SSC GD 2026 19 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 0.1 s — Option (b)
The persistence of hearing (also called 'auditory persistence') is approximately 0.1 seconds (100 milliseconds). This is analogous to the persistence of vision for light, which is also about 0.1 seconds. This means that after a sound stimulus ends, our brain continues to perceive it for about 0.1 seconds. This principle is important in music and speech perception — it allows us to connect individual sounds into a continuous stream. This is why we can hear musical notes as connected melodies rather than isolated sounds, and why speech sounds blend into understandable words. The 0.1-second persistence is used in the design of audio systems and has applications in hearing aids and cochlear implants.
Option (a) 0.01 s — Incorrect: 0.01 seconds (10 milliseconds) is too short for auditory persistence; the brain retains sound experience for approximately 0.1 seconds.
Option (c) 1 s — Incorrect: 1 second is too long for the basic persistence of a sound experience; the standard value of auditory persistence is 0.1 seconds.
Option (d) 10 s — Incorrect: 10 seconds refers to short-term memory retention, not the basic neurological persistence of sound experience, which is about 0.1 seconds.

Correct Answer: Nallamala Hills — Option (d)
The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of hills running along the eastern coast of India. They are known by different regional names in different states: Nallamala Hills — in Andhra Pradesh (part of Eastern Ghats); Erramala Hills, Lankamala Range, Velikonda Range — also in Andhra Pradesh; Javadi Hills, Shevaroy Hills — in Tamil Nadu; Mahendragiri Hills — in Odisha. The Nallamala Hills, located in the Kurnool and Prakasam districts of Andhra Pradesh, are considered part of the Eastern Ghats and represent the southern section of this discontinuous range.
Option (a) Nilgiri Hills — Incorrect: The Nilgiri Hills are located at the meeting point of the Western and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu/Kerala; they are generally considered part of the Western Ghats, not a name for the Eastern Ghats.
Option (b) Rajmahal Hills — Incorrect: The Rajmahal Hills are located in Jharkhand and are sometimes considered as an extension of the Deccan Plateau, not the Eastern Ghats proper.
Option (c) Maikal Hills — Incorrect: The Maikal Hills are located in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, near the origin of the Narmada river ; they are not part of the Eastern Ghats.

Correct Answer: 94.00% — Option (a)
According to the 2011 Census of India, Kerala's literacy rate is 94.00%, making it the highest literacy rate among all major Indian states. The breakdown is: Male literacy: 96.11%; Female literacy: 92.07%; Overall: 94.00%. Kerala achieved this high literacy through: universal elementary education, strong government investment in schooling, active role of Christian missionaries in early education, high social awareness, matrilineal family traditions that empowered women's education, and effective implementation of adult education programmes . The national average literacy rate in 2011 was 74.04%.
Option (b) 88.70% — Incorrect: 88.70% is not the literacy rate of Kerala as per the 2011 Census; the correct figure is 94.00%, which is significantly higher.
Option (c) 87.10% — Incorrect: 87.10% does not match Kerala's 2011 Census literacy rate of 94.00%; this figure is closer to Mizoram's or Tripura's literacy rates.
Option (d) 99.00% — Incorrect: While Kerala is India's most literate state, its 2011 Census literacy rate is 94.00%, not 99.00%; no Indian state has achieved 99% literacy as per 2011 Census data.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
In South Indian states, rice is cultivated in BOTH Rabi and Kharif seasons. This is one of the key differences between South India and North India's rice cultivation patterns: Kharif rice (June-November): Main crop, sown during the Southwest Monsoon season; Rabi rice (November-April): Second crop, possible in South India due to the Northeast Monsoon (October-December), irrigation from rivers like Kaveri, Krishna, and Godavari, and relatively warm winter temperatures that allow rice cultivation. States like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka grow rice in both seasons. Tamil Nadu even grows a third crop ( Kuruvai ) in some areas. This is unlike North India (Punjab, Haryana, UP) where rice is strictly a Kharif crop.
Option (a) Only I (Rabi) — Incorrect: While rice is indeed grown in the Rabi season in South India, it is also grown during the Kharif season; the correct answer includes both seasons.
Option (b) Only II (Kharif) — Incorrect: Rice cultivation in South India is not limited to the Kharif season; it is also cultivated during the Rabi season due to the Northeast Monsoon and irrigation availability.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Rice is a major crop in South India and is cultivated in both Rabi and Kharif seasons; saying neither season would be completely wrong.

