SSC GD 2026 20 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 97th Amendment — Option (d)
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 gave constitutional status to cooperative societies in India. Key provisions of the 97th Amendment: It inserted Article 43B under Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), which directs the State to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies; It inserted Part IXB ('The Co-operative Societies') consisting of Articles 243ZH to 243ZT, which provides a constitutional framework for the incorporation, regulation, and winding up of cooperative societies; It made the right to form cooperative societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(c). The amendment ensured free and fair elections to cooperative bodies, fixed terms for their boards, and audit of their accounts, bringing much-needed transparency and accountability to the cooperative sector.
Option (a) 73rd Amendment — Incorrect: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) added Part IX to the Constitution dealing with Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural local self-government); it had nothing to do with cooperative societies.
Option (b) 86th Amendment — Incorrect: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002) added Article 21A making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6-14 years; it did not deal with cooperative societies.
Option (c) 91st Amendment — Incorrect: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha/State Legislature; it was not related to cooperative societies.

Correct Answer: Urgent Question — Option (c)
In the Indian Parliament, the types of questions that ARE asked include: Starred Questions: Questions that members wish to ask orally, marked with an asterisk (*); they require oral answers and supplementary questions can be asked; Unstarred Questions: Written questions that get written answers; supplementary questions cannot be asked; Short Notice Questions: Questions relating to matters of urgent public importance asked with shorter notice than the prescribed minimum of 10 days; Private Member Questions: Questions addressed to private members (not ministers) regarding Bills introduced by them. 'Urgent Question' is NOT a recognized or formally defined type of question in the Indian Parliamentary procedure under the Rules of Procedure of either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. The concept of urgency is addressed through Short Notice Questions, not a separate category called 'Urgent Question'.
Option (a) Starred Question — Incorrect: Starred Questions ARE a recognized type of parliamentary question in India; they are oral questions marked with an asterisk and members can ask supplementary questions on them.
Option (b) Unstarred Question — Incorrect: Unstarred Questions ARE a recognized type of parliamentary question in India; they receive written answers and no supplementary oral questions are permitted.
Option (d) Short Notice Question — Incorrect: Short Notice Questions ARE a recognized parliamentary procedure in India; they are questions on matters of urgent public importance asked with less than 10 days' notice, which is the minimum normally required.

Correct Answer: Dhol — Option (b)
Gidda (also spelled Giddha ) is a vibrant and colourful folk dance of Punjab, traditionally performed by women during festivals and celebrations like Teej , Vaisakhi, and Teeyan . The Dhol (a large, double-headed barrel drum played with sticks) is the primary musical instrument used during Gidda performances. The rhythm of the Dhol sets the beat for the energetic dance moves. Gidda performances also feature Boliyaan — short, witty, and often humorous folk couplets that are sung and clapped to during the dance. The dance involves synchronized hand movements, clapping, spinning, and lively footwork. Gidda is the female counterpart of Bhangra, the popular folk dance of Punjabi men.
Option (a) Tabla — Incorrect: The Tabla is a pair of hand drums primarily used in Hindustani classical music, light classical music, and some folk traditions; it is not the primary instrument for Gidda, which uses the Dhol .
Option (c) Harmonium — Incorrect: The Harmonium is a keyboard instrument that provides melodic accompaniment in devotional music, ghazals, and some folk styles; it is not the primary accompanying instrument for the Gidda dance.
Option (d) Sarangi — Incorrect: The Sarangi is a bowed string instrument used mainly in Hindustani classical music and some folk traditions of Rajasthan; it is not the instrument associated with Gidda — the Dhol is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: 3 — Option (b)
In Kho-Kho, at the beginning of a defence innings (turn), 3 defenders (chasers' opponents) enter the field at a time. Kho-Kho rules for defenders: Each defending team has 9 players (though teams can have up to 12 with 3 as substitutes); At the start of the defending innings, 3 defenders enter the playing field simultaneously; The attacking team (chasers) must try to tag/touch all 3 defenders; When all 3 defenders are out (tagged), the next batch of 3 defenders enters; This continues until all 9 defenders are tagged; The time taken to tag all defenders determines the score. The defending team can score points by surviving longer, while the attacking team scores points by tagging defenders faster. Kho-Kho is one of India's traditional sports and has gained international recognition through the Ultimate Kho Kho league.
Option (a) 2 — Incorrect: The rule in Kho-Kho is that 3 defenders (not 2) enter at the start of a defence innings; 2 defenders per batch is not the correct number.
Option (c) 4 — Incorrect: 4 defenders do not enter at the start of a Kho-Kho defence innings; the correct number is 3 defenders per batch.
Option (d) 5 — Incorrect: 5 defenders do not enter at the start of a Kho-Kho defence innings; the correct number is 3 defenders, who enter together and must be tagged before the next 3 enter.

