SSC GD 2026 19 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Bengal — Option (c)
Baul is a syncretic religious sect and unique tradition of folk music and wandering minstrelsy that originated and flourished in Bengal (West Bengal, India, and Bangladesh). The Bauls are a group of mystic minstrels who sing devotional folk songs called 'Baul gaan ', blending elements of Hinduism (Vaishnavism), Sufism, and Tantric Buddhism. They typically wear saffron robes, play the ektara (one-stringed instrument) and duggi (a small drum), and travel from village to village singing spiritual songs about the quest for the divine. UNESCO recognized the Baul tradition as an Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2008. Rabindranath Tagore was greatly influenced by Baul music, which in turn influenced many of his compositions.
Option (a) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat is known for its folk music traditions like Garba and Dandiya Raas; the Baul singing tradition is specific to Bengal, not Gujarat.
Option (b) Tamil Nadu — Incorrect: Tamil Nadu is known for its classical Carnatic music, Bharatanatyam, and folk traditions like Koothu and Kolattam ; the Baul tradition belongs to Bengal.
Option (d) Punjab — Incorrect: Punjab is known for Bhangra, Giddha , and folk music forms like Dhol and Tumbi; the Baul mystic folk music tradition is exclusive to the Bengal region.

Correct Answer: Kalyan — Option (c)
Raag Yaman belongs to the Kalyan Thaat in Hindustani classical music. The Kalyan Thaat is characterised by the use of all seven Shuddha (natural) notes except for the Teevra (sharp) Madhyam (Ma#) instead of the Shuddha Madhyam. Raag Yaman (also known as Raag Yaman Kalyan or Emaan) is an evening raag performed in the first quarter of the night. Its distinctive feature is the use of the Teevra Madhyam (sharp fourth), which gives it its characteristic mellifluous and pleasing sound. Other famous raags in the Kalyan Thaat include Bhupali, Kedar, and Hameer. Raag Yaman is considered one of the most important and popular raags in Hindustani classical music.
Option (a) Kafi — Incorrect: The Kafi Thaat uses Komal Gandhar and Komal Nishad; Raag Yaman belongs to the Kalyan Thaat , not Kafi.
Option (b) Bilawal — Incorrect: The Bilawal Thaat uses all Shuddha (natural) notes including Shuddha Madhyam; Raag Yaman uses Teevra Madhyam and belongs to the Kalyan Thaat .
Option (d) Bhairav — Incorrect: The Bhairav Thaat uses Komal Re and Komal Dha; Raag Yaman with its Teevra Madhyam belongs to the Kalyan Thaat , not Bhairav.

Correct Answer: Stained glass windows — Option (b)
The Sacred Heart Church ( Église du Sacré- Cœur ) in Bangalore (Bengaluru) is a prominent Catholic church known for its beautiful stained glass windows, which are a defining feature of its Gothic-influenced architectural design. The church, built in the early 20th century, features large, ornate stained glass windows depicting biblical scenes and saints, which flood the interior with colourful light. Stained glass windows are characteristic of Gothic and Neo-Gothic religious architecture, allowing churches to convey religious narratives through coloured glass art. The Sacred Heart Church in Bangalore is one of the city's significant heritage landmarks.
Option (a) Domed roof — Incorrect: Domed roofs are characteristic of Byzantine and Mughal architecture (like St. Peter's Basilica and the Taj Mahal); the Sacred Heart Church in Bangalore features a Gothic-style structure with a pointed spire, not a dome.
Option (c) Corinthian columns — Incorrect: Corinthian columns are a feature of classical Greek and Roman architecture; the Sacred Heart Church in Bangalore features Gothic architectural elements, not classical Corinthian columns.
Option (d) Flat roof — Incorrect: A flat roof is a feature of modern and Islamic architecture; the Sacred Heart Church in Bangalore has a pitched, Gothic-style roof with spires, not a flat roof.