Correct Answer: Trade, investment and finance — Option (a)
Brazil holds the BRICS Presidency in 2025. Brazil's key priorities for BRICS 2025 include: Reforming global governance institutions (UN, IMF, WTO); Trade, investment and finance — particularly promoting South-South cooperation and reducing dependence on the US dollar for trade settlements; Sustainable development and climate change; Food security and agriculture; Health cooperation; Combating inequality. Brazil's BRICS 2025 theme focuses on 'Strengthening Global Governance' with a special emphasis on economic reform, trade facilitation, and new payment systems for intra-BRICS trade and investment flows.
Option (b) Sports, tourism and youth affairs — Incorrect: While BRICS countries cooperate on people-to-people exchanges, sports, tourism and youth affairs are not identified as Brazil's key BRICS 2025 priorities; trade, investment and finance are the primary focus.
Option (c) Space exploration, astronomy and satellite cooperation — Incorrect: Space cooperation exists under BRICS science and technology frameworks, but it is not Brazil's primary priority for BRICS 2025; economic and governance reforms take precedence.
Option (d) Cultural heritage, language promotion and traditional arts — Incorrect: Cultural exchanges are part of BRICS cooperation but are not among Brazil's key priorities for the BRICS 2025 presidency.

Correct Answer: Providing vocational training to adolescent girls aged 16-18 years — Option (b)
The 'Navya' programme was launched in June 2025 by the Government of India with the primary objective of providing vocational training and skill development to adolescent girls in the 16-18 years age group. The programme aims to bridge the gap between education and employment for out-of-school or at-risk adolescent girls by providing market-oriented vocational skills, enabling them to be self-reliant and economically empowered. Navya is designed as a targeted intervention to address the specific needs of older adolescent girls who may have dropped out of school or are transitioning from education to workforce.
Option (a) Providing higher education to adolescent girls — Incorrect: The Navya programme focuses on vocational/skill training for girls aged 16-18, not higher (university-level) education; other schemes like PM Vidyalakshmi address higher education access.
Option (c) Promoting sports among adolescent girls — Incorrect: Sports promotion for adolescent girls is addressed through schemes like Khelo India; Navya's primary focus is vocational training and skill development.
Option (d) Providing financial assistance to adolescent girls — Incorrect: Financial assistance to adolescent girls is provided through schemes like Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana and Pragati Scholarship; Navya's focus is specifically on vocational skill training.

Correct Answer: Jamnagar — Option (d)
India's first-ever census of coastal wader birds (shore birds) was initiated in Jamnagar, Gujarat in January 2025. Jamnagar is home to the Marine National Park and Sanctuary, the first marine national park in India, located in the Gulf of Kutch. The region's extensive coastal mudflats, mangroves, and wetlands provide ideal habitat for migratory wader birds (shorebirds). The census was conducted to assess the population, diversity, and distribution of wader species (such as sandpipers, plovers, stilts, avocets, and godwits) along India's coastline. This baseline data is crucial for conservation planning and monitoring the impact of climate change on migratory bird populations.
Option (a) Raipur — Incorrect: Raipur is the capital of Chhattisgarh, an inland state; it does not have coastal areas suitable for wader bird census activities.
Option (b) Jammu — Incorrect: Jammu is a city in Jammu & Kashmir and is not located on the coast; the first coastal wader bird census began in Jamnagar, Gujarat.
Option (c) Chennai — Incorrect: While Chennai (Tamil Nadu) has a long coastline, the first coastal wader bird census in India was initiated in Jamnagar, Gujarat, not Chennai.