Correct Answer: 3 days — Option (a)
The Gaganyaan mission is India's first human spaceflight programme planned as a 3-day mission. Key details of Gaganyaan : Developed by ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ); The crew of Indian astronauts (called Gaganauts or Vyomanauts) will be launched into a 400 km low Earth orbit (LEO) for approximately 3 days; The crew module will then re-enter the atmosphere and splash down in the Bay of Bengal near the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; The mission will be launched on the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3), formerly known as GSLV MK III; Four Indian Air Force (IAF) pilots have been selected as astronaut candidates: Group Captain Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, Group Captain Ajit Krishnan, Group Captain Angad Pratap, and Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla; The Gaganyaan mission, if successful, will make India the fourth country after Russia, USA, and China to independently send humans to space.
Option (b) 5 days — Incorrect: The Gaganyaan mission is planned for 3 days (not 5 days) in low Earth orbit; 5 days is not the planned duration for this mission.
Option (c) 7 days — Incorrect: The Gaganyaan mission has a planned duration of 3 days (approximately 72 hours) in low Earth orbit, not 7 days.
Option (d) 9 days — Incorrect: The Gaganyaan mission is a 3-day mission, not a 9-day mission; 9 days would be more typical of longer crewed missions to space stations, not the initial Gaganyaan demonstration mission.

Correct Answer: 5 years — Option (c)
The Secretary-General of the United Nations is appointed for a term of 5 years, which can be renewed once (for a maximum of two terms, i.e., 10 years total). The appointment process: The Secretary-General is appointed by the UN General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council; Since the Security Council must recommend the appointment, all five permanent members (P5: USA, UK, France, Russia, China) have an informal veto over the selection; By convention, the Secretary-General cannot be from a country that is a permanent member of the Security Council. Current Secretary-General: António Guterres (Portugal) was first appointed in January 2017 and reappointed for a second 5-year term starting January 2022 (until December 2026). Previous Secretaries-General: Ban Ki-moon (2007-2016), Kofi Annan (1997-2006), Boutros Boutros-Ghali (1992-1996), etc.
Option (a) 2 years — Incorrect: The UN Secretary-General's term is 5 years, not 2 years; a 2-year term would be too short for effective leadership of the world's foremost international organization.
Option (b) 3 years — Incorrect: The UN Secretary-General serves a 5-year term, not a 3-year term; the 5-year term allows sufficient time to implement agenda items and build institutional relationships.
Option (d) 6 years — Incorrect: The UN Secretary-General's term is 5 years (not 6 years), renewable for one additional 5-year term. The UN Charter and practice establish a 5-year renewable term.