Correct Answer: Thiruvananthapuram — Option (d)
The Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST) is located in Thiruvananthapuram (Trivandrum), Kerala. IIST was established in 2007 by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) under the Department of Space, Government of India. It is India's first and only dedicated space university. IIST offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programmes in space science, space technology, and space applications. Students who graduate from IIST are typically inducted into ISRO to work on India's space programme . The institute is situated near ISRO's Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), which is ISRO's largest centre and the primary centre for launch vehicle development.
Option (a) Kochi — Incorrect: Kochi (Kerala) hosts other ISRO facilities and institutions, but IIST is specifically located in Thiruvananthapuram, not Kochi.
Option (b) Nagpur — Incorrect: Nagpur (Maharashtra) does not host IIST; the Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology is in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
Option (c) New Delhi — Incorrect: New Delhi hosts various government ministries and institutions, but IIST is located in Thiruvananthapuram, close to ISRO's Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both Oxandrolone and Oxabolone are anabolic agents (anabolic-androgenic steroids) that are prohibited in sports: Oxandrolone (trade name: Anavar) — a synthetic anabolic-androgenic steroid derived from dihydrotestosterone (DHT). It promotes muscle protein synthesis and increases lean muscle mass and strength. It is banned by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and is on the WADA Prohibited List under 'Anabolic Agents'. Oxabolone (also known as 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone or 4-OH-19-NT) — another anabolic androgenic steroid. It is a metabolite of some anabolic steroids and is also listed as a prohibited anabolic agent by WADA. Both substances are detected through doping tests in sports.
Option (a) Only I (Oxandrolone) — Incorrect: While Oxandrolone is indeed an anabolic agent, Oxabolone is ALSO an anabolic agent; the correct answer includes both substances.
Option (b) Only II ( Oxabolone ) — Incorrect: Both Oxandrolone and Oxabolone are anabolic agents prohibited by WADA; only selecting Oxabolone would be incomplete.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both Oxandrolone and Oxabolone are anabolic-androgenic steroids classified as anabolic agents by WADA and are banned in sports.

Correct Answer: General K. M. Cariappa — Option (b)
Field Marshal Kodandera Madappa (K. M.) Cariappa was the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army, assuming command on January 15, 1949, when General Sir Francis Butcher (a British officer) handed over command. January 15 is now celebrated as Army Day in India to commemorate this historic transition. Cariappa served as Commander-in-Chief until January 1953. He also commanded Indian forces during the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947 (Kashmir War). In 1986, he was posthumously awarded the rank of Field Marshal — the highest rank in the Indian Army — along with Sam Manekshaw, making them the only two officers to have held this rank. He passed away in 1993 at the age of 94.
Option (a) General P. N. Thapar — Incorrect: General P. N. Thapar was the 4th Chief of Army Staff (1961-62); he was not the first Indian Army Chief — that was K. M. Cariappa.
Option (c) General K. S. Thimayya — Incorrect: General K. S. Thimayya was the 3rd Chief of Army Staff (1957-61), known for his role in Indo-Pakistani War and Korean War; he was not the first Indian Army Chief.
Option (d) General S. M. Srinagesh — Incorrect: General S. M. Srinagesh was the 2nd Chief of Army Staff (1953-55); the first Indian Army Chief was K. M. Cariappa who assumed command in 1949.

Correct Answer: Pakistan — Option (c)
Sachin Tendulkar made his Test cricket debut against Pakistan on November 15, 1989, at the National Stadium in Karachi. He was only 16 years old at the time, making him one of the youngest players to debut in international cricket. In that debut Test, he faced fast bowlers like Waqar Younis (also on debut), Imran Khan, Wasim Akram, and Abdul Qadir. In his first innings, he was out for 15 runs. Despite being hit on the nose by a Waqar Younis delivery and bleeding, the young Tendulkar refused to leave the field and continued batting — a moment that became iconic in cricket folklore. India lost the series 0-1, but Sachin's debut marked the beginning of a legendary 24-year international career.
Option (a) Sri Lanka — Incorrect: Sachin Tendulkar did not debut against Sri Lanka; his first Test match was against Pakistan in Karachi on November 15, 1989.
Option (b) Australia — Incorrect: Sachin's first Test was not against Australia; he debuted against Pakistan in 1989. He first toured Australia later in his career.
Option (d) England — Incorrect: Sachin Tendulkar's Test debut was against Pakistan (November 1989), not England. His first Test against England came later during the 1990 tour of England.

Correct Answer: Vessels and Tracheids — Option (b)
In plants, water conduction (upward transport of water and dissolved minerals from roots to leaves) is carried out through the Xylem, specifically through two types of cells: Vessels (Tracheae) — elongated, tube-like dead cells arranged end-to-end to form continuous pipelines for water transport; found mainly in angiosperms; Tracheids — elongated, spindle-shaped dead cells that conduct water through pits in their walls; found in all vascular plants including gymnosperms and ferns. This upward movement of water is called the ascent of sap. The driving forces include root pressure, capillary action, and transpiration pull (cohesion-tension theory).
Option (a) Sieve tubes and companion cells — Incorrect: Sieve tubes and companion cells are components of Phloem, which conducts food (sugars) manufactured in leaves downward to other parts of the plant; they do NOT conduct water.
Option (c) Guard cells and stomata — Incorrect: Guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata for gas exchange and transpiration; they are part of the epidermis, not the vascular tissue responsible for water conduction.
Option (d) Phloem fibres — Incorrect: Phloem fibres provide structural support to the phloem; they are not involved in water conduction — that function belongs to Xylem (Vessels and Tracheids ).