Correct Answer: TMF Group — Option (a)
The Global Business Complexity Index (GBCI) is published by TMF Group, a global professional services firm that provides accounting, HR, payroll, and compliance services. The GBCI measures and ranks the complexity of business environments across countries worldwide, considering factors like regulatory requirements, compliance burden, tax systems, HR and legal frameworks, and corporate governance requirements. India features prominently in the GBCI rankings as one of the complex business environments due to its multi-layered regulatory system, multiple tax jurisdictions, and diverse legal requirements across states.
Option (b) International Monetary Fund — Incorrect: The IMF publishes reports like the World Economic Outlook, Global Financial Stability Report, and Article IV consultations; the Global Business Complexity Index is not published by the IMF.
Option (c) World Trade Organization — Incorrect: The WTO publishes the World Trade Report, trade statistics, and trade policy reviews; the Global Business Complexity Index is published by TMF Group, not the WTO.
Option (d) Economist Intelligence Unit — Incorrect: The EIU publishes business environment rankings and country reports, but the Global Business Complexity Index specifically is published by TMF Group.

Correct Answer: Reduction in labour supply due to high rural literacy rate — Option (d)
Between 1950 and 1990, Indian agriculture faced numerous genuine challenges: Fragmented land holdings (due to population growth and land inheritance patterns); Dependence on monsoon rainfall (rain-fed agriculture, limited irrigation); Low use of fertilizers and irrigation (especially before the Green Revolution of the mid-1960s); Lack of credit, storage, and market facilities. However, 'Reduction in labour supply due to high rural literacy rate' was NOT a challenge — because rural literacy rates were actually very low during this period (below 30-40%), and India had an abundance of cheap agricultural labour . High rural literacy was not a feature of this era.
Option (a) Fragmented land holdings — Incorrect as 'NOT a challenge': Fragmented holdings were a major problem, as repeated subdivision of land reduced farm size, making mechanization and efficient farming difficult.
Option (b) Dependence on monsoon rainfall — Incorrect as 'NOT a challenge': Monsoon dependence was a critical challenge; crop failures due to drought or floods were common and caused food insecurity.
Option (c) Low use of fertilizers and irrigation — Incorrect as 'NOT a challenge': Low fertilizer and irrigation use was a real challenge before the Green Revolution; productivity was poor due to traditional farming methods.

Correct Answer: Real income — Option (a)
National income measured at constant prices (base year prices) is called Real National Income (or Real GDP). When prices of a base year are used to measure output, the effect of inflation is eliminated, making it possible to compare actual growth in the quantity of goods and services produced over different years. In contrast, Nominal National Income (measured at current prices) includes the effect of both price changes and actual output changes. Real income is a more accurate indicator of actual economic growth than nominal income. For example, if nominal GDP grows by 10% but inflation is 6%, real GDP grows by approximately 4%.
Option (b) Nominal income — Incorrect: Nominal income (or Nominal GDP) is measured at current prices and includes the effect of inflation; it is NOT national income measured at constant prices.
Option (c) Disposable income — Incorrect: Disposable income refers to the income available to individuals for spending and saving after paying taxes (Personal Disposable Income); it is not the term for national income at constant prices.
Option (d) Net factor income — Incorrect: Net factor income from abroad (NFIA) is the difference between factor income earned by residents abroad and factor income paid to non-residents; adding NFIA to GDP gives GNP — it is not the term for income at constant prices.

Correct Answer: 84902 — Option (a)
The Namaste (National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem) scheme is a Central Sector Scheme launched jointly by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The scheme aims to eliminate hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks and ensure the safety and dignity of sanitation workers (SSWs). As of August 2025, approximately 84,902 sewer and septic tank workers have been validated (profiled and registered) under the Namaste scheme. The scheme provides: safety kits to SSWs, health insurance, livelihood training, alternative occupations, and capital subsidies for sanitation-related enterprises.
Option (b) 74900 — Incorrect: The number of SSWs validated under the Namaste scheme as of August 2025 was 84,902, not 74,900.
Option (c) 64900 — Incorrect: 64,900 does not reflect the actual count of SSWs validated under the Namaste scheme; the correct figure is 84,902.
Option (d) 44900 — Incorrect: 44,900 significantly underestimates the number of sewer and septic tank workers validated under the Namaste scheme as of August 2025.