Correct Answer: Shehnai — Option (b)
The 'Kali' is a traditional wind ( sushir ) instrument used in Assam and is considered a more developed version of the Shehnai. The Shehnai is a classical Indian wind instrument — a double-reed woodwind that produces a distinctive, vibrant sound. It is widely used in auspicious occasions, temple music, and classical performances. The 'Kali' in Assamese music tradition evolved from the Shehnai with adaptations suited to the local cultural context. Assam has a rich tradition of folk and classical musical instruments: The Pepa (a horn-based wind instrument) is another famous Assamese wind instrument; The Gogona (a jaw harp), Khol (a drum), and Taal (cymbals) are other traditional instruments; The Borgeet (devotional songs of Shankardev ) tradition uses various wind and percussion instruments. The relationship between 'Kali' and Shehnai reflects the evolution of wind instruments across Indian musical traditions.
Option (a) Jhanjh (Cymbals) — Incorrect: Jhanjh are percussion instruments (metal cymbals struck together); they are not wind instruments and are not related to the 'Kali'. The 'Kali' is a wind instrument descended from the Shehnai.
Option (c) Dhoom (Drum) — Incorrect: A drum is a percussion instrument, not a wind instrument; the 'Kali' (Kali) is a wind instrument and its origin/development is traced to the Shehnai, not drums.
Option (d) Guitar — Incorrect: The guitar is a string (chordophone) instrument of Western origin; it has no connection to the traditional Assamese wind instrument 'Kali', which is considered a more developed version of the Shehnai.

Correct Answer: Northern Plains — Option (b)
The Northern Plains (also called the Indo-Gangetic Plains or Great Plains) are famous for their extremely fertile alluvial soil and very high population density. Key features of the Northern Plains: Formed by the alluvial deposits of three major river systems — the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra — along with their tributaries; The alluvial soil (both khadar/new alluvium and bhangar /old alluvium) is among the most fertile in the world, supporting intensive agriculture; The Northern Plains are one of the most densely populated regions in the world — states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal within the plains have population densities exceeding 800-1,000 persons per sq.km; The plains extend approximately 2,400 km from west to east and 240-320 km from north to south; They are the agricultural heartland of India, producing rice, wheat, sugarcane, and other crops.
Option (a) Peninsular Plateau — Incorrect: The Peninsular Plateau (Deccan Plateau) is known for its black cotton soil (regur) and red laterite soils; while it supports agriculture, its population density is generally lower than the Northern Plains.
Option (c) Coastal Plains — Incorrect: India's coastal plains have fertile soils and support rice cultivation, but they are not as famous for alluvial soil and high population density as the Northern Plains.
Option (d) Himalayas — Incorrect: The Himalayas are mountain ranges with thin, rocky soils and harsh terrain; they are not known for rich alluvial soil or high population density — these characteristics define the Northern Plains.

Correct Answer: J.J. Thomson — Option (b)
J.J. Thomson (Joseph John Thomson), a British physicist, discovered the electron in 1897 through his experiments with cathode rays. Thomson's key experiments: He passed electric current through a glass tube containing gas at very low pressure (cathode ray tube); The cathode emitted mysterious rays (cathode rays) that could be deflected by electric and magnetic fields; By measuring the deflection, he determined the charge-to-mass ratio (e/m) of the particles, which was the same regardless of the gas used or the cathode material; He concluded that cathode rays were composed of tiny, negatively charged particles — later called electrons. Thomson proposed the 'Plum Pudding model' of the atom. He received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1906 for his discovery of the electron.
Option (a) Ernest Rutherford — Incorrect: Ernest Rutherford discovered the atomic nucleus (1911) and the proton (1919) through his gold foil experiment; he also first identified alpha and beta radiation; he did not discover the electron.
Option (c) Niels Bohr — Incorrect: Niels Bohr proposed the Bohr model of the atom (1913), explaining the hydrogen atom's spectral lines; he built upon the knowledge of electrons but did not discover them.
Option (d) James Chadwick — Incorrect: James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932 for which he received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935; the electron was discovered much earlier by J.J. Thomson in 1897.