Correct Answer: Decomposers — Option (c)
Decomposers are organisms (primarily bacteria and fungi) that break down dead and decaying organic matter (dead plants and animals) into simpler inorganic substances through the process of decomposition. This process recycles nutrients back into the soil and ecosystem, making them available for plants (producers) to absorb and use again. Decomposers play a crucial role in nutrient cycling (especially the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, and phosphorus cycle) and maintaining ecosystem health. Without decomposers, dead organic matter would accumulate indefinitely and nutrients would remain locked in dead organisms. Examples of decomposers include bacteria like Bacillus and fungi like Rhizopus and Penicillium.
Option (a) Herbivores — Incorrect: Herbivores are primary consumers that feed on living plants; they do not decompose dead organic matter.
Option (b) Producers — Incorrect: Producers (plants and photosynthetic organisms) produce food through photosynthesis; they do not decompose dead remains.
Option (d) Carnivores — Incorrect: Carnivores are consumers that eat other animals; while some may scavenge, the PRIMARY decomposers are bacteria and fungi, not carnivores.

Correct Answer: Dead animals — Option (b)
Biodegradable waste refers to any waste that can be broken down into simpler organic matter by microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) through natural biological processes over a relatively short period. Dead animals are biodegradable because they are composed of organic molecules (proteins, fats, carbohydrates) that decomposers can break down into water, carbon dioxide, and minerals. This decomposition returns nutrients to the soil. Other examples of biodegradable waste include food scraps, vegetable peels, paper, wood, and agricultural waste.
Option (a) Glass jars — Incorrect: Glass is non-biodegradable; it is made from silicon dioxide and other minerals that cannot be broken down by microorganisms. Glass can persist in the environment for thousands of years.
Option (c) Aluminium cans — Incorrect: Aluminium is a metal that is non-biodegradable; it does not decompose naturally through biological processes. Aluminium cans can persist in the environment for 80-100 years.
Option (d) Styrofoam — Incorrect: Styrofoam (expanded polystyrene) is a synthetic plastic that is non-biodegradable; it breaks into microplastics but cannot be decomposed by microorganisms, persisting in the environment for hundreds of years.

Correct Answer: Chlorophyll — Option (d)
The green colour of leaves is caused by chlorophyll, the primary photosynthetic pigment found in chloroplasts. Chlorophyll is a green pigment that absorbs light energy primarily in the red (wavelength ~670 nm) and blue (wavelength ~430 nm) regions of the visible spectrum, while reflecting green light (~500-565 nm) — which is why leaves appear green to our eyes. There are two main types of chlorophyll: Chlorophyll a (blue-green) and Chlorophyll b (yellow-green). Chlorophyll uses absorbed light energy to power the process of photosynthesis, converting CO2 and water into glucose and oxygen. In autumn, chlorophyll breaks down as days shorten, revealing underlying yellow and orange pigments (carotenoids).
Option (a) Guard cells — Incorrect: Guard cells are kidney-shaped cells surrounding stomata that regulate gas exchange and water loss through transpiration; they do not cause the green colour of leaves.
Option (b) Xylem — Incorrect: Xylem is the vascular tissue responsible for water and mineral transport in plants; it does not impart green colour to leaves — that function belongs to chlorophyll.
Option (c) Phloem — Incorrect: Phloem is the vascular tissue that transports food (sugars) produced during photosynthesis to other parts of the plant; it does not cause the green colour of leaves.

Correct Answer: Leaf — Option (d)
The leaf is called the 'food factory' of the plant because it is the primary site of photosynthesis — the biological process by which plants manufacture their own food. Leaves contain chlorophyll in chloroplasts, which absorbs sunlight. Using this light energy, carbon dioxide (absorbed through stomata) and water (transported from roots via xylem) are converted into glucose (food/energy) and oxygen. The equation is: 6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 (glucose) + 6O2. Leaves are specially adapted for photosynthesis: they have a broad, flat surface to maximize light absorption, a thin structure for CO2 diffusion, and numerous stomata for gas exchange. The manufactured glucose is then transported to other parts of the plant via phloem.
Option (a) Flower — Incorrect: The flower is the reproductive organ of the plant, responsible for pollination and seed production; it is not the primary site of food (glucose) manufacturing.
Option (b) Stem — Incorrect: The stem provides structural support and serves as a conduit for water, minerals, and food transport; while some stems can photosynthesize (e.g., cactus stems), the primary 'food factory' is the leaf.
Option (c) Root — Incorrect: Roots absorb water and minerals from the soil and anchor the plant; they do not perform photosynthesis (as they are underground and have no chlorophyll) and are not called the food factory.

