Home › GK Questions Asked › Polity › Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

116 Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 116 questionsSSC 26 · Railway 90
12
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 2 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q1. In the context of India's commitment to multilingualism in education, which of the following statements best reflects the constitutional mandate, educational policy approach, and implementation challenges of promoting mother tongue-based instruction at the foundational level?

  1. (a) The Constitution of India mandates compulsory education only in Hindi for all primary-level students, and the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 supports this by promoting Hindi as the sole medium of instruction
  2. (b) Article 350A of the Constitution imposes an obligation on every State to provide facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage, but this is limited only to Scheduled Tribe children.
  3. (c) The National Education Policy 2020 encourages mother tongue or regional language as the medium of instruction at least until Grade 5, preferably till Grade 8, for all children, aligning with Article 350A, though actual implementation faces linguistic diversity and resource constraints.
  4. (d) Article 29 of the Constitution provides for the right to conserve one's distinct language but does not recognize the use of any language other than English in educational institutions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The National Education Policy 2020 encourages mother tongue or regional language as the medium of instruction at least until Grade 5, preferably till Grade 8, for all children, aligning with Article 350A, though actual implementation faces linguistic diversity and resource constraints.

Answer: Option 3 — The National Education Policy 2020 encourages mother tongue or regional language as the medium of instruction at least until Grade 5, preferably till Grade 8, for all children …
NEP 2020 says the medium of instruction should be the home language, mother tongue or local language "wherever possible" until Grade 5, and preferably till Grade 8 and beyond.
This rests on Article 350A, which asks every State to provide primary-stage instruction in the mother tongue to children of linguistic minorities — not only Scheduled Tribes, and never Hindi alone.
Revision note — Language provisions and NEP 2020
• Article 350A (inserted by the 7th Amendment, 1956): every State to provide instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage for children of linguistic minority groups.
• Article 350B: a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, appointed by the President, reporting to the President.
• Article 29(1): any section of citizens may conserve its distinct language, script or culture; Article 30: minorities may establish and administer educational institutions.
• Article 343: Hindi in Devanagari is the official language of the Union; Article 351 directs the Union to promote Hindi; the Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages.
• Article 21A and the RTE Act, 2009: free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 (86th Amendment, 2002).
• NEP 2020: approved on 29 July 2020 on the Kasturirangan Committee report; replaced the 1986 policy; brought the 5+3+3+4 structure and a flexible three-language formula.
Do not mix these up
• Article 350A vs Article 29 — 350A is a direction to the State about the medium of instruction; Article 29 is a Fundamental Right to conserve a language.
• Official language vs medium of instruction — Hindi is the Union's official language (Article 343); no article makes it the medium of school teaching.
Also asked from this topic: the structural reform of NEP 2020 (5+3+3+4); the officer under Article 350B (Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities); the article protecting minority interests (Article 29).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 2 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q2. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the policy rationale and implementation challenges associated with the identification and development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India?

  1. (a) PVTGs are identified through periodic national censuses and their status is automatically revised every 10 years by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
  2. (b) The PVTG classification applies only to tribes with no access to forest lands, and all PVTGs have now been settled through formal land titles under the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
  3. (c) PVTGs are identified based on characteristics such as pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, low literacy, and economic backwardness; however, there is no mechanism under the Constitution for periodic review or addition of new PVTGs.
  4. (d) All tribes classified as PVTGs have been granted Scheduled Tribe status in their respective states, and are uniformly eligible for the same central development schemes without variation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) PVTGs are identified based on characteristics such as pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, low literacy, and economic backwardness; however, there is no mechanism under the Constitution for periodic review or addition of new PVTGs.

Answer: Option 3 — PVTGs are identified on pre-agricultural technology, stagnant or declining population, low literacy and economic backwardness; the Constitution has no mechanism for periodic review.
PVTGs are an administrative sub-category of Scheduled Tribes created by the Government of India, not a constitutional category.
They are identified on the four Dhebar Commission criteria; the Constitution itself provides no procedure for reviewing or adding to the list.
Revision note — Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
• The Dhebar Commission (1960–61) first pointed to the most backward tribes; the Centre created the category Primitive Tribal Groups in 1975 and renamed it PVTGs in 2006.
• The four criteria: pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy and a subsistence level of economy.
• 75 PVTGs are notified in 18 states and the UT of Andaman and Nicobar Islands; Odisha has the most (13), followed by Andhra Pradesh.
• Examples: Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese and Great Andamanese (A&N), Baiga (MP), Bonda and Dongria Kondh (Odisha), Chenchu (AP/Telangana), Toda (Tamil Nadu), Cholanaikayan (Kerala).
• PM-JANMAN (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan) was launched on 15 November 2023 (Janjatiya Gaurav Divas) from Khunti, Jharkhand.
• Its outlay is about ₹24,104 crore for 11 critical interventions delivered through 9 ministries — housing, water, health, education, roads and connectivity.
• Scheduled Tribes are notified by the President under Article 342; the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (created in 1999) is the nodal ministry, and the Fifth Schedule governs Scheduled Areas.
Do not mix these up
• Scheduled Tribes vs PVTGs — every PVTG is a Scheduled Tribe, but a PVTG is a more vulnerable sub-group picked out for targeted schemes; the two lists are not the same.
• Article 342 vs Article 341 — 342 notifies Scheduled Tribes, 341 notifies Scheduled Castes.
Also asked from this topic: the scheme focused on the development of PVTGs (PM-JANMAN, launched 15 November 2023); the state with the largest number of PVTGs (Odisha, 13).
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 14 August 2026 Shift 3 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q3. According to the Supreme Court judgment delivered on March 24, 2026, in the case of Chinthada Anand v. State of Andhra Pradesh, members professing which religions had been recognised as part of the Scheduled Caste community in India?