Correct Answer: Only II — Option (b)
The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty ruler Harichandra is known for establishing his kingdom in Rajasthan. He is credited with founding the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty and establishing his capital at Mandavyapura (modern Mandor, near Jodhpur in Rajasthan). Key facts about the Gurjara-Pratiharas: The dynasty was founded by Harichandra in the 6th-7th century CE in the Marwar region of Rajasthan; The Gurjara-Pratiharas later expanded their empire significantly under rulers like Nagabhata I, Vatsaraja , Nagabhata II, and Mihira Bhoja to cover much of northern India including Kanauj (their later capital); The Gurjara-Pratiharas were one of the three great powers of medieval India (the other two being the Rashtrakutas and the Palas); They played a key role in resisting Arab invasions from the west into India. Tamil Nadu was never part of the Gurjara-Pratihara kingdom.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Statement I (Tamil Nadu) is incorrect — the Gurjara-Pratihara ruler Harichandra established his kingdom in Rajasthan, not in Tamil Nadu which was under the Pallavas and later the Cholas during this period.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Only Statement II (Rajasthan) is correct; Statement I (Tamil Nadu) is incorrect because the Gurjara-Pratiharas were a North Indian dynasty based in Rajasthan, with no connection to Tamil Nadu.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Statement II is correct — Harichandra established his Gurjara-Pratihara kingdom in Rajasthan ( Mandavyapura /Mandor region); saying 'neither' would be incorrect.

Correct Answer: Alok Joshi — Option (b)
Alok Joshi, a distinguished former intelligence official who served as the chief of the Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) — India's external intelligence agency — was appointed as the head (Chairman) of the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) in April 2025. The NSAB is a body under the National Security Council (NSC) of India that provides long-term analysis and advice to the government on strategic and security issues. Key facts about NSAB: It was reconstituted in April 2025 under Alok Joshi's chairmanship; The board consists of strategic and security experts from diverse backgrounds including retired military officers, diplomats, intelligence officials, scientists, and academics; It advises the government on national security challenges, strategic affairs, and foreign policy.
Option (a) Ajit Doval — Incorrect: Ajit Doval served as India's National Security Adviser (NSA) from 2014 to 2024; he was not appointed as the head of the NSAB in April 2025 — that position went to Alok Joshi.
Option (c) Shivshankar Menon — Incorrect: Shivshankar Menon served as India's National Security Adviser from 2010 to 2014 and has been a member of the NSAB; he was not appointed as the head of NSAB in April 2025.
Option (d) Brajesh Mishra — Incorrect: Brajesh Mishra was India's first National Security Adviser (under PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee) and served from 1998-2004; he passed away in 2012 and thus could not have been appointed in April 2025.

Correct Answer: Sikkim — Option (a)
Prem Singh Tamang (popularly known as P.S. Golay), the leader of the Sikkim Krantikari Morcha (SKM) party, took oath as the Chief Minister of Sikkim for his second consecutive term in June 2024. Key facts: The Sikkim Legislative Assembly elections were held in April 2024 simultaneously with the Lok Sabha elections; The SKM (Sikkim Krantikari Morcha) won a landslide victory, securing 31 out of 32 seats in the Sikkim assembly (the largest majority in Sikkim's electoral history); P.S. Golay had first become Chief Minister in 2019 when SKM ended the 25-year rule of the Sikkim Democratic Front (SDF) under Pawan Kumar Chamling; His second oath-taking ceremony as CM was held in June 2024 in Gangtok, Sikkim's capital.
Option (b) Mizoram — Incorrect: The Chief Minister of Mizoram (after the 2023 elections) is Lalduhoma of the Zoram People's Movement (ZPM); P.S. Tamang/Golay is the CM of Sikkim, not Mizoram.
Option (c) Arunachal Pradesh — Incorrect: Pema Khandu of the BJP is the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh; P.S. Golay/Tamang is the CM of Sikkim.
Option (d) Meghalaya — Incorrect: Conrad Sangma of the National People's Party (NPP) is the Chief Minister of Meghalaya; P.S. Golay/Tamang is specifically the Chief Minister of Sikkim who took oath for his second term in 2024.