Correct Answer: Nervous (neural) tissue — Option (c)
The brain and spinal cord — which together form the Central Nervous System (CNS) — are primarily composed of nervous (neural) tissue. Nervous tissue consists of two main types of cells: Neurons (nerve cells) — the structural and functional units of the nervous system that transmit electrical impulses (nerve signals); and Neuroglia (glial cells) — supporting cells that protect, nourish, and maintain neurons. Examples of glial cells include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells. The brain is the most complex organ in the human body, containing approximately 86 billion neurons. The spinal cord relays signals between the brain and the peripheral nervous system and controls reflex actions.
Option (a) Muscle tissue — Incorrect: Muscle tissue (made of muscle fibres /myocytes) is found in muscles like the heart, skeletal muscles, and smooth muscles of organs; the brain and spinal cord are composed of nervous tissue, not muscle tissue.
Option (b) Connective tissue — Incorrect: Connective tissue (e.g., bone, cartilage, blood, adipose tissue) connects and supports body structures; the brain and spinal cord are made of nervous tissue, though connective tissue (meninges) surrounds and protects them.
Option (d) Epithelial tissue — Incorrect: Epithelial tissue lines body cavities, surfaces, and glands; the brain and spinal cord are composed of nervous tissue, not epithelial tissue.

Correct Answer: Testes — Option (b)
The testes (male gonads) are the primary endocrine glands in males that secrete hormones responsible for puberty. The main hormone secreted by the testes is Testosterone (an androgen), which triggers puberty in males and causes the development of secondary sexual characteristics such as: growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice (voice changes), enlargement of the larynx (Adam's apple), increase in muscle mass and bone density, enlargement of the testes and penis, development of sperm production (spermatogenesis), and increased height. The secretion of testosterone is regulated by LH (Luteinizing Hormone) from the pituitary gland, which is in turn controlled by GnRH from the hypothalamus.
Option (a) Pineal gland — Incorrect: The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which regulates the sleep-wake cycle (circadian rhythms) and seasonal biological functions; it does not secrete the primary puberty hormones in males.
Option (c) Pancreas — Incorrect: The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon for blood sugar regulation; it does not secrete hormones responsible for male puberty.
Option (d) Thymus gland — Incorrect: The thymus gland secretes thymosin and other thymic hormones that help develop the immune system (T-lymphocytes); it is not responsible for male puberty hormones.

Correct Answer: Narendra Modi — Option (c)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded Brazil's highest civilian honour , the Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross (Grande Colar da Ordem Nacional do Cruzeiro do Sul), during his official visit to Brazil in July 2025. The National Order of the Southern Cross is Brazil's most prestigious state decoration, awarded to heads of state and government and individuals who have rendered exceptional services to Brazil or contributed to strengthening bilateral relations. PM Modi received this honour in recognition of his contributions to strengthening India-Brazil bilateral relations and the broader strategic partnership between the two nations.
Option (a) Draupadi Murmu — Incorrect: President Draupadi Murmu did not receive Brazil's Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross in July 2025; it was PM Narendra Modi who was honoured .
Option (b) Rahul Gandhi — Incorrect: Rahul Gandhi, Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, did not receive Brazil's highest civilian honour ; PM Narendra Modi received this award during his Brazil visit in July 2025.
Option (d) Jaishankar — Incorrect: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar did not receive Brazil's Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross; the recipient was PM Narendra Modi.

Correct Answer: Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar — Option (d)
Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar was appointed as the Governor of Kerala in December 2024. He previously served as the Governor of Bihar and before that as the Governor of Himachal Pradesh. Arlekar is a senior BJP leader from Goa who has held various political positions. He succeeded Arif Mohammed Khan as the Governor of Kerala. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India and serves as the constitutional head of the state, working with the elected state government.
Option (a) Vijay Kumar Singh — Incorrect: General (Retd.) V. K. Singh is a former Army Chief and Union Minister; he was not appointed as Governor of Kerala in December 2024.
Option (b) Anusuiya Uikey — Incorrect: Anusuiya Uikey previously served as Governor of Chhattisgarh; she was not appointed as Governor of Kerala in December 2024.
Option (c) Hari Babu Kambhampati — Incorrect: Hari Babu Kambhampati has served as a Governor of other states; the Governor of Kerala appointed in December 2024 was Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar.

