companion laws: the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 replaced the CrPC, 1973, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
• The alphabetical run in Section 2 gives 2(6) death, 2(8) document, 2(10) gender and 2(12) Government.
• Section 111 defines organised crime, Section 112 petty organised crime, Section 113 a terrorist act, and Section 103(2) covers mob lynching.
• Community service appears as a punishment for the first time in Indian criminal law, under Section 4.
• The three Bills were examined by the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs chaired by Brij Lal.
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS vs BSA — the BNS is the substantive law of offences and punishments, the BNSS the procedural law, and the BSA the law of evidence.
• BNS 2(8) vs IPC Section 29 — the definition of “document” is substantially the same; only the numbering changed, with electronic records now written in.
Also asked from this topic: the law that replaced the IPC, 1860 (BNS); the number of sections in the BNS (358); the section on petty organised crime (112).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 11 September 2026 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q5. In BNS 2023, which crime can attract capital punishment by explicit provision post July 2024?

  1. (a) Mob Lynching
  2. (b) Theft
  3. (c) Cheating
  4. (d) Computer Hacking
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mob Lynching

Answer: Option 1 — Mob Lynching
Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 covers murder by a group of five or more persons on grounds of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief.
The punishment is death or life imprisonment, and fine.
Theft, cheating and hacking carry only imprisonment and fine.
Revision note — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• Replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860; enacted December 2023, in force from 1 July 2024, along with the BNSS (replacing the CrPC) and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replacing the Evidence Act).
• 358 sections in 20 chapters against the IPC's 511; mob lynching is defined as a separate offence for the first time.
• New offences: organised crime (Section 111), petty organised crime (112), terrorism (113), snatching (304), sexual intercourse by deceitful means (69).
• Sedition (IPC 124A) replaced by Section 152 — acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• Community service introduced as a punishment for petty offences; the code is described as victim-centric.
• Other capital offences: murder (103(1)), rape of a girl under 12 (65(2)), gang rape of a woman under 18 (70(2)).
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS — BNS is the substantive law (offences and punishments); BNSS is the procedural law (arrest, trial, FIR).
• Mob lynching vs rioting — rioting is force by an unlawful assembly; lynching is murder or grievous hurt by five or more on grounds like caste or community.
Also asked from this topic: the punishment for mob lynching under the BNS (death or life imprisonment); the number of sections in the BNS (358); the law replaced by the BNS (Indian Penal Code, 1860).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q6. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, how is a "cognizable offence" defined?

  1. (a) An offence in which the accused must be released on bail immediately.
  2. (b) An offence where a complaint must be filed only by a Magistrate.
  3. (c) An offence for which a police officer can arrest without a warrant.
  4. (d) An offence that is only triable in Sessions Court.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) An offence for which a police officer can arrest without a warrant.

Answer: Option 3 — An offence for which a police officer can arrest without a warrant.
In the BNSS, 2023 a cognizable offence is one in which a police officer may arrest without a warrant, carrying forward the old CrPC definition.
For such an offence the police may also register an FIR and begin investigation without a Magistrate's order.
Revision note — Cognizable offences and the BNSS, 2023
• The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and came into force on 1 July 2024; it has 531 sections.
• An FIR for a cognizable offence is registered under Section 173 of the BNSS, the old Section 154 of the CrPC.
• In a non-cognizable offence the police need the Magistrate's order to investigate and cannot arrest without a warrant.
• Examples — cognizable: murder, rape, dowry death, kidnapping, theft. Non-cognizable: defamation, public nuisance, simple hurt.
• The BNSS allows a Zero FIR at any police station and an e-FIR by electronic communication, signed by the informant within three days.
• Section 105 makes audio-video recording of search and seizure mandatory, with the recording sent to the Magistrate without delay.
• Under Section 187, a Magistrate may authorise detention for up to 90 days for offences punishable with death, life or 10 years or more, and 60 days otherwise; then default bail follows.
• The three new criminal laws of 2023: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (358 sections) for the IPC 1860, the BNSS for the CrPC 1973, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam for the Evidence Act 1872.
Do not mix these up
• Cognizable vs non-cognizable — arrest without a warrant against arrest with one; the first is the more serious class.
• Cognizable vs bailable — the two are separate tests; a cognizable offence decides arrest powers, while bailable decides whether bail is a matter of right.
Also asked from this topic: the BNSS reform on FIRs (e-FIRs are permitted); the section mandating video-recording of search and seizure (Section 105).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q7. Under the BNS 2023 (from July 2024), what is the punishment for death as a result of organised crime?

  1. (a) Imprisonment up to 2 years
  2. (b) Community service
  3. (c) Death or life imprisonment
  4. (d) Deportation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Death or life imprisonment

Answer: Option 3 — Death or life imprisonment
Section 111(2)(a) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with an organised crime that results in the death of any person.
The punishment there is death or imprisonment for life, with a fine of not less than ten lakh rupees.
Organised crime is defined and punished as a distinct offence for the first time in general criminal law.
Revision note — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• The BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860 and came into force on 1 July 2024. It has 358 sections against the IPC's 511, and adds about 20 new offences.
• Section 111 covers organised crime — kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, land grabbing, cyber-crime and trafficking by a syndicate.
• Where the organised crime does not cause death, the term is 5 years to life, with a fine of at least five lakh rupees.
• Section 112 introduces petty organised crime — theft, snatching, cheating, unauthorised ticket selling, betting and sale of examination papers by a gang — punishable with 1 to 7 years and fine.
• Section 103(2) makes mob lynching, that is murder by a group of five or more on grounds of race, caste, community, sex, language or personal belief, punishable with death or life imprisonment.
• Section 113 defines a terrorist act, and Section 152 replaces the old offence of sedition with acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• Community service appears as a punishment for the first time in Indian criminal law, for six petty offences.
• Its two companions are the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (replacing the CrPC, 1973) and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872).
Do not mix these up
• Section 111 vs Section 112 — 111 is organised crime by a syndicate; 112 is petty organised crime such as gang theft or snatching.
• BNS vs BNSS vs BSA — BNS is the substantive law of offences, BNSS the procedure, BSA the law of evidence.
Also asked from this topic: the punishment for mob lynching under the BNS (death or life imprisonment); the law that replaced the IPC (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita); a petty organised crime (theft by a gang).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q8. Which phrase now replaces “sedition” under new criminal laws as of July 2024?

  1. (a) Sedition
  2. (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
  3. (c) Treason
  4. (d) Political Offence
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India

Answer: Option 2 — Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 dropped the colonial offence of sedition (Section 124A of the IPC).
In its place Section 152 punishes acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Revision note — The three new criminal laws
• All three were enacted on 25 December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024.
• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860 — substantive criminal law, 358 sections.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 — procedure, 531 sections.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 — evidence, 170 sections.
• Section 152 of the BNS covers secession, armed rebellion, subversive activities and separatist feeling; the word sedition no longer appears anywhere in the statute.
• New offences include terrorist act (Section 113), organised crime (Section 111), petty organised crime (Section 112) and mob lynching; community service appears as a punishment for the first time.
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS vs BSA — BNS defines the offences, BNSS lays down the procedure, BSA governs evidence.
• Old Section 124A vs new Section 152 — 124A punished disaffection towards the Government; Section 152 targets acts against the sovereignty, unity and integrity of the nation.
Also asked from this topic: what Section 152 of the BNS covers (acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India); the offence the BNS removed (sedition); the law replacing the IPC (BNS).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q9. What is notably addressed under the new laws to improve witness security for the first time in July 2024?

  1. (a) Anonymous testimony
  2. (b) Witness protection guidelines
  3. (c) Police protection for all
  4. (d) Relocation to another state
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Witness protection guidelines

Answer: Option 2 — Witness protection guidelines
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in force from 1 July 2024, makes witness protection a statutory duty for the first time.
Section 398 requires every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme.
Revision note — Witness protection and the BNSS, 2023
• Section 398 of the BNSS obliges every State Government to notify a Witness Protection Scheme; the old CrPC, 1973 had no such provision at all.
• Until then protection rested on the Witness Protection Scheme, 2018, approved by the Supreme Court in Mahender Chawla v. Union of India (2018).
• The BNSS allows evidence and testimony to be recorded by audio-video electronic means, so a witness need not always depose face to face with the accused.
• Section 105 makes audio-video recording of search and seizure compulsory, and Section 173 allows an e-FIR from any police station (zero FIR).
• The statement of a rape survivor is to be recorded by a woman magistrate or a woman police officer, with audio-video recording.
• The BNSS has 531 sections, replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and fixes timelines such as judgment within 45 days of the close of trial.
Do not mix these up
• Witness protection vs anonymous testimony — the BNSS provides a protection scheme and shielded or electronic deposition; it does not allow a witness to stay anonymous to the court.
• BNSS vs BSA — the BNSS is the procedure code, which is where witness protection sits; the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam decides what counts as evidence.
Also asked from this topic: the law that replaced the CrPC, 1973 (BNSS); its change for faster justice (electronic recording of witness testimony); the number of BNSS sections (531).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 9 September 2026 Shift 1 · Pre-2024 criminal and procedural law (IPC, CrPC, Evidence Act)

Q10. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following statements most accurately describes the rule regarding the admissibility of confessions made to police officers?

  1. (a) A confession made to a police officer is admissible if recorded in the presence of a magistrate.
  2. (b) A confession made to a police officer is admissible only if it leads to the discovery of a fact under Section 27.
  3. (c) All confessions made to police officers are admissible as per Section 25.
  4. (d) A confession made to a police officer is admissible if made voluntarily without any inducement, threat or promise
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A confession made to a police officer is admissible only if it leads to the discovery of a fact under Section 27.

Answer: Option 2 — A confession made to a police officer is admissible only if it leads to the discovery of a fact under Section 27
A confession made to a police officer is barred outright, however voluntary it was.
The one opening is Section 27, where the information given leads to the discovery of a fact.
Revision note — Confessions in the law of evidence
• Section 25, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 — no confession made to a police officer shall be proved against a person accused of any offence. A blanket bar.
• Section 26 — a confession made while in police custody is not provable unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
• Section 27 — the exception. Only so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved.
• Section 27 rests on confirmation by subsequent facts: the recovery itself shows that the statement was true.
• Section 24 is the voluntariness test — a confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant. It applies to confessions made to anyone.
• A confession is recorded before a Magistrate under Section 164 CrPC, now Section 183 of the BNSS, 2023.
• Current law: the 1872 Act is replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, in force from 1 July 2024. Sections 25 to 27 are now carried by Section 23 and its proviso.
Do not mix these up
• Section 25 vs Section 26 — Section 25 bars a confession made to a police officer anywhere; Section 26 bars one made in police custody to anybody.
• Section 24 vs Section 25 — Section 24 asks whether the confession was voluntary; Section 25 does not ask, it shuts the police confession out either way.
• Confession vs recovery — under Section 27 only the part that led to the discovery is proved, never the whole confession.
Also asked from this topic: the law replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam); the date the new criminal laws took effect (1 July 2024); the law replacing the IPC (BNS).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 9 September 2026 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q11. After July 2024, what is the focus of all three laws introduced (BNS, BNSS, BSA)?