Correct Answer: 13,000 — Option (a)
The 'One Nation One Subscription' (ONOS) initiative launched by the Government of India provides access to more than 13,000 scholarly journals from 30 major international publishers to students, researchers, and faculty across India. Key features of ONOS: Launched by the Department of Higher Education (Ministry of Education) in January 2025; Covers over 6,300 central and state government higher educational institutions, universities, national laboratories, and research institutions; Provides access to journals from publishers including Elsevier, Springer Nature, Wiley, Taylor & Francis, and others; Aims to democratize access to scientific and academic literature, eliminating the disparity between well-funded and resource-constrained institutions; Estimated to benefit over 1.8 crore students and researchers across India; The subscription is funded by the government, removing the need for individual institutions to pay separately.
Option (b) 24,000 — Incorrect: The ONOS initiative provides access to more than 13,000 scholarly journals (not 24,000) from 30 major international publishers.
Option (c) 21,000 — Incorrect: 21,000 is not the correct figure for the number of journals accessible under the One Nation One Subscription initiative; the correct number is more than 13,000 journals.
Option (d) 30,000 — Incorrect: The One Nation One Subscription covers more than 13,000 journals, not 30,000; this figure significantly overstates the actual number of journals included in the initiative.

Correct Answer: 683 — Option (b)
According to the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), India added 683 new species to its fauna list in the year 2024. The ZSI publishes annual reports on the addition of new species discovered in India. These new species include insects, fish, reptiles, amphibians, birds, mammals, and other animal groups discovered through systematic surveys and taxonomic research across India's diverse ecosystems — including the Himalayas, Western Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the Northeast biodiversity hotspots. India is one of the world's 17 megadiverse countries and is home to a vast variety of fauna, with new species being regularly discovered by ZSI scientists and researchers collaborating with international institutions.
Option (a) 786 — Incorrect: India added 683 new species to its fauna in 2024, not 786; while India regularly discovers hundreds of new species annually, the specific figure for 2024 as reported by ZSI is 683.
Option (c) 888 — Incorrect: The correct number of new species added to India's fauna in 2024 is 683, not 888; 888 overstates the actual count for that year.
Option (d) 1200 — Incorrect: India added 683 new species (not 1,200) to its fauna in 2024; 1,200 significantly overstates the actual figure reported for new species discovered in India in 2024.

Correct Answer: HAL — Option (a)
The CATS Warrior (Combat Air Teaming System Warrior) is an advanced autonomous unmanned wingman aircraft concept developed by HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited), India's premier aerospace and defence manufacturer. Key features of CATS Warrior: It is designed as a loyal wingman — an unmanned combat aerial vehicle (UCAV) that works alongside piloted fighter aircraft like the Tejas; CATS stands for Combat Air Teaming System, and the Warrior is the unmanned combat component; It is designed to be air-launched from the Tejas fighter aircraft, expanding the mission envelope of the manned fighter; It can perform roles like electronic warfare, suppression of enemy air defences (SEAD), and reconnaissance; It uses artificial intelligence and autonomous systems for target engagement; The CATS system was demonstrated at the Aero India shows, showcasing India's growing capability in autonomous aerial systems.
Option (b) DRDO — Incorrect: While DRDO ( Defence Research and Development Organisation ) develops many defence technologies and works closely with HAL, the CATS Warrior concept is specifically developed by HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited).
Option (c) ISRO — Incorrect: ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ) focuses on space exploration, satellite technology, and launch vehicles; it does not develop combat unmanned aerial vehicles like the CATS Warrior.
Option (d) BARC — Incorrect: BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre) is India's premier nuclear research centre focusing on nuclear energy and related technologies; it is not involved in the development of combat unmanned aerial vehicle concepts like CATS Warrior.