  1. (a) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism
  2. (b) Hinduism, Christianity and Buddhism
  3. (c) Sikhism, Islam and Buddhism
  4. (d) Hinduism, Sikhism and Christianity
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism

Answer: Option 1 – Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism.
• The SC judgment (24 March 2026) reaffirmed SC status for followers ofHinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 12 August 2026 Shift 2 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q4. According to the Supreme Court ruling in 2026, Scheduled Caste status had been restricted to followers of which religions under the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950?

  1. (a) Hinduism, Jainism and Christianity
  2. (b) Sikhism, Islam and Buddhism
  3. (c) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism
  4. (d) Hinduism, Christianity and Buddhism
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism

Answer: Option 3 – Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism.
• Under the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950, SC status is limited toHindus, Sikhs and Buddhists.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 June 2026 Shift 1 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q5. Which Amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule?

  1. (a) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
  2. (b) 71ˢᵗ Amendment
  3. (c) 63ʳᵈ Amendment
  4. (d) 52ⁿᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 71ˢᵗ Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - Eighth Schedule
Eighth Schedulelists official languages of India.
71st Amendment Act, 1992added three languages:
• Konkani
• Manipuri
• Nepali
Originally 15 languages, now 22 languages total.
Answer: Option 2 → 71ˢᵗ Amendment
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 2 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q6. Which Constitutional Article established the office of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

  1. (a) Article 348-A
  2. (b) Article 350-B
  3. (c) Article 315-B
  4. (d) Article 338-A
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 350-B

Constitutional Provision for Linguistic Minorities
Article 350-Bestablishes the office ofSpecial Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Key Facts:
• Appointed by the President of India
• Investigates matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities
• Reports directly to the President
Part XVII of Constitution deals with Official Language (Articles 343-351).
Article 350-B specifically provides for this Special Officer.
Answer: Option 2 → Article 350-B
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 2 · Oaths, emoluments and other provisions

Q7. What is the President's primary constitutional duty as per the oath under Article 60?

  1. (a) Manage finances for the governance of India
  2. (b) Preserve, protect and defend the Constitution
  3. (c) Formulate policies for the governance of India
  4. (d) Control Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Preserve, protect and defend the Constitution

Article 60: President's Oath of Office
The President takes oath before entering office.
Key oath phrase:'preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law'
This is the primary constitutional duty mentioned in the oath.
Other options are functions but not part of the oath.
Answer: Option 2 → Preserve, protect and defend the Constitution
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 3 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q8. Article 350B of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of which of the following?

  1. (a) Special Officer for Other Backward Classes
  2. (b) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
  3. (c) Special Officer for Women and Children
  4. (d) Special Officer for Scheduled Castes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Article 350B - Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Constitutional Provision:
Article 350B mandates appointment of a Special Officer
for linguistic minorities by the President of India.
Key Functions:
• Investigate safeguards for linguistic minorities
• Report to President on implementation of safeguards
• Present reports before Parliament
Note: Article 338 → SC/ST Commissioner
Article 340 → Backward Classes Commission
Answer: Option 2 → Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q9. Under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which States are excluded from the definition of State?

  1. (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
  2. (b) Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim
  3. (c) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya
  4. (d) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram

Fifth Schedule: Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states except:
• Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
These four states are excluded because they are covered under theSixth Schedule, which provides special provisions for tribal areas in the Northeast.
The Sixth Schedule deals with autonomous district councils in tribal areas of these states.
Answer: Option 1 → Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 2 · Union Territories administration

Q10. The President of India can make regulations for peace, progress, and good governance of which Union Territories without Legislative Assemblies?

  1. (a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
  2. (b) Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh
  3. (c) Chandigarh and Puducherry
  4. (d) Puducherry and Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu

Topic: Presidential Powers for Union Territories
Article 240empowers the President to make regulations for UTswithout Legislative Assemblies.
UTs WITHOUT Assemblies:
1. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
2. Lakshadweep
3. Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
UTs WITH Assemblies:Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh (after reorganization), Chandigarh (Administrator's rule).
President can make regulations only for UTs listed in Option 1.
Answer: Option 1 → Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 3 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q11. Which of the following are the official languages of India?

  1. (a) Hindi and English
  2. (b) Hindi and Marathi
  3. (c) English and Urdu
  4. (d) Hindi and Urdu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hindi and English

Official Languages of India
As perArticle 343of the Indian Constitution:
Hindiin Devanagari script is the official language of the Union.
Englishcontinues as an associate official language for official purposes.
Note: India has22 Scheduled Languagesunder