Correct Answer: Acharya Prashant — Option (a)
Acharya Prashant (born Prashant Tripathi) was honoured with the 'Most Influential Environmentalist' award on World Environment Day 2025 (June 5, 2025). Acharya Prashant is a spiritual leader, author, and social activist known for his advocacy for environmental causes, particularly promoting plant-based diets as a means to reduce the environmental impact of animal agriculture. He is the founder of the Prashant Advait Foundation and has spoken extensively about the connection between spiritual awareness and environmental responsibility. World Environment Day is celebrated annually on June 5th and is the United Nations' principal vehicle for encouraging awareness and action for the protection of our environment.
Option (b) Gajendra Shekhawat — Incorrect: Gajendra Singh Shekhawat is a Union Minister who has held the portfolio of Jal Shakti (water resources); he was not the recipient of the Most Influential Environmentalist award on World Environment Day 2025.
Option (c) Narendra Modi — Incorrect: While PM Modi has championed environmental initiatives like the International Solar Alliance and LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) mission, the Most Influential Environmentalist award on World Environment Day 2025 was given to Acharya Prashant.
Option (d) Sonu Sood — Incorrect: Sonu Sood is a Bollywood actor and philanthropist known for his humanitarian work during COVID-19; he was not the recipient of the Most Influential Environmentalist award on World Environment Day 2025.

Correct Answer: Manipur — Option (a)
Manipur won the most medals among northeastern states in the National Games 2025. Manipur is traditionally the most successful sporting state in Northeast India, known for producing world-class athletes across multiple disciplines including boxing (Mary Kom, Lovlina Borgohain), weightlifting (Mirabai Chanu), wrestling, football (Manipur is the football hub of Northeast India), wushu, and other combat sports. The state has a strong sporting culture and infrastructure, with government support for sports development. In the National Games, Manipur consistently outperforms other northeastern states in total medal count.
Option (b) Arunachal Pradesh — Incorrect: While Arunachal Pradesh participates in the National Games, it does not win as many medals as Manipur among northeastern states in sports competitions.
Option (c) Assam — Incorrect: Assam is a larger northeastern state with some sporting achievements, but Manipur has consistently been the top-performing northeastern state in national-level games and competitions.
Option (d) Mizoram — Incorrect: Mizoram is known for football (one of India's most football-crazy states), but among northeastern states, Manipur wins the most overall medals in the National Games.

Correct Answer: 81 — Option (a)
The University of Delhi (Delhi University/DU) was ranked 81st in the QS Asia University Rankings 2025. The QS Asia University Rankings, published by Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), annually ranks the top universities in Asia based on metrics including academic reputation, employer reputation, faculty-student ratio, international faculty and students, citations per paper, papers per faculty, staff with PhD, and inbound/outbound exchange students. Delhi University is one of India's premier institutions of higher learning, with constituent colleges like Hindu College, Miranda House, Shri Ram College of Commerce, St. Stephen's College, and Lady Shri Ram College being among the most sought-after.
Option (b) 67 — Incorrect: 67 was not Delhi University's rank in the QS Asia University Rankings 2025; the correct rank is 81.
Option (c) 91 — Incorrect: Delhi University's rank in the QS Asia University Rankings 2025 was 81, not 91.
Option (d) 77 — Incorrect: 77 is not the correct rank of Delhi University in the QS Asia University Rankings 2025; the correct rank is 81.

Correct Answer: 18 — Option (d)
India's ranking in the Global Business Complexity Index (GBCI) 2025, published by TMF Group, is 18th. The GBCI measures business complexity across countries based on factors like regulatory compliance burden, tax system complexity, HR and employment law complexity, accounting standards, and corporate governance requirements. A higher rank (closer to 1) indicates higher business complexity. India's ranking of 18 reflects its complex regulatory environment, including multi-layered compliance requirements, diverse state-level regulations, and the challenges of operating across different legal and tax jurisdictions in a large federal country. The GBCI helps businesses understand and navigate the complexity of global operations.
Option (a) 71 — Incorrect: India's rank in the Global Business Complexity Index 2025 is 18, not 71; 71 would indicate a less complex business environment.
Option (b) 33 — Incorrect: India's correct rank in the GBCI 2025 is 18, not 33.
Option (c) 11 — Incorrect: India is ranked 18th in the Global Business Complexity Index 2025, not 11th.