Correct Answer: New Delhi — Option (a)
New Delhi, the capital of India, hosted the World Para Athletics Championships in 2025. This was a historic occasion as it marked one of the largest para-sports events ever held in India. Key facts about the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships: It was held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in New Delhi; The event brought together hundreds of para-athletes from across the world competing in track and field events; Para Athletics includes events for athletes with physical impairments such as limb deficiencies, cerebral palsy, visual impairment, and those using wheelchairs; India performed well as the host nation, with Indian para-athletes winning multiple medals; Hosting this global para-sports event demonstrated India's growing commitment to inclusive sports and its capability to organize major international sporting events.
Option (b) Chennai — Incorrect: Chennai did not host the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships; the event was held in New Delhi.
Option (c) Mumbai — Incorrect: Mumbai did not host the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships; New Delhi was the host city for this prestigious global para-sports event.
Option (d) Hyderabad — Incorrect: Hyderabad is a major city that has hosted various sporting events, but the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships were held in New Delhi, not Hyderabad.

Correct Answer: Ukraine — Option (a)
According to the SIPRI (Stockholm International Peace Research Institute) Arms Transfers Report published in March 2025, Ukraine was the world's largest arms importer during the period 2020-24. This is primarily due to the large-scale military assistance and arms transfers Ukraine received following Russia's full-scale invasion in February 2022. Key findings from the SIPRI March 2025 report: Ukraine accounted for a massive share of global arms imports during 2020-24, receiving weapons, ammunition, and military equipment from NATO countries and their allies; Major arms suppliers to Ukraine included the USA, Germany, UK, Poland, and other European nations; Ukraine received tanks, artillery systems, air defense systems (including Patriot missile systems), drones, ammunition, and various other weapons; This massive influx of arms transformed Ukraine into the world's top arms importer for the 2020-24 period. SIPRI tracks international arms transfers and publishes annual trend reports on the global arms trade.
Option (b) Brazil — Incorrect: Brazil is one of the larger arms importers in South America, but it did not rank as the world's largest arms importer in 2020-24 according to the SIPRI March 2025 report; Ukraine held that position due to the ongoing conflict.
Option (c) Japan — Incorrect: Japan has been increasing its defence spending and arms imports in recent years, but it was not the world's largest arms importer in 2020-24 per the SIPRI March 2025 report; Ukraine was the largest due to the Russia-Ukraine war.
Option (d) North Korea — Incorrect: North Korea primarily develops its own weapons and is subject to UN arms embargoes; it was not identified as the world's largest arms importer in 2020-24 in the SIPRI March 2025 report.

Correct Answer: 3 — Option (a)
The Swachh Survekshan (Cleanliness Survey) in India is designed based on 3 main pillars: Pillar 1 — Service Level Progress: Assesses the progress of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in achieving key sanitation and cleanliness service delivery indicators (such as open defecation free status, waste collection, processing, and disposal systems); Pillar 2 — Direct Observation: Involves physical on-the-ground assessment of cleanliness levels in cities by trained field assessors who evaluate sanitation infrastructure and cleanliness conditions; Pillar 3 — Citizen Voice (Citizen Feedback): Gathers feedback from citizens through mobile apps, web portals, and direct interaction regarding their satisfaction with urban sanitation and cleanliness services. Swachh Survekshan is conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban). It was first conducted in 2016 and has since become the world's largest urban sanitation survey, covering thousands of cities across India annually.
Option (b) 5 — Incorrect: The Swachh Survekshan is based on 3 main pillars (Service Level Progress, Direct Observation, and Citizen Voice), not 5 pillars.
Option (c) 6 — Incorrect: 6 is not the correct number of pillars forming the design of the Swachh Survekshan survey; the survey is structured around 3 main pillars.
Option (d) 7 — Incorrect: The Swachh Survekshan survey design is based on 3 main pillars, not 7; while the survey has multiple sub-indicators and parameters, the overarching design rests on 3 fundamental pillars.