  1. (a) Citizen rights and justice
  2. (b) Harshest punishments
  3. (c) Revenue collection
  4. (d) Taxes simplification
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Citizen rights and justice

Answer: Option 1 — Citizen rights and justice
The three new criminal laws are built around the citizen. The declared shift is from danda (punishment) to nyaya (justice) — a victim-centric, decolonised criminal justice system.
Revision note — The three new criminal laws
• Passed in December 2023 and in force from 1 July 2024, piloted by the Ministry of Home Affairs under Amit Shah.
• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860; 358 sections in 20 chapters, against the IPC's 511.
• The BNS is the substantive law: it defines offences and fixes punishments.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; 531 sections. It is the procedural law, covering investigation and trial.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; 170 sections. It governs evidence, with detailed rules for digital and electronic records.
• Citizen-centric features: Zero FIR at any police station regardless of jurisdiction (Section 173, BNSS), e-FIR, and a compulsory forensic team visit for offences carrying 7 years or more.
• More of them: charges framed within 60 days, judgment within 45 days of the trial ending, videography of search and seizure, and community service for petty offences.
• Section 112 of the BNS defines petty organised crime — theft, snatching, cheating, unauthorised ticket selling and the like committed by a member of a gang.
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS vs BSA — BNS is offences (was the IPC), BNSS is procedure (was the CrPC), BSA is evidence (was the Evidence Act).
• A memory hook: Suraksha points to the procedure code and Sakshya means evidence, so BSA is the evidence law.
Also asked from this topic: the law that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023);
the number of sections in the BNS (358); the branch of law the BNS consolidates (criminal substantive law);
what a Zero FIR allows (an FIR at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction);
the law that modernises criminal procedure and investigation (BNSS).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 9 September 2026 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q12. Which act provides the legislative framework for the use of electronic evidence in courts from July 2024?

  1. (a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  2. (b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
  3. (c) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
  4. (d) Uniform Civil Code
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

Answer: Option 3 — Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 from 1 July 2024.
It is the evidence law, and it is the one that lays down how electronic and digital records are admitted and authenticated.
Revision note — The three new criminal laws
• All three were passed in December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024.
• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaced the IPC, 1860, and Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaced the CrPC, 1973.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
• Section counts: BNS 358, BNSS 531, BSA 170.
• The BSA gives an electronic record the same status as a document.
• Under Section 63, an electronic record must carry a certificate in the form given in the Schedule, signed by the person in charge of the device and by an expert.
• For terms it does not define — electronic record, electronic signature — the BSA takes the meanings from the Information Technology Act, 2000.
• Section 39 (old Section 45 of the Evidence Act) makes the opinion of an expert — forensic, handwriting, finger-impression — a relevant fact.
• The stated aim of the package, introduced by Home Minister Amit Shah, was to decolonise and modernise criminal justice and to align it with forensic science and digital technology.
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS vs BSA — Nyaya = offences and punishments (IPC), Nagarik Suraksha = procedure (CrPC), Sakshya = evidence (Evidence Act).
• Indian Evidence Act 1872 vs BSA 2023 — the 1872 Act stood repealed on 1 July 2024, but proceedings already begun before that date continue under the old law.
Also asked from this topic: the law that replaced the Indian Penal Code (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita); the framework the BSA aligns with for electronic records (the IT Act, 2000); the witnesses formally recognised in the BSA (expert witnesses such as forensic analysts).
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 10 August 2026 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q13. Which legislation is primarily associated with the SHe-Box platform highlighted in government communications during 2026?

  1. (a) Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013
  2. (b) Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
  3. (c) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
  4. (d) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013

Answer: Option 1 — Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013
The SHe-Box portal implements thePOSH Act, 2013→ Option 1.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 6 August 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q14. The SHe-Box platform highlighted in government communications during 2026 is primarily associated with the implementation of which legislation?

  1. (a) Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
  2. (b) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
  3. (c) Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013
  4. (d) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013

Answer: Option 3 — Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013
The SHe-Box portal implements thePOSH Act, 2013→ Option 3.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 June 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q15. The Right to Information Act 2005 was extended to the whole of India except which of the following state/UT at the time of enactment in 2005?

  1. (a) Tripura
  2. (b) Mizoram
  3. (c) West Bengal
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir

Topic: Right to Information Act, 2005
The RTI Act 2005 was enacted to provide citizens access to information under government control.
At the time of enactment in 2005, the Act was extended to the whole of Indiaexcept Jammu and Kashmir.
J&K had special status underArticle 370, which allowed it to have its own constitution and laws.
J&K later enacted its own RTI law in 2009.
After abrogation of Article 370 in 2019, the central RTI Act now applies to J&K.
Answer: Option 4 → Jammu and Kashmir
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q16. Who is the final appellate authority under the Right to Information Act?

  1. (a) Lokpal
  2. (b) Supreme Court
  3. (c) Central Information Commission
  4. (d) High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Central Information Commission

Right to Information Act, 2005 - Appellate Structure
The RTI Act establishes a two-tier appellate system:
First Appeal:Filed with First Appellate Authority (FAA) within the public authority.
Second Appeal:Filed withCentral Information Commission (CIC)at central level orState Information Commission (SIC)at state level.
The Information Commission is thefinal appellate authorityunder RTI Act.
Courts can only review decisions through judicial review, not as appellate authority.
Answer: Option 3 → Central Information Commission
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 2 · Political theory terms (sovereignty, secularism, federalism)

Q17. Article 371A of the Constitution of India states 'privilege of special status was also accorded to the North-Eastern State of Nagaland'. This represents which federalism?

  1. (a) Asymmetric federalism
  2. (b) Competitive federalism
  3. (c) Centralised federalism
  4. (d) Bargaining federalism
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Asymmetric federalism

Topic: Types of Federalism in India
Article 371Agrants special provisions to Nagaland regarding:
- Religious/social practices
- Customary law and procedure
- Ownership and transfer of land
- Parliament laws require state assembly approval
Asymmetric Federalism:Different states have different powers and autonomy levels.
Examples: Art 370 (J&K - now abrogated), Art 371A-371J (NE states)
This unequal distribution of powers = Asymmetric federalism
Answer: Option 1 → Asymmetric federalism
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q18. Which Indian state became the first in the country to enact its own Right to Information Act in 1997?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Topic:Right to Information Act - Historical Development
Tamil Naduwas the first Indian state to enact its own RTI Act in1997.
This was before the national RTI Act 2005 came into force.
Tamil Nadu set a precedent for transparency and accountability in governance.
Answer: Option 4 → Tamil Nadu
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 15 June 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q19. As reiterated by the Supreme Court of India in September 2025, under which legislation does a Tribunal have the authority to order the eviction of a child from the property of a senior citizen in cases of failure to maintain them?

  1. (a) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2006
  2. (b) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2009
  3. (c) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
  4. (d) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2008
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007

Topic: Senior Citizens Rights & Maintenance
TheMaintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007provides legal protection to senior citizens.
Key provisions include:
• Tribunals can order maintenance from children
• Authority to evict children who fail to maintain parents
• Covers property rights and welfare of senior citizens
Supreme Court (September 2025) reiterated these powers under the 2007 Act.
Answer: Option 3 → Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 14 June 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q20. Consider the following statements about Right to Information (RTI) and choose the correct option.
I. RTI has become a weapon to ensure maximum fairness and transparency.
II. RTI Act has also been used to enhance the efficiency of the working of the Consumer Forums.

  1. (a) Both I and II are correct
  2. (b) Only I is correct
  3. (c) Neither I nor II is correct
  4. (d) Only II is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both I and II are correct

Right to Information Act, 2005
Statement I Analysis:
RTI empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities.
It promotes transparency and accountability in governance.
Acts as a tool to check corruption and ensure fairness.
Statement I is CORRECT.
Statement II Analysis:
RTI has been used to obtain information about Consumer Forums.
Citizens can track case status, delays, and functioning.
This has improved efficiency and accountability of Consumer Forums.
Statement II is CORRECT.
Answer: Option 1 → Both I and II are correct
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 13 June 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q21. What was the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, renamed as in 1976?

  1. (a) Civil Rights Enforcement Act
  2. (b) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
  3. (c) Fundamental Rights Protection Act
  4. (d) Social Justice Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955

Topic: Constitutional and Social Reforms
TheUntouchability (Offences) Act, 1955was enacted to abolish untouchability and make its practice a punishable offense.
In1976, this Act was renamed as theProtection of Civil Rights Act, 1955to give it a broader scope.
The Act provides punishment for preventing persons from entering public places, using wells, and other discriminatory practices.
Answer: Option 2 → Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
SSC GD 2026 – 26 May 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q22. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) has plea bargaining been made time-bound?

  1. (a) 290
  2. (b) 558
  3. (c) 258
  4. (d) 330
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 290

Correct Answer: Section 290 — Option (a)
Under Section 290 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), plea bargaining has been made time-bound. About Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023: The BNSS 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973; Came into effect on July 1, 2024; Together with Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) — replacing IPC, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) — replacing Indian Evidence Act, these three new laws replaced India's colonial-era criminal justice laws; About Plea Bargaining: Plea bargaining is a process where the accused pleads guilty (or nolo contendere) in exchange for a lesser sentence or reduced charges; In CrPC (old law): Plea bargaining was introduced via the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 under Chapter XXIA (Sections 265A to 265L); In BNSS 2023 — Section 290: Plea bargaining is now included under Section 290 of BNSS; It has been made TIME-BOUND, meaning there are specific timeframes within which the plea bargaining process must be completed; This ensures faster disposal of cases and reduces court backlogs; Applicability: Plea bargaining applies to offences not punishable with death penalty or life imprisonment; Victims must also give consent for plea bargaining; Benefits of plea bargaining: Reduces trial time and court burden; Saves judicial resources; Provides faster resolution for the accused; Key feature of BNSS on plea bargaining: Time-bound process to ensure speedy justice delivery.
Option (b) Section 558 — Incorrect: Section 558 of the BNSS is not the section related to plea bargaining; plea bargaining is specifically covered under Section 290 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Option (c) Section 258 — Incorrect: Section 258 of the BNSS does not deal with plea bargaining; the time-bound plea bargaining provision is under Section 290 of the BNSS 2023.
Option (d) Section 330 — Incorrect: Section 330 of the BNSS does not relate to plea bargaining; Section 290 is the correct provision for time-bound plea bargaining under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q23. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS) has focused on which type of justice system?