Correct Answer: For rock-cut cave temples in Badami — Option (b)
The Chalukyas of Badami (Vatapi Chalukyas , c. 543-753 CE), who ruled from Badami (Vatapi) in present-day Karnataka, are renowned for their magnificent rock-cut cave temples at Badami. There are four cave temples carved into the red sandstone cliffs: Cave 1 (dedicated to Shiva, with famous Nataraja carvings), Cave 2 (dedicated to Vishnu as Trivikrama), Cave 3 (dedicated to Vishnu, the largest), and Cave 4 (dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras). These caves (6th-7th century CE) represent the earliest examples of Chalukya art and are precursors to the structural Chalukya temples found at Pattadakal and Aihole . The Badami cave temples are a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Option (a) For bronze statues of Nataraja — Incorrect: Bronze Nataraja statues are the hallmark of the Chola dynasty (9th-13th century CE), not the Chalukyas of Badami; the lost-wax casting technique used for Chola bronzes is distinct.
Option (c) For developing Nagara style temples — Incorrect: The Chalukyas actually experimented with both Nagara (North Indian) and Dravidian (South Indian) temple styles, with their structural temples at Pattadakal showing both styles; however, they are primarily celebrated for rock-cut cave temples.
Option (d) For paintings in Ellora caves — Incorrect: Ellora caves are in Maharashtra and were excavated by the Rashtrakutas (primarily), Yadavas, and others; famous paintings at Ellora (Cave 32) are from the Rashtrakuta period, not the Chalukyas of Badami.

Correct Answer: Charter Act of 1853 — Option (c)
The Charter Act of 1853 was a landmark legislation that for the first time introduced open competitive examination for recruitment to the Indian Civil Service (ICS). Before 1853, the East India Company's Directors had the patronage power to nominate candidates for the civil service through a system of 'writerships'. The Charter Act of 1853 abolished this patronage system and introduced merit-based competitive examinations open to all British subjects (including Indians, theoretically). The examination was initially held only in London, which made it difficult for Indians to participate due to financial and travel constraints. The Macaulay Committee (1854) was formed to implement this recommendation. This laid the foundation for the modern IAS (Indian Administrative Service).
Option (a) Charter Act of 1813 — Incorrect: The Charter Act of 1813 renewed the EIC's charter, ended EIC's trade monopoly (except tea and China trade), and opened India to Christian missionaries; it did not introduce open competition for civil services.
Option (b) Charter Act of 1833 — Incorrect: The Charter Act of 1833 ended EIC's commercial activities and made it purely administrative; it mentioned equal opportunities for Indians 'without distinction' but did NOT introduce open competitive examinations.
Option (d) Indian Councils Act of 1861 — Incorrect: The Indian Councils Act of 1861 reorganized the Viceroy's Council and introduced the portfolio system; civil service recruitment through open competition was already established by the 1853 Act.

Correct Answer: Bhortal dance — Option (d)
Bhortal (or Bhortal Naach ) is a traditional folk dance of Assam, primarily performed by the Bodo community and other communities of the region. The dance gets its name from ' Bhortal ' — a pair of large brass cymbals used as the primary instrument during the performance. The dancer holds a pair of Bhortals in each hand and performs acrobatic and rhythmic movements while playing them simultaneously. Bhortal Naach is typically performed during Bihu festivals and other cultural celebrations. It is recognized as an important element of Assam's folk cultural heritage.
Option (a) Gondi — Incorrect: Gondi dance is associated with the Gondi tribal communities of Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Telangana; it is not from Assam.
Option (b) Kayaang — Incorrect: Kayaang is not a dance form associated with Assam; it is associated with other northeastern states or communities. The dance associated with Assam is Bhortal Naach .
Option (c) Chakyar Koothu — Incorrect: Chakyar Koothu is a classical solo performance art form of Kerala, traditionally performed by the Chakyar caste community in temple premises; it is not related to Assam.

Correct Answer: Karnataka — Option (b)
Godachi Mela is a traditional fair (mela) celebrated in Godachi village, located in the Belagavi (formerly Belgaum) district of Karnataka. The Godachi Mela is dedicated to the local deity and is an important cultural and religious gathering for the communities of that region. It is one of the notable local fairs in northern Karnataka that brings together people from surrounding villages and districts for religious worship, trading, cultural performances, and folk arts. The fair is an important aspect of Karnataka's rich tradition of local religious festivals and haats (markets).
Option (a) Gujarat — Incorrect: Godachi Mela is celebrated in Karnataka, not Gujarat. Gujarat has its own famous fairs like Tarnetar Mela and Bhavnath Mela.
Option (c) Assam — Incorrect: Assam is known for fairs like Ambubachi Mela at Kamakhya and Jonbeel Mela; the Godachi Mela is specific to Karnataka.
Option (d) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana is known for fairs like Surajkund Mela; the Godachi Mela belongs to Karnataka, not Haryana.