  1. (a) Colonial Penal Code
  2. (b) Jury-based trial
  3. (c) Accused-oriented leniency
  4. (d) Victim-centric and restorative justice
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Victim-centric and restorative justice

Correct Answer: Victim-centric and restorative justice — Option (d)
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS) focuses on victim-centric and restorative justice. About Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023: The BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 and came into effect from 1 July 2024; Part of the three criminal law reforms: BNS (replaced IPC), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita/BNSS (replaced CrPC), Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam /BSA (replaced Indian Evidence Act); Key focus — Victim-centric justice: BNS shifts the focus from punishment- centric to victim-centric approach; Restorative justice: Emphasis on restitution to victims, community service, and rehabilitation; New provisions: Organized crime and terrorism defined explicitly; Community service introduced as punishment for minor offences; Trial in absentia allowed for those who flee; Terrorism given a broader definition; Sedition provisions modified; Fast-track trials for certain offences; Differences from IPC: IPC was a colonial law focused on maintaining British colonial order; BNS focuses on Indian constitutional values and victim welfare; IPC had 511 sections; BNS has 358 sections (restructured and rationalized); Historical context: IPC was drafted by the First Law Commission chaired by Lord Macaulay (1834) and enacted in 1860 — a colonial penal code.
Option (a) Colonial Penal Code — Incorrect: The BNS was specifically designed to REPLACE the Colonial Penal Code (IPC 1860) — the BNS moves AWAY from colonial justice; calling it a colonial penal code is the opposite of what BNS represents.
Option (b) Jury-based trial — Incorrect: India abolished the jury system in 1960 after the Nanavati case; BNS does NOT introduce jury-based trials; the Indian justice system uses judges to decide cases; this option has no connection to BNS. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Accused-oriented leniency — Incorrect: BNS does not focus on accused-oriented leniency — on the contrary, it introduces stricter provisions for serious crimes; the focus is on victim-centric justice, not on being lenient to the accused.
SSC GD 2026 – 22 May 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q24. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the investigation of sexual offences is required to be completed within which of the following period?

  1. (a) 6 months
  2. (b) 1 year
  3. (c) 2 months
  4. (d) 3 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2 months

Correct Answer: 2 months — Option (c)
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the investigation of sexual offences must be completed within 2 months. About BNSS: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973; Enacted in December 2023 and came into force on July 1, 2024; It is one of three new criminal laws that replaced colonial- era laws: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) — replaced Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) — replaced Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973; Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) — replaced Indian Evidence Act, 1872; Timeline for investigation of sexual offences under BNSS: Section 193 of BNSS mandates that investigation of rape and other sexual offences must be completed within 2 months from the date of recording of information (FIR); This provision aims to ensure speedy justice for victims of sexual crimes; Trial: The BNSS also mandates that trial of rape cases must be completed within 2 years; Significance: The 2-month investigation deadline reflects India's commitment to expediting justice for sexual offence victims, following landmark cases like the Nirbhaya case (2012) which exposed delays in the criminal justice system.
Option (a) 6 months — Incorrect: The BNSS mandates a 2-month timeline for investigation of sexual offences, not 6 months; 6 months is a longer period that does not match the BNSS provision.
Option (b) 1 year — Incorrect: The BNSS requires investigation of sexual offences to be completed within 2 months — 1 year is far beyond the statutory timeline prescribed under BNSS.
Option (d) 3 months — Incorrect: The correct timeline under BNSS for investigation of sexual offences is 2 months, not 3 months; 3 months is not the prescribed investigation period under BNSS.
SSC GD 2026 – 19 May 2026 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q25. Under Section 290 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charges can an application be made for plea bargaining?

  1. (a) 70
  2. (b) 30
  3. (c) 80
  4. (d) 100
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 30

Correct Answer: 30 days — Option (b)
Under Section 290 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 (which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, CrPC 1973), an accused person can apply for plea bargaining within 30 days from the date of framing of charges. Plea bargaining allows an accused to negotiate a mutually agreeable disposition of the case, which may include pleading guilty to a lesser charge or receiving a lighter sentence. BNSS 2023 came into force on July 1, 2024, along with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), replacing the colonial-era IPC, CrPC, and Evidence Act respectively.
Option (a) 70 days — Incorrect: The period for filing plea bargaining under BNSS 2023 Section 290 is 30 days, not 70 days from the date of framing of charges.
Option (c) 80 days — Incorrect: The correct timeframe for plea bargaining under BNSS 2023 is 30 days from the framing of charges, not 80 days.
Option (d) 100 days — Incorrect: 100 days is not the correct timeframe; plea bargaining under BNSS 2023 Section 290 must be initiated within 30 days of the framing of charges.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q26. As per RTI Rules 2012, a person below poverty line is liable to pay what amount as application fee to file an RTI?

  1. (a) ₹2
  2. (b) ₹5
  3. (c) ₹10
  4. (d) No payment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) No payment

RTI Act 2005 & RTI Rules 2012
Application Fee: Generally ₹10 for filing RTI
Exemption for BPL Category:
Persons below poverty line areexemptfrom paying application fee
They need to submit BPL certificate along with application
Answer: Option 4 → No payment
SSC GD 2026 – 27 April 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q27. The PCPNDT Act was enacted by the Government of India in _____ for prohibition of sex selection.

  1. (a) 1991
  2. (b) 1994
  3. (c) 2011
  4. (d) 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1994

Correct Answer: 1994 — Option (b)
The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC-PNDT) Act was enacted by the Government of India in 1994 to prohibit sex selection (female foeticide ) before or after conception and to prevent the misuse of pre-natal diagnostic techniques for sex determination. Originally enacted as the Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1994 (PNDT Act), it was significantly amended in 2003 to include pre-conception sex selection techniques as well, after which it was renamed as the PC-PNDT Act. The Act regulates the use of technologies like ultrasound, genetic testing, and amniocentesis, prohibiting their use for determining the sex of a foetus .
Option (a) 1991 — Incorrect: The PCPNDT Act was enacted in 1994, not 1991. Maharashtra passed its own state-level act against sex determination in 1988, which may be confused with the national act.
Option (c) 2011 — Incorrect: The PCPNDT Act was originally enacted in 1994; 2011 is not the year of its enactment (though subsequent rules and amendments were issued over the years).
Option (d) 2015 — Incorrect: 2015 is not the year of the PCPNDT Act; it was enacted in 1994 (originally as PNDT Act) and amended in 2003 to become the PC-PNDT Act.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 24 March 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q28. Which among the following statements is INCORRECT related to the Right to Information Act, 2005?

  1. (a) It covers all constitutional authorities, including the President and the Supreme Court.
  2. (b) The Act mandates that the information be provided within 30 days of the request in normal ca ses.
  3. (c) All the non-governmental organizations (NGOs) that are financed by the government come under the purview of RTI Act.
  4. (d) The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body.

Right to Information Act, 2005 - Key Facts
Statement 1:Correct- RTI covers all constitutional authorities including President and Supreme Court.
Statement 2:Correct- Information must be provided within30 daysof request (48 hours for life/liberty matters).
Statement 3:Correct- NGOs substantially financed by government come under RTI purview.
Statement 4:INCORRECT- Central Information Commission is astatutory bodycreated under RTI Act, 2005, NOT a constitutional body.
Constitutional bodies are established by Constitution (e.g., Election Commission, CAG).
Answer: Option 4 → The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 March 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q29. Which among the following information is NOT a ground for exemption from disclosure of information under RTI Act, 2005?

  1. (a) Sovereignty and integrity of India
  2. (b) Public Interest
  3. (c) Breach of privilege of Parliament
  4. (d) Cabinet papers including records of deliberation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Public Interest

RTI Act 2005 - Section 8: Exemptions from Disclosure
Section 8 lists grounds where information can beexempted:
• Sovereignty and integrity of India (Section 8(1)(a)) ✓
• Breach of privilege of Parliament (Section 8(1)(c)) ✓
• Cabinet papers including records of deliberation (Section 8(1)(i)) ✓
Public Interestis NOT an exemption ground.
In fact, Section 8(2) allows disclosure even of exempt information ifpublic interest outweighsthe harm.
Answer: Option 2 → Public Interest
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q30. In September 2025, the Supreme Court of India reaffirmed which important legal position under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?

  1. (a) The anticipatory bail provision has been removed from the Indian Penal Code
  2. (b) The anticipatory bail may be granted only by the High Court
  3. (c) The grant of anticipatory bail is absolutely barred if the FIR prima facie discloses an offence under the Act
  4. (d) The accused can apply for anticipatory bail under all circumstances
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The grant of anticipatory bail is absolutely barred if the FIR prima facie discloses an offence under the Act

The Supreme Court reaffirmed that anticipatory bail is absolutely barred if the FIR prima facie discloses an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
This means no anticipatory bail can be granted if the complaint initially shows the offence under the Act.
This ruling ensures strict protection for Scheduled Castes and Tribes against atrocities.
Hence, option 3 is correct.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 10 January 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q31. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which of the following statements best illustrates the expanded definition of domestic relationship and domestic violence, thereby strengthening legal protection beyond conventional marriage norms?

  1. (a) The Act applies only to legally wedded wives and excludes women in live-in relationships or those related by consanguinity.
  2. (b) The Act defines 'domestic violence' strictly in terms of physical abuse occurring within the matrimonial home.
  3. (c) The Act includes emotional, verbal, economic, and sexual abuse, and extends protection to women in domestic relationships, including live-in relationships, enabling them to seek relief such as residence orders and protection orders.
  4. (d) The Act is applicable only when the abuse has been reported to a police officer within 24 hours of the incident.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Act includes emotional, verbal, economic, and sexual abuse, and extends protection to women in domestic relationships, including live-in relationships, enabling them to seek relief such as residence orders and protection orders.

Option c is correct . The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 defines 'domestic violence' broadly to include physical, sexual, verbal, emotional, and economic abuse. Crucially, it extends protection to women in live-in relationships (not just married women), and entitles them to seek relief such as protection orders, residence orders, and monetary reliefs.
• Option 1 is wrong: The Act explicitly covers women in live-in relationships and those related by consanguinity or adoption.
• Option 2 is wrong: The definition of domestic violence goes far beyond physical abuse and includes verbal, emotional, economic, and sexual abuse.
• Option 4 is wrong: There is no 24-hour reporting requirement under the Act.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 9 January 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q32. According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what does the term bail bond refer to?

  1. (a) An order issued by the police granting temporary custody of an accused.
  2. (b) An undertaking for release with a surety.
  3. (c) A personal promise of good behaviour without any legal backing.
  4. (d) An agreement between police and accused to suspend trial.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) An undertaking for release with a surety.

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, a bail bond refers to an undertaking for release with a surety — a formal bond by the accused and a guarantor ensuring court appearance.
(1) Describes a remand/custody order, not a bail bond.
(3) Describes a personal recognizance bond without surety.
(4) Is not a recognised legal concept related to bail.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 8 January 2026 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q33. 'A' is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man standing nearby.
If A exercised proper caution, how will the act be treated under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) A is guilty of murder due to negligence
  2. (b) A is guilty because he knew harm was possible
  3. (c) A has committed no offence if done without criminal intent and in good faith
  4. (d) A is liable for civil compensation even without criminal intent
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A has committed no offence if done without criminal intent and in good faith

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A has committed no offence if done without criminal intent and in good faith
Under Section 22 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 (equivalent to Section 80 of the old IPC), nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge, in the doing of a lawful act by lawful means, with proper care and caution. Since 'A' was engaged in a lawful act (chopping/working with a hatchet), exercised proper caution, and had no criminal intent, the accidental death of the bystander does not constitute an offence.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Guilty of murder due to negligence): Murder requires criminal intent ( mens rea). A exercised proper caution, so this does not apply.
Option 2 (Guilty because harm was possible): Under BNS, knowledge that harm was 'possible' alone does not make one guilty if proper caution was exercised.
Option 4 (Civil compensation without criminal intent): BNS addresses criminal liability. The question is about criminal treatment, and A is not criminally liable under Section 22.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 8 January 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q34. Under which Chapter of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, are the classes of Criminal Courts such as Courts of Session, Judicial Magistrates, and Executive Magistrates defined?

  1. (a) Chapter I
  2. (b) Chapter II
  3. (c) Chapter III
  4. (d) Chapter IV
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chapter II

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Chapter II
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 (which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973), Chapter II deals with the 'Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices'. This chapter defines and establishes the various classes of Criminal Courts in India, including:
• Courts of Session
• Judicial Magistrates (First Class and Second Class)
• Executive Magistrates
Chapter II lays out the hierarchy, jurisdiction, and composition of these courts.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Chapter I): Chapter I of BNSS deals with preliminary matters — definitions, application, and short title.
Option 3 (Chapter III): Chapter III deals with powers of courts — sentencing and punishments.
Option 4 (Chapter IV): Chapter IV covers matters related to aid and information to Magistrates.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 8 January 2026 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q35. 'A', in good faith and without the child's consent, allows a surgeon to perform a risky operation to cure the child, knowing it may cause death. What is A's legal position under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) A is guilty of causing grievous hurt
  2. (b) A is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
  3. (c) A is not guilty, as the act was done in good faith for the child's benefit
  4. (d) A is liable for endangering a minor's life
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is not guilty, as the act was done in good faith for the child's benefit

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A is not guilty, as the act was done in good faith for the child's benefit
Under Section 20 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 (equivalent to Section 89 of the old IPC), nothing is an offence which is done in good faith for the benefit of a child by a guardian or person having lawful charge of the child, even if it causes harm, provided it is not done against the child's express will. The key conditions are:
1. The act was done in good faith.
2. It was for the benefit of the child.
3. There was no criminal intent.
Since 'A' consented to the surgery in good faith for the child's benefit, A is not guilty.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Guilty of grievous hurt): Grievous hurt requires criminal intent or negligence, neither of which is present here.
Option 2 (Culpable homicide not amounting to murder): This requires knowledge that the act is likely to cause death WITH no valid justification. Good faith for a child's benefit is a valid justification under BNS.
Option 4 (Liable for endangering a minor's life): A acted in good faith; liability for endangering requires negligence or wrongful intent.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 7 January 2026 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q36. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum term of simple imprisonment if a person fails to pay a fine not exceeding ₹10,000?

  1. (a) Two months
  2. (b) Four months
  3. (c) Six months
  4. (d) One year
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Four months

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Four months
Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, the provisions for imprisonment in default of payment of fine are:
• Fine not exceeding ₹5,000 → maximum 2 months simple imprisonment
• Fine exceeding ₹5,000 but not exceeding ₹10,000 → maximum 4 months simple imprisonment
• Fine exceeding ₹10,000 → maximum 6 months simple imprisonment
Since the question asks about a fine "not exceeding ₹10,000", it falls in the bracket that allows up to 4 months.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Two months): This applies to fines not exceeding ₹5,000.
Option 3 (Six months): This applies to fines exceeding ₹10,000.
Option 4 (One year): This is not a prescribed limit under Section 23 of BNS 2023.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 6 January 2026 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q37. The law to ban 'Triple Talaq' (instant divorce) was passed by Parliament in which year?

  1. (a) 2017
  2. (b) 2018
  3. (c) 2019
  4. (d) 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2019

The correct answer is (c) 2019.
The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, which criminalized the practice of instant Triple Talaq (talaq-e-biddat), was passed by the Indian Parliament in July 2019. The law made the practice of instant triple talaq illegal and punishable with up to 3 years imprisonment. The Supreme Court had declared triple talaq unconstitutional in August 2017.
(a) 2017: The Supreme Court declared triple talaq unconstitutional in August 2017 (Shayara Bano case), but the law was not passed by Parliament that year.
(b) 2018: The bill was introduced in Parliament but not passed in 2018; the law was enacted in 2019.
(d) 2020: The law was already in force by 2020; it was enacted in 2019.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 6 January 2026 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q38. The 'Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act' of 2015 was in the news because it allows?

  1. (a) Children to vote
  2. (b) Children to drive
  3. (c) Children (16-18) who commit heinous crimes to be tried as adults
  4. (d) Children to work
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Children (16-18) who commit heinous crimes to be tried as adults

The correct answer is (c) Children (16-18) who commit heinous crimes to be tried as adults.
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 was a landmark legislation that introduced a provision allowing children aged 16-18 years who are accused of heinous offences (punishable by 7 or more years imprisonment) to be tried as adults. This was enacted in response to the 2012 Delhi gang rape case where one perpetrator was a minor.
(a) Children to vote: The voting age in India is 18 years for adults; the JJ Act 2015 has no provision about voting.
(b) Children to drive: Driving regulations are governed by the Motor Vehicles Act; not related to the Juvenile Justice Act.
(d) Children to work: Child labor is prohibited under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016; the JJ Act focuses on care, protection, and rehabilitation, not allowing child labor.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 6 January 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q39. In which year was the 'Right to Education' (RTE) Act passed by the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) 2005
  2. (b) 2009
  3. (c) 2012
  4. (d) 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2009

The correct answer is (b) 2009.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (RTE Act) was passed by the Indian Parliament in August 2009. It came into force on April 1, 2010. The Act makes education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14 years, mandates free and compulsory education, requires 25% reservation for economically weaker sections in private schools, and sets norms for teacher qualifications.
(a) 2005: The year the Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed; not the RTE Act.
(c) 2012: The RTE Act was already in force by 2012; not the year of its passage.
(d) 2015: The Sustainable Development Goals were adopted in 2015; not the year RTE Act was passed.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 6 January 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q40. In which year was the 'Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act' enacted?

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2017
  3. (c) 2019
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2019

The correct answer is (c) 2019.
The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 was enacted by the Indian Parliament to provide rights and protections for transgender persons in India. It prohibits discrimination in education, employment, and healthcare, establishes a process for recognition of transgender identity, and provides for welfare measures. It received Presidential assent in December 2019.
(a) 2014: The year of the Supreme Court's landmark NALSA judgment recognizing transgender persons as the 'third gender'; the Act itself came in 2019.
(b) 2017: No specific transgender protection act was enacted in 2017 (a bill was introduced but not passed).
(d) 2022: The Act was already enacted in 2019 and was in force by 2022.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 6 January 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q41. The 'Right to Education' (RTE) Act, 2009, makes education a fundamental right for children of which age group?

  1. (a) 3-6 years
  2. (b) 6-14 years
  3. (c) 5-15 years
  4. (d) 14-18 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 6-14 years

The correct answer is (b) 6-14 years.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 makes education a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution for children in the 6-14 years age group. All children in this age group are entitled to free and compulsory education in a neighbourhood school.
(a) 3-6 years: Pre-school/early childhood education for this age group is covered under the National Education Policy 2020 and ECCE programs; the RTE Act specifically covers 6-14 years.
(c) 5-15 years: Not the age range specified in the RTE Act; the Act covers 6-14 years.
(d) 14-18 years: Secondary education; this age group is not covered under the RTE Act, which ends at age 14.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 6 January 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q42. The 'Mental Healthcare Act' of 2017 is significant because it decriminalized:

  1. (a) Drinking alcohol
  2. (b) Jaywalking
  3. (c) Attempt to commit suicide
  4. (d) Begging
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Attempt to commit suicide

The correct answer is (c) Attempt to commit suicide.
The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, which replaced the Mental Health Act, 1987, is significant because it decriminalized the attempt to commit suicide. Previously, Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) made suicide attempt a criminal offense punishable with imprisonment. The Act presumed that a person attempting suicide is under severe mental stress and should receive care and treatment, not punishment.
(a) Drinking alcohol: Not related to the Mental Healthcare Act; regulation of alcohol varies by state laws.
(b) Jaywalking: Not related to the Mental Healthcare Act; jaywalking violations are traffic-related offenses.
(d) Begging: Decriminalization of begging has been the subject of separate court orders (like the Delhi HC ruling in 2018); not part of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q43. The 'Telecommunications Act, 2023' was passed to replace which very old, colonial-era law?

  1. (a) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
  2. (b) Rowlatt Act, 1919
  3. (c) Post Office Act, 1898
  4. (d) Sedition Act, 1870
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885

The correct answer is (a) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
The Telecommunications Act, 2023 was passed to replace the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 — a 138-year-old colonial-era law — along with the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933. The new Act modernizes India's telecom regulatory framework for the digital era.
(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919: A repressive colonial law that was already repealed after Independence; unrelated to telecommunications.
(c) Post Office Act, 1898: Governs postal services; not replaced by the Telecommunications Act.
(d) Sedition Act, 1870: Was part of the Indian Penal Code; unrelated to telecommunications.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q44. The new 'Telecommunications Act, 2023' empowers the government to take which specific action in the interest of national security?

  1. (a) Take over, manage, or suspend telecom services for national security
  2. (b) Provide free phones to all
  3. (c) Ban all foreign telecom companies
  4. (d) Set the price of all phone calls
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Take over, manage, or suspend telecom services for national security

The correct answer is (a) Take over, manage, or suspend telecom services for national security.
The Telecommunications Act, 2023 empowers the Central Government to take over, manage, or suspend the operation of any telecommunication network or service in the interest of national security, public safety, or in cases of emergencies. This is a key provision of the Act that replaced the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
(b) Provide free phones to all: Not a provision of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
(c) Ban all foreign telecom companies: Not a provision; foreign companies can operate in India's telecom sector.
(d) Set the price of all phone calls: Tariff regulation is handled by TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India), not directly empowered as such under the 2023 Act.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q45. Which parliamentary body examined the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 after its introduction in the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) Standing Committee on Defence
  2. (b) Standing Committee on Finance
  3. (c) Standing Committee on Home Affairs
  4. (d) Standing Committee on Personnel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Standing Committee on Home Affairs

The correct answer is (c) Standing Committee on Home Affairs.
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), was introduced in the Lok Sabha and referred to the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs for examination. Since BNSS relates to criminal procedure — a subject under the Home Affairs domain — the Home Affairs committee examined it.
(a) Standing Committee on Defence : Examines matters related to defence , armed forces, and defence production; not the appropriate committee for criminal procedure law.
(b) Standing Committee on Finance: Examines financial legislation and economic matters; not criminal procedure.
(d) Standing Committee on Personnel: Examines matters related to DoPT , CBI, and pension; not criminal procedure reform.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q46. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023, a sessions court must frame charges within how many days from the first hearing on such charges?

  1. (a) Thirty days
  2. (b) Forty-five days
  3. (c) Sixty days
  4. (d) Ninety days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sixty days

The correct answer is (c) Sixty days.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), a Sessions Court is mandated to frame charges within 60 days from the date of the first hearing on the charge framing. This provision was introduced to ensure faster trial proceedings and timely justice delivery.
(a) Thirty days: Not the prescribed time limit under BNSS for Sessions Courts to frame charges.
(b) Forty-five days: Not the prescribed time limit; BNSS mandates 60 days.
(d) Ninety days: 90 days is mentioned in some other BNSS provisions (e.g., completion of investigation), but for sessions court charge framing, the limit is 60 days.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q47. The 'Prohibition of Child Marriage Act' (PCMA), which sets the current legal age of marriage, was passed in?

  1. (a) 1955
  2. (b) 1978
  3. (c) 2006
  4. (d) 2019
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2006

The correct answer is (c) 2006.
The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA) was enacted in 2006, replacing the Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929. PCMA sets the minimum age of marriage at 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys. It declares child marriages voidable (not automatically void) and provides for punishment of those who promote child marriages.
(a) 1955: The Hindu Marriage Act was passed in 1955, setting minimum marriage ages, but PCMA came in 2006.
(b) 1978: The Child Marriage Restraint (Amendment) Act of 1978 amended the 1929 Act, raising the minimum age to 18 for girls and 21 for boys; but the current PCMA was passed in 2006.
(d) 2019: No major Child Marriage legislation was passed in 2019; PCMA has been in force since 2006.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 3 January 2026 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q48. The 'Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act' was passed in 2023. What is its main purpose?

  1. (a) To give free internet to all
  2. (b) To protect the personal data of citizens
  3. (c) To ban social media
  4. (d) To create new government websites
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To protect the personal data of citizens

The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, passed by the Indian Parliament in August 2023, aims to establish a comprehensive framework for protecting the personal data of Indian citizens. It creates obligations for data fiduciaries and rights for data principals (individuals).
(a) Incorrect: Free internet access is not the purpose of the DPDP Act; it is addressed by initiatives like BharatNet and PM WANI.
(b) Incorrect: Banning social media is not the purpose of the DPDP Act; it establishes data protection standards and accountability for data processors.
(c) Incorrect: Creating new government websites is not related to the DPDP Act; it focuses on regulating how personal data is collected, stored, and processed.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 30 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q49. When was the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) enacted?

  1. (a) 1st January 2024
  2. (b) 25th December 2023
  3. (c) 15th June 2024
  4. (d) 31st December 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 25th December 2023

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 received Presidential assent and was enacted on 25th December 2023. It replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 and came into force on 1st July 2024 along with the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (replacing CrPC) and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replacing Indian Evidence Act).
(a) Incorrect: The BNS was not enacted on 1st January 2024; it received Presidential assent on 25th December 2023.
(c) Incorrect: 15th June 2024 is not the enactment date of BNS; the BNS came into force (was implemented) on 1st July 2024, but was enacted on 25th December 2023.
(d) Incorrect: 31st December 2024 is not the enactment date; the BNS was enacted in December 2023, not December 2024.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 29 December 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q50. How many sections are included in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (2023)?

  1. (a) 120 sections
  2. (b) 170 sections
  3. (c) 200 sections
  4. (d) 250 sections
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 170 sections

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act 1872. It contains 170 sections (compared to 167 sections in the original Indian Evidence Act). It is one of the three new criminal laws enacted in 2023.
(a) Incorrect: 120 sections is too few.
(c) Incorrect: 200 sections is an overcount.
(d) Incorrect: 250 sections is incorrect.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 29 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q51. The 'Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita' (BNSS) now allows for a 'Zero FIR'. What is the main benefit of a Zero FIR?

  1. (a) It costs zero money
  2. (b) It can be filed without a lawyer
  3. (c) It can be filed in any police station, regardless of the crime's location
  4. (d) It does not require a signature
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It can be filed in any police station, regardless of the crime's location

The Zero FIR provision under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) 2023 allows a complaint to be filed at any police station, regardless of where the crime occurred. The receiving station must transfer it to the jurisdictional station within 15 days. This eliminates delays caused by jurisdictional disputes, especially critical in serious crimes like sexual assault.
(a) Incorrect: The cost of filing an FIR is not the key feature; jurisdictional freedom is.
(b) Incorrect: An FIR can always be filed without a lawyer; this is not specific to Zero FIR.
(d) Incorrect: A signature or thumb impression is still required on a Zero FIR.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q52. Which law has replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860 in India?

  1. (a) The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
  2. (b) The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
  3. (c) The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
  4. (d) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)

The correct answer is The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860. It came into force on July 1, 2024, modernising criminal law by introducing new offences, updating definitions, and rationalising penalties.
Option 1 - BSA: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, not the IPC.
Option 3 - BNSS: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
Option 4 - UCC: The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposed legislation for a common civil law across religions; it has not replaced the IPC.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q53. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) is 'gender' defined in an inclusive manner, referring to male, female, and transgender?

  1. (a) Section 2(3)
  2. (b) Section 2(5)
  3. (c) Section 2(10)
  4. (d) Section 2(8)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 2(10)

The correct answer is Section 2(10) (Option 3).
Under Section 2(10) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, 'gender' is defined inclusively to encompass males, females, and transgender persons. This reflects a progressive recognition of gender identity in criminal law.
Option 1 - Section 2(3): Section 2(3) of BNS defines a different term and does not contain the inclusive definition of gender.
Option 2 - Section 2(5): Section 2(5) covers another provision in BNS unrelated to the definition of gender.
Option 4 - Section 2(8): Section 2(8) addresses yet another definition in BNS and is not the section defining gender.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q54. Which of the following minor offences now qualifies for community service as a form of punishment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

  1. (a) Murder
  2. (b) Defamation
  3. (c) Terrorism
  4. (d) Money Laundering
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Defamation

The correct answer is Defamation (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 introduces community service as a new form of punishment for certain petty/minor offences. Defamation is among the minor offences listed under BNS where community service can be awarded as a punishment, reflecting a shift towards reformative justice for non-serious offences.
Option 1 - Murder: Murder is a heinous offence under the BNS (Section 101) and attracts severe punishments including life imprisonment or the death penalty; community service is not applicable.
Option 3 - Terrorism: Terrorism is a very serious offence with severe punishments under the BNS and other special laws; community service is not applicable.
Option 4 - Money Laundering: Money Laundering is a financial crime governed by the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA); community service is not a prescribed punishment.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q55. What is the role of the Right to Information Act (RTI) in consumer protection?

  1. (a) To regulate consumer prices
  2. (b) To improve government services
  3. (c) To ensure transparency in government functions
  4. (d) To promote consumer organisations
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To ensure transparency in government functions

The correct answer is To ensure transparency in government functions (Option 3).
The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities, thereby ensuring transparency and accountability in government functions. In consumer protection, it allows consumers to access information about government policies, decisions, and public service delivery, enabling informed decisions and holding authorities accountable.
Option 1 - Regulate consumer prices: Price regulation is done by bodies like the Competition Commission of India and sector-specific regulators, not through the RTI Act.
Option 2 - Improve government services: While RTI indirectly contributes to service improvement through accountability, its primary role is ensuring transparency, not direct service improvement.
Option 4 - Promote consumer organisations : Promoting consumer organisations is the role of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and the Department of Consumer Affairs, not the RTI Act.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q56. What is meant by secondary evidence in legal proceedings?

  1. (a) Only handwritten originals of documents.
  2. (b) Copies or substitutes of original documents accepted in special cases.
  3. (c) Verbal statements made without any documents.
  4. (d) Documents created only by government authorities.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Copies or substitutes of original documents accepted in special cases.

The correct answer is Copies or substitutes of original documents accepted in special cases (Option 2).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (and previously the Indian Evidence Act, 1872), secondary evidence refers to copies of documents or oral descriptions of their contents that are admissible when the original (primary evidence) cannot be produced. It includes certified copies, copies made from originals, and counterparts of documents.
Option 1 - Only handwritten originals of documents: Handwritten originals are primary evidence, not secondary evidence.
Option 3 - Verbal statements made without any documents: Verbal statements constitute oral evidence, not secondary evidence in the documentary context.
Option 4 - Documents created only by government authorities: Secondary evidence is not restricted to government documents; it covers copies of any documents regardless of who created the original.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q57. Which law has replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 in India?

  1. (a) The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
  2. (b) The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
  3. (c) The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
  4. (d) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)

The correct answer is The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. It came into effect on July 1, 2024. BNSS governs the procedural aspects of criminal law in India, including arrest, bail, trial procedures, and investigation.
Option 1 - Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS): The BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, not the CrPC.
Option 3 - Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA): The BSA replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, not the CrPC.
Option 4 - Uniform Civil Code (UCC): The UCC is a proposed civil code relating to personal laws; it has not replaced the CrPC.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q58. In December 2023, the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita removed the offence of sedition and replaced it with a new offence relating to which of the following acts?

  1. (a) Acts disturbing communal harmony
  2. (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
  3. (c) Acts affecting administrative efficiency
  4. (d) Acts causing economic loss to the government
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

The correct answer is Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 abolished the colonial-era sedition law (Section 124A IPC) and replaced it with Section 152, which criminalises acts that endanger the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. This includes inciting secession, armed rebellion, or subversive activities against the state.
Option 1 - Acts disturbing communal harmony: While communal harmony is important, the replacement for sedition specifically targets sovereignty and integrity of India, not merely communal disturbance.
Option 3 - Acts affecting administrative efficiency: This is not a category covered by the replacement provision for sedition in the BNS.
Option 4 - Acts causing economic loss to the government: Economic loss is not the focus of the sedition replacement; the BNS Section 152 focuses on sovereignty and national integrity.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q59. Which president of India gave assent to the law on right to information?

  1. (a) Pratibha Patil
  2. (b) APJ Abdul Kalam
  3. (c) Pranab Mukherjee
  4. (d) K.R. Narayanan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) APJ Abdul Kalam

The correct answer is APJ Abdul Kalam (Option 2).
The Right to Information Act, 2005 was given assent by President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam on 15 June 2005. The Act came into force on 12 October 2005, empowering citizens to access information from public authorities.
Option 1 - Pratibha Patil: She served as President of India from 2007 to 2012, after the RTI Act was already enacted.
Option 3 - Pranab Mukherjee: He served as President from 2012 to 2017, well after the RTI Act was signed.
Option 4 - K.R. Narayanan: He served as President from 1997 to 2002, before the RTI Act was enacted.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q60. Which legislation replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860?

  1. (a) Criminal Justice (Reform) Act
  2. (b) Bharatiya Suraksha Sanhita
  3. (c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  4. (d) Uniform Civil Code
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

The correct answer is Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (Option 3).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, and came into effect on 1 July 2024. It modernized criminal law with new provisions addressing organized crime, terrorism, and cybercrimes.
Option 1 - Criminal Justice (Reform) Act: No such legislation exists in India; it is a fictitious name.
Option 2 - Bharatiya Suraksha Sanhita: This replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, not the IPC.
Option 4 - Uniform Civil Code: This refers to a proposed civil law uniformly applicable to all citizens; it did not replace the IPC.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 1 · Political theory terms (sovereignty, secularism, federalism)

Q61. The term 'cooperative federalism' means:

  1. (a) Federalism based on judiciary
  2. (b) Supremacy of the Union over States
  3. (c) Competition between Union and States
  4. (d) Cooperation and coordination between Union and States
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cooperation and coordination between Union and States

The correct answer is Cooperation and coordination between Union and States (Option 4).
Cooperative federalism refers to the concept where the central government and state governments work together in a spirit of cooperation and mutual coordination to achieve shared governance goals, rather than competing or conflicting with each other.
Option 1 - Federalism based on judiciary: Judicial federalism refers to the role of courts in resolving centre -state disputes; it is not the meaning of cooperative federalism.
Option 2 - Supremacy of the Union over States: This describes centralized or unitary tendencies, not cooperative federalism.
Option 3 - Competition between Union and States: This is associated with competitive federalism, not cooperative federalism.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q62. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023, within how many days must a medical practitioner submit the medical examination report of a rape victim to the investigating officer?

  1. (a) Three days
  2. (b) Five days
  3. (c) Seven days
  4. (d) Ten days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Seven days

The correct answer is Seven days (Option 3).
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, a medical practitioner who examines a rape victim must submit the medical examination report to the investigating officer within seven days of the examination.
Option 1 - Three days: Three days is not the prescribed time limit under BNSS for submitting the medical report.
Option 2 - Five days: Five days is not the specified duration under BNSS for this requirement.
Option 4 - Ten days: Ten days exceeds the prescribed limit; the law mandates submission within seven days.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q63. What is the focus of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)?

  1. (a) Traffic rules
  2. (b) Proof and evidence used in court
  3. (c) Farming laws
  4. (d) School exams
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Proof and evidence used in court

The correct answer is Proof and evidence used in court (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It governs the rules relating to proof and evidence used in court proceedings in India, modernising provisions for electronic records and digital evidence.
Option 1 - Traffic rules: Traffic regulations are governed by the Motor Vehicles Act, not BSA.
Option 3 - Farming laws: Agricultural laws are separate legislation; BSA deals with evidence law.
Option 4 - School exams: Educational examinations are not within the scope of BSA.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q64. How many chapters and sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, have in comparison to the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860?

  1. (a) 25 chapters, 400 sections
  2. (b) 20 chapters, 358 sections
  3. (c) 30 chapters, 500 sections
  4. (d) 18 chapters, 450 sections
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 20 chapters, 358 sections

The correct answer is 20 chapters, 358 sections (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, has 20 chapters and 358 sections. The original IPC had 23 chapters and 511 sections. The BNS consolidated and modernised criminal law.
Option 1 - 25 chapters, 400 sections: Incorrect; BNS has 20 chapters and 358 sections.
Option 3 - 30 chapters, 500 sections: Incorrect; this exceeds both the BNS and IPC chapter/section counts.
Option 4 - 18 chapters, 450 sections: Incorrect; BNS has 20 chapters (not 18) and 358 sections (not 450).
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q65. What new provision does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) introduce for the punishment of defamation?

  1. (a) Imprisonment for up to 5 years with or without a fine
  2. (b) Imprisonment for up to 1 year and mandatory community service
  3. (c) Imprisonment for up to 2 years, a fine, or both, with an option for community service
  4. (d) Imprisonment for life with or without a fine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Imprisonment for up to 2 years, a fine, or both, with an option for community service

The correct answer is Imprisonment for up to 2 years, a fine, or both, with an option for community service (Option 3).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, introduced community service as an alternative punishment for defamation. The provision allows for imprisonment up to 2 years, a fine, or both, along with the novel option of community service — a significant reform from the Indian Penal Code.
Option 1 - Up to 5 years: Defamation under BNS does not carry a 5-year imprisonment term; the maximum is 2 years.
Option 2 - Up to 1 year and mandatory community service: The term is up to 2 years (not 1 year) and community service is optional (not mandatory).
Option 4 - Life imprisonment: Life imprisonment is not a punishment for defamation; it applies to serious offences like murder.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q66. Which law has replaced the Indian Evidence Act (1872) in India?

  1. (a) BNS
  2. (b) BSA
  3. (c) BNSS
  4. (d) UCC
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) BSA

The correct answer is BSA (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act (1872). It came into effect on July 1, 2024, along with BNS and BNSS. BSA modernises the law of evidence, including provisions for electronic records and digital evidence.
Option 1 - BNS: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, not the Evidence Act.
Option 3 - BNSS: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
Option 4 - UCC: UCC (Uniform Civil Code) is a proposed legislation to provide a common set of civil laws; it has not replaced the Evidence Act.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 22 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q67. Which law modernizes criminal procedures and investigations?

  1. (a) Hindu Succession Act
  2. (b) Right to Information Act
  3. (c) Companies Act
  4. (d) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1973, modernizes criminal procedures and investigations in India by introducing provisions like mandatory videography of crime scenes, time-bound trials, recognition of electronic evidence, and zero FIR. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 (amended 2005), deals with rules for inheritance and succession of property among Hindus; it does not modernize criminal procedures.
Option 2 is wrong: The Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act) enables citizens to request information from public authorities; it deals with transparency in governance, not criminal procedures.
Option 3 is wrong: The Companies Act, 2013 regulates company incorporation, governance, and corporate law; it deals with business entities and does not modernize criminal procedures.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 22 December 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q68. Which law was replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
  2. (b) Indian Penal Code, 1860
  3. (c) Police Act, 1861
  4. (d) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 — the law that governed criminal procedure in India. The three criminal laws replaced simultaneously were: IPC by BNS, CrPC by BNSS, and Indian Evidence Act by Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, was replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 — not by BNSS. The BNSS specifically replaced the CrPC.
Option 3 is wrong: The Police Act, 1861, has not been replaced by BNSS; it is a separate legislation governing the organization and functioning of police forces in India.
Option 4 is wrong: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, was replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 — not by BNSS. BNSS replaced the CrPC.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 22 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q69. What is the aim of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

  1. (a) To teach history
  2. (b) To make new school books
  3. (c) To clean rivers
  4. (d) To replace old criminal laws like the Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To replace old criminal laws like the Indian Penal Code

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, was enacted with the primary aim of replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 — a colonial-era law — with a modern Indian criminal code. The BNS introduces new provisions like organised crime, terrorism, and crimes against women, while updating and reorganising criminal laws to suit contemporary India. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Teaching history is the objective of educational curriculum and institutions; it has nothing to do with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which is a criminal code.
Option 2 is wrong: Making new school books is the work of bodies like NCERT; the BNS is a comprehensive criminal law replacing the IPC, not an educational document.
Option 3 is wrong: Cleaning rivers is an environmental objective addressed by schemes like Namami Gange; the BNS is a penal code dealing with criminal offences and punishments.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 22 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q70. What new form of punishment introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, aims to keep convicts out of prison for minor offences?

  1. (a) Life imprisonment for minor offences
  2. (b) Community service
  3. (c) Capital punishment for lesser crimes
  4. (d) Fine and retribution
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Community service

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, introduced Community Service as a new form of punishment for minor offences — a provision that did not exist in the old IPC. Under this, convicted persons serve the community (such as working in hospitals, schools, or cleaning public places) instead of going to jail, helping reduce prison overcrowding. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Life imprisonment is one of the most severe punishments reserved for serious crimes like murder; it would not be introduced as a new provision specifically to KEEP convicts OUT of prison for minor offences — that contradicts the purpose.
Option 3 is wrong: Capital punishment (death penalty) is applicable only to the most heinous crimes; introducing it for lesser crimes would violate constitutional principles and proportionality; this was not introduced by BNS.
Option 4 is wrong: Fines and retribution (payment of penalties) already existed in the IPC; they are not the new form of punishment specifically introduced by BNS for minor offences to keep convicts out of prison.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 22 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q71. What does Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, focus on, replacing the concept of sedition?

  1. (a) Acts causing public unrest and disturbances
  2. (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
  3. (c) Crimes related to terrorism and national security
  4. (d) Acts involving hate speech, defamation, and slander
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India

Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, replaced the sedition law (Section 124A of IPC) and focuses on 'Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.' Unlike the old sedition law, Section 152 of BNS targets acts that excite or attempt to excite secession, armed rebellion, or subversive activities against India. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Acts causing public unrest and disturbances are addressed under other sections of BNS dealing with public order offences; Section 152 specifically targets acts endangering national sovereignty and integrity.
Option 3 is wrong: Crimes related to terrorism and national security are covered under Chapter VII of BNS (Sections 111-113 deal with organized crime and terrorist acts); Section 152 specifically replaced sedition and addresses sovereignty and integrity.
Option 4 is wrong: Acts involving hate speech, defamation, and slander are covered under separate provisions in BNS relating to defamation and speech offences; Section 152 specifically replaced the sedition provision of IPC.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q72. Which of the following colonial-era offenses was removed in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), and replaced with a new offense related to national security?

  1. (a) Sedition
  2. (b) Treason
  3. (c) Riot
  4. (d) Blasphemy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sedition

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 abolished the colonial-era offense of Sedition (Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code) and replaced it with Section 152, which penalizes acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Treason is not a separately defined offense removed by BNS; it overlaps with other national security provisions that were reformulated.
Option 3 is wrong: Riot (unlawful assembly and use of force) provisions have been retained and updated in BNS, not removed as a colonial holdover.
Option 4 is wrong: Blasphemy as a standalone colonial offense was not the subject of the major BNS reform; religious offense provisions are separately addressed.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q73. In the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita, 2023, organised crime is recognised as an offence when the crime is committed on behalf of which of the following?

  1. (a) A trade association
  2. (b) A registered charity
  3. (c) A crime syndicate
  4. (d) A public sector company
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A crime syndicate

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, organised crime is specifically defined as a continuing unlawful activity committed by a person belonging to or acting on behalf of a crime syndicate — a group of two or more persons acting in concert for criminal gain. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: A trade association is a legitimate industry body; crimes committed on behalf of a trade association would not constitute ' organised crime' under the BNS definition.
Option 2 is wrong: A registered charity is a lawful non-profit organization; the BNS organised crime provisions apply specifically to crime syndicates, not charitable organizations.
Option 4 is wrong: A public sector company is a government-owned enterprise; the BNS organised crime provisions are not triggered by crimes committed on behalf of public sector companies.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q74. How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, contain?

  1. (a) 511
  2. (b) 358
  3. (c) 300
  4. (d) 400
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 358

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860, contains 358 sections. It came into effect on July 1, 2024. The original IPC had 511 sections. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 511 is the number of sections in the old Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which the BNS replaced. The BNS itself has 358 sections.
Option 3 is wrong: 300 is not the number of sections in the BNS 2023; the correct figure is 358 sections.
Option 4 is wrong: 400 is not the number of sections in the BNS 2023; it has 358 sections, reflecting consolidation and modernization of criminal law provisions.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q75. Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the accused must be informed of the grounds of arrest:

  1. (a) After trial
  2. (b) Immediately upon arrest
  3. (c) Before arrest
  4. (d) Only if they ask
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Immediately upon arrest

Under Section 47 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, the police officer making an arrest is obligated to inform the person being arrested of the full particulars of the offence for which they are being arrested immediately upon arrest. This is also a constitutional right under Article 22(1). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Informing the accused after trial would be far too late and would violate their fundamental rights under Article 22(1); the law requires immediate disclosure of arrest grounds.
Option 3 is wrong: Informing the accused before arrest is not a legal requirement; the grounds of arrest must be communicated at the time of (immediately upon) arrest, not before it.
Option 4 is wrong: The right to be informed of grounds of arrest is unconditional — it does not depend on the accused asking for it; the arresting officer must proactively inform them immediately upon arrest.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q76. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita, 2023, adulteration of food or drink for sale is punishable with imprisonment up to six months. Which special law prescribes punishment up to life imprisonment for the manufacture or sale of unsafe food?

  1. (a) Food Adulteration Act, 1954
  2. (b) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
  3. (c) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
  4. (d) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

The Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA), 2006 prescribes stringent punishments for unsafe food, including up to life imprisonment for adulterating food or drink so as to render it noxious, and up to life imprisonment for manufacturing or selling food in an unsafe manner when it results in grievous hurt or death. FSSA is the primary special legislation governing food safety in India and is enforced by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
Option 1 is incorrect: The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 was repealed and replaced by the FSSA 2006; it is no longer the operative law.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 deals with supply and distribution of essential commodities; it does not specifically prescribe life imprisonment for unsafe food manufacture.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides for consumer rights and product liability but does not specifically prescribe life imprisonment for unsafe food manufacture or sale.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q77. According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023, which additional type of specimen may now be collected during investigation along with handwriting and finger impressions?

  1. (a) Hair samples
  2. (b) Voice samples
  3. (c) Blood group
  4. (d) DNA profiles
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Voice samples

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, voice samples have been added as a new type of specimen that can be collected from an accused or arrested person during investigation. This is in addition to the existing provisions for collecting handwriting, signatures, and finger impressions. This provision enhances the toolkit available to investigators for forensic analysis and identification.
Option 1 is incorrect: Hair samples were not specifically added as the new specimen type under BNSS 2023 in this context.
Option 3 is incorrect: Blood group testing was not the specific new addition to the investigation specimen collection provisions under BNSS 2023.
Option 4 is incorrect: While DNA profiling is used in criminal investigation, DNA profiles were not the specific new type of specimen added alongside handwriting and fingerprints in this BNSS 2023 provision.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q78. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which type of evidence is now considered at par with primary evidence?

  1. (a) Digital evidence
  2. (b) Oral testimony
  3. (c) Hearsay evidence
  4. (d) Circumstantial evidence
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Digital evidence

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, introduced a major reform: electronic/digital evidence is now treated at par with primary (documentary) evidence. Section 57 and related provisions of BSA explicitly recognise electronic records (emails, digital documents, digital images, etc.) as admissible primary evidence, removing the cumbersome secondary evidence requirements under the old Act.
Option 2 is incorrect: Oral testimony refers to spoken statements given by witnesses in court; it is not a new category under BSA — it was always a primary mode of evidence.
Option 3 is incorrect: Hearsay evidence refers to statements made outside court reported by another witness; it was not elevated to primary evidence status under BSA.
Option 4 is incorrect: Circumstantial evidence refers to indirect proof of facts; its status under BSA is not equivalent to primary documentary evidence.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q79. What is the maximum punishment for mob lynching resulting in death under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS)?

  1. (a) Death penalty or life imprisonment
  2. (b) 10 years imprisonment
  3. (c) Life imprisonment only
  4. (d) 14 years imprisonment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Death penalty or life imprisonment

Under Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, if murder is committed by a group of five or more persons on grounds of race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any other such grounds, every member of the group who committed such murder shall be punishable with death or with imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. This is the specific mob lynching provision introduced in the new criminal law.
Option 2 is incorrect: 10 years imprisonment is far short of the maximum punishment prescribed for mob lynching resulting in death under BNS 2023, which is death or life imprisonment.
Option 3 is incorrect: Section 103(2) BNS prescribes both death penalty AND life imprisonment as alternatives (not life imprisonment only); either may be awarded by the court.
Option 4 is incorrect: 14 years imprisonment is not the maximum punishment for mob lynching resulting in death; the maximum under BNS 2023 is the death penalty or life imprisonment.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 18 December 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q80. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), who can be held liable for abetment of an offense?

  1. (a) Only a person who helps physically
  2. (b) Anyone who aids, counsels, or instigates the offense
  3. (c) Only persons who are present at the scene
  4. (d) Only the person who directly commits the crime
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anyone who aids, counsels, or instigates the offense

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), abetment of an offense applies to anyone who: (1) instigates a person to commit the offense, (2) engages in a conspiracy to commit it, or (3) aids in its commission by any act or illegal omission. Physical presence at the scene is not required.
Option (a) is incorrect: Abetment is not limited to physical help. Counseling, instigating, or conspiring also constitute abetment.
Option (c) is incorrect: Physical presence at the scene is NOT required for liability under abetment provisions.
Option (d) is incorrect: The person who directly commits the crime is the principal offender, not an abettor. Abetment specifically refers to those who assist or instigate others.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 18 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q81. What act did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replace?

  1. (a) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  2. (b) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
  3. (c) Indian Penal Code, 1860
  4. (d) Crime for Repressive States
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Penal Code, 1860

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 - India's primary criminal code. The three new criminal laws enacted in 2023 are: (1) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaced IPC 1860; (2) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1973; (3) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam replaced the Indian Evidence Act 1872. All three came into effect on 1 July 2024.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 was replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Crime for Repressive States' is not a real law; it is not relevant to this question.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 18 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q82. Allowing police custody in instalments during the early portion of judicial custody under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023 may result in which practical implication for an accused?

  1. (a) Automatic issuance of anticipatory bail
  2. (b) Denial of bail for the full sixty or ninety days period
  3. (c) Mandatory discharge after fifteen days
  4. (d) Immediate release on surety
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Denial of bail for the full sixty or ninety days period

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, police custody can be sought in instalments during the first 40 days (for offences punishable by up to 10 years) or first 60 days (for more serious offences) of judicial custody. This provision means that police can repeatedly request custody over this period without the accused being granted bail. As a result, an accused may effectively be denied bail for the full sixty or ninety-day period of detention, since bail is typically not granted while police custody is being sought or maintained.
Option 1 is incorrect: Police custody in instalments does not lead to automatic issuance of anticipatory bail; anticipatory bail is sought before arrest under separate provisions.
Option 3 is incorrect: Mandatory discharge after fifteen days is not a consequence; the BNSS provides for extended periods of custody if authorised by the court.
Option 4 is incorrect: Immediate release on surety is not a consequence of police custody in instalments; surety is a bail-related concept that does not apply during the police custody phase.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 12 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q83. Which of the following offenses has been newly and clearly defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

  1. (a) Mob lynching
  2. (b) Defamation
  3. (c) Theft
  4. (d) Cheating
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mob lynching

Correct: Mob lynching.
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 (which replaced the Indian Penal Code) newly and explicitly defined 'mob lynching' as a specific offense for the first time in Indian criminal law, with provisions for death penalty or life imprisonment. Defamation, theft, and cheating were already defined in the IPC and continue in BNS.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 11 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q84. Which of the following is now explicitly considered a 'document' under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

  1. (a) A verbal agreement
  2. (b) A gesture or sign language
  3. (c) A server log file
  4. (d) A spontaneous thought
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A server log file

Correct Answer: A server log file (Option 3)
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 — which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 — explicitly expands the definition of 'document' to include electronic and digital records. A server log file is a type of electronic record that is now explicitly considered a document under the BSA and is admissible as evidence.
A verbal agreement is oral communication — not a document.
Gestures or sign language are forms of communication but not documents.
A spontaneous thought exists in the mind and has no physical/electronic form — not a document.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q85. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) allows for trials to proceed in the absence of the accused in certain circumstances. This provision applies specifically to:

  1. (a) Any accused person who fails to appear.
  2. (b) Only foreign nationals.
  3. (c) Proclaimed offenders who abscond.
  4. (d) Accused persons who are gravely ill.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Proclaimed offenders who abscond.

Correct Answer: Proclaimed offenders who abscond.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the provision for trial in absentia (proceeding without the accused) applies specifically to proclaimed offenders — those who abscond or evade arrest after being declared proclaimed offenders by the court. This provision aims to prevent accused persons from indefinitely delaying trials by fleeing.
Option 1: Incorrect. Any non-appearance does not automatically trigger in-absentia trials.
Option 2: Incorrect. The provision is not limited to foreign nationals.
Option 4: Incorrect. Illness is a ground for adjournment, not in-absentia trial.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q86. What is the maximum period of imprisonment that can be given in a summary trial under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, irrespective of the punishment specified for the offence?

  1. (a) 1 month
  2. (b) 3 months
  3. (c) 12 months
  4. (d) 24 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 3 months

Correct Answer: 3 months
Under the BNSS, 2023, in a summary trial, the maximum punishment of imprisonment that can be awarded is 3 months, regardless of the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence. Summary trials are meant for minor offences where quick disposal is needed.
Option 1 (1 month): Incorrect.
Option 3 (12 months): Incorrect.
Option 4 (24 months): Incorrect.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q87. What does the principle of victim-centric justice emphasize?

  1. (a) Emphasizing the rights of the victim, including speedy justice and rehabilitation
  2. (b) Prioritizing the media coverage of the case
  3. (c) Punishing the accused without trial
  4. (d) Allowing victims to determine the punishment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Emphasizing the rights of the victim, including speedy justice and rehabilitation

Correct Answer: Emphasizing the rights of the victim, including speedy justice and rehabilitation
Victim-centric justice is a modern approach to criminal justice that places the victim at the center of the justice process. It emphasizes: speedy delivery of justice, compensation and rehabilitation for victims, victim's right to be heard, and dignity and respect for victims throughout the legal process. India's new criminal laws (BNSS, BNS) incorporate victim-centric principles.
Option 2: Incorrect. Media coverage is not a component of victim justice.
Option 3: Incorrect. Punishing without trial violates due process.
Option 4: Incorrect. Victims inform proceedings but do not solely determine punishment.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q88. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces significant changes regarding the use of technology in criminal justice.
Which of these is a key technological integration mandated by Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)?

  1. (a) Mandatory use of Artificial Intelligence for investigations.
  2. (b) Videography of search and seizure operations and crime scenes.
  3. (c) Robot-assisted policing.
  4. (d) Automated judgment delivery system.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Videography of search and seizure operations and crime scenes.

Correct Answer: Videography of search and seizure operations and crime scenes.
The BNSS, 2023, mandates videography of search and seizure operations, crime scenes, and certain key processes in criminal investigations. This provision increases transparency, reduces fabrication of evidence, and ensures accountability in the criminal justice process.
Option 1 (AI for investigations): Incorrect. AI use is not mandated under BNSS.
Option 3 (Robot-assisted policing): Incorrect. Not a provision of BNSS.
Option 4 (Automated judgment): Incorrect. Judgments are still delivered by judges.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 9 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q89. A major focus of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 is to broaden the scope of 'documents' to include:

  1. (a) Only paper-based records
  2. (b) Electronic records, including emails, server logs, and digital signatures
  3. (c) Only certified public records
  4. (d) Documents submitted manually
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Electronic records, including emails, server logs, and digital signatures

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A major reform in BSA is the explicit and wide inclusion of electronic records as admissible evidence.
Under BSA, 'documents' now explicitly include electronic records such as emails, electronic contracts, server logs, digital signatures, and metadata.
This modernizes evidence law for the digital age and aligns it with current technological realities.
Option A (only paper-based): BSA specifically moves away from a paper-only definition.
Option C (only certified records): BSA allows electronic records under appropriate conditions, not just certified ones.
Option D (manually submitted only): BSA broadens, not narrows, the scope of documents.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 9 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q90. Which offence, as per the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, is punishable with a minimum imprisonment of 3 years, extendable up to 10 years along with fine, and is triable by a Magistrate of the First Class?

  1. (a) Kidnapping a minor
  2. (b) Hiring or engaging a child to commit an offence
  3. (c) Abandoning a child below 12 years
  4. (d) Using a child for begging
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hiring or engaging a child to commit an offence

Answer: (b) Hiring or engaging a child to commit an offence
Solution:
UnderSection 95 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, hiring, employing or engaging a child to commit an offence is punishable.
The punishment isminimum 3 years, which may extend up to10 years, along withfine.
This offence istriable by a Magistrate of the First Class.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 9 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q91. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces a specific timeframe for pronouncing judgment after the conclusion of arguments in a criminal trial. What is this timeframe?

  1. (a) Within 7 days
  2. (b) Within 15 days
  3. (c) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)
  4. (d) Within 60 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)

Correct Answer: Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), mandates that after the completion of arguments in a criminal trial, the judgment must be pronounced within 30 days. This period can be extended to 45 days in exceptional cases with written reasons. This provision aims to reduce delays in the criminal justice system.
Option 1 (7 days): Incorrect.
Option 2 (15 days): Incorrect.
Option 4 (60 days): Incorrect.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q92. What major reform does Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam bring?

  1. (a) Introduction of new fundamental rights
  2. (b) Digitization of evidence
  3. (c) Removal of all existing laws
  4. (d) Abolishment of the Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Digitization of evidence

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, bringing major reforms to adapt to modern judicial needs. Its biggest reform is the recognition and digitization of electronic evidence , such as emails, digital records, SMS, server logs, and other electronic data. This ensures that courts can rely on digital documentation in the same way as physical documents, making trials faster, transparent, and in line with the digital era.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q93. As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following best defines "electronic communication"?

  1. (a) Telephonic conversations recorded manually
  2. (b) Any information transmitted using electronic devices like phones or computers
  3. (c) Only video calls conducted through secure government networks
  4. (d) Verbal messages sent through written documents only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Any information transmitted using electronic devices like phones or computers

The correct answer is Any information transmitted using electronic devices like phones or computers . The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, modernized many legal definitions to align with the digital era. Under this law, "electronic communication" broadly includes emails, text messages, phone messages, social media messages, and other forms of data exchange through electronic means. It does not limit itself to only telephonic or video calls, but covers all types of information transmission using electronic devices . This definition helps in expanding the scope of admissible evidence and enforcement under cyber-related crimes.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q94. Under Section 25(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what may the Court do when a person is convicted in one trial for multiple offences?

  1. (a) Shall suspend all sentences unless directed by a higher court in the same trial
  2. (b) Must give the harshest punishment only and remit other punishments altogether
  3. (c) May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate
  4. (d) Can impose only one punishment for all the offences, regardless of their nature
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate

The correct answer is "May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate." Section 25(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) provides that when a person is convicted of multiple offences in a single trial, the Court has the discretion to decide whether punishments shall run concurrently (at the same time) or consecutively (one after the other) . This provision ensures flexibility so that punishments are proportional to the gravity of offences, preventing either excessive severity or undue leniency.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q95. Which act replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  1. (a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  2. (b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
  3. (c) None of the above
  4. (d) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

The correct answer is Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 . The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which laid down the procedure for investigation, trial, and punishment of criminal offences, has now been replaced by the BNSS under the new set of three criminal laws introduced in 2023. These reforms were aimed at modernising the criminal justice system, reducing procedural delays, and making laws more citizen-centric. Along with the BNSS, the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 , and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, has been replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 . Together, these three new laws mark a significant transformation in India’s criminal justice framework, focusing on faster trials, digital evidence, victim protection, and improved efficiency.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q96. As per Chapter I (Preliminary) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following is not applicable under the Act?

  1. (a) Hearings before a District Magistrate
  2. (b) Affidavits submitted before court officer
  3. (c) Trials before Military Court (Court-Martial)
  4. (d) Proceedings before Civil Judge Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Affidavits submitted before court officer

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 and sets out the law relating to admissibility of evidence in judicial proceedings. According to Chapter I, the Act applies to judicial proceedings before courts, hearings before District Magistrates, proceedings before Civil Judges, and trials before Military Courts. However, affidavits submitted before a court officer do not fall under the scope of this Act because they are governed by separate procedural laws such as the Civil Procedure Code. Therefore, they are not treated as evidence unless a specific law provides otherwise. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q97. How did the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 extend the legal abortion framework in India?

  1. (a) Increased gestational limit for termination to 24 weeks for special cases
  2. (b) Restricted abortion access only to married women
  3. (c) Allowed termination solely on the discretion of healthcare providers
  4. (d) Made abortion legal for all pregnancies up to 30 weeks
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Increased gestational limit for termination to 24 weeks for special cases

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 was introduced to expand access to safe and legal abortions in India. The most significant change was the extension of the upper gestation limit for termination of pregnancy from 20 weeks to 24 weeks in special categories of women such as survivors of rape, incest victims, differently-abled women, and minors. The Act also emphasized confidentiality, stating that the identity of the woman undergoing abortion cannot be revealed. Importantly, the law also recognized the right of unmarried women to seek abortion on the grounds of contraceptive failure, thus removing the earlier restriction of it being applicable only to married women. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q98. The new criminal laws aim to replace British-era laws with a focus on:

  1. (a) Justice delivery and citizen rights
  2. (b) Political advantages
  3. (c) Religious governance
  4. (d) Corporate laws
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Justice delivery and citizen rights

The new criminal laws enacted in 2023, namely the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), have been introduced to replace colonial-era legislations like the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and Indian Evidence Act. The main focus of these new laws is to strengthen justice delivery, safeguard citizen rights, and ensure speedy trials . They emphasize victim-centric justice, use of modern technology such as electronic evidence, and stricter provisions against crimes like mob lynching, organized crime, and crimes against women and children. Unlike the British laws which were designed to maintain control over the population, the new framework aims to prioritize citizens’ rights and deliver justice more efficiently. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q99. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, what is the punishment for mob lynching?

  1. (a) House arrest
  2. (b) No punishment
  3. (c) Fine only
  4. (d) Life imprisonment or death penalty
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Life imprisonment or death penalty

The correct answer is option 4. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 has specifically recognised mob lynching as a punishable offence. According to the provisions, if a mob commits murder based on race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the punishment prescribed is life imprisonment or death penalty, along with a fine. This inclusion was made to address rising incidents of mob violence and to strengthen the justice system by making the punishment as severe as murder under the Indian Penal Code. It reflects the seriousness with which the legislature treats mob lynching, placing it on par with the gravest criminal acts.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q100. Under Chapter V of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following qualifies as primary evidence?

  1. (a) A typed copy of the original document
  2. (b) A handwritten summary prepared later
  3. (c) A photocopy of the document signed by a clerk
  4. (d) A counterpart document executed by one of the parties
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A counterpart document executed by one of the parties

The correct answer is option 4. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 , primary evidence refers to the original document itself or any part of it produced for the inspection of the court. In situations where a document is executed in multiple parts, each part signed by the parties is considered primary evidence. Similarly, if the document exists in counterparts, each counterpart executed by one party is regarded as primary evidence against that party. Thus, a counterpart document executed by one of the parties qualifies as primary evidence, whereas typed copies, handwritten summaries, or photocopies are only considered secondary evidence unless authenticated under specific conditions.
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