Correct Answer: 2008 — Option (a)
The first season of the Indian Premier League (IPL) was played in 2008. The inaugural IPL season was launched on April 18, 2008, at the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bengaluru, Karnataka, with the match between Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) and Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR). The first IPL season consisted of 8 teams and 59 matches. The first IPL season was won by the Rajasthan Royals (under Shane Warne's captaincy), defeating the Chennai Super Kings in the final. The IPL was founded by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) under the chairmanship of Lalit Modi. Brendon McCullum scored the first IPL century in the inaugural match.
Option (b) 2009 — Incorrect: The IPL's second season was played in 2009 (partly in South Africa due to the Indian general elections); the first season was in 2008.
Option (c) 2010 — Incorrect: 2010 was the year of IPL's third season; the first season was launched in 2008.
Option (d) 2011 — Incorrect: 2011 was the year of IPL's fourth season; the inaugural IPL season was held in 2008.

Correct Answer: 1951 — Option (a)
The Volleyball Federation of India (VFI) was established in 1951. It is the national governing body for volleyball in India and is affiliated with the Asian Volleyball Confederation (AVC) and the International Volleyball Federation (FIVB). Since its formation in 1951, the VFI has been responsible for promoting and developing volleyball at all levels — from grassroots to national teams — in India. India has participated in Asian Volleyball Championships and other international tournaments under VFI's governance. The VFI also oversees beach volleyball in India.
Option (b) 1980 — Incorrect: The Volleyball Federation of India was formed in 1951, not 1980; 1980 is significantly later than the actual year of formation.
Option (c) 1958 — Incorrect: The VFI was established in 1951, seven years before 1958; 1958 may be confused with the founding year of some other sports federation.
Option (d) 1976 — Incorrect: 1976 is not the founding year of the Volleyball Federation of India; the federation was formed in 1951, shortly after India's independence.

Correct Answer: Kabaddi — Option (b)
In Kabaddi, 'Toe Touch' is a specific raiding technique where the raider extends their leg and touches an opponent's body (usually the toe or foot area) to earn a raid point, while maintaining momentum to escape back to their half. This technique allows a raider to score points while staying relatively safe from being caught by the defenders. The Toe Touch is one of the fundamental skills in Kabaddi raiding, along with other techniques like hand touch, body touch, dubki, and side kick. The image shown depicts this Kabaddi raiding skill where the raider's toe/foot is used to tag an opponent.
Option (a) Basketball — Incorrect: Basketball involves dribbling, shooting, passing, and jump techniques; 'Toe Touch' as a tagging skill is not a recognized technique in basketball.
Option (c) Football — Incorrect: While football involves foot skills (toe kicks, etc.), the specific skill of 'Toe Touch' as shown — used to tag opponents — is not a football technique; it is specific to Kabaddi.
Option (d) Badminton — Incorrect: Badminton is a racket sport involving hitting a shuttlecock; physical tagging techniques like Toe Touch are not part of badminton gameplay.

Correct Answer: 2009 — Option (c)
The Government of India notified the revised National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for 12 pollutants in 2009 under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. The NAAQS 2009 set standards for 12 pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Ozone (O3), Lead (Pb), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ammonia (NH3), Benzene (C6H6), Benzo(a)pyrene, Arsenic, and Nickel. The standards define the maximum permissible concentrations of these pollutants in ambient (outdoor) air to protect public health and the environment. PM2.5 standards were introduced for the first time in India through this 2009 revision.
Option (a) 1999 — Incorrect: The NAAQS was revised in 2009, not 1999; earlier versions of NAAQS existed but the comprehensive 12-pollutant notification was in 2009.
Option (b) 2001 — Incorrect: 2001 is not the year when NAAQS for 12 pollutants was notified; the correct year for the comprehensive NAAQS notification is 2009.
Option (d) 2015 — Incorrect: 2015 was not the year of NAAQS notification for 12 pollutants; the comprehensive NAAQS including PM2.5 standards was notified in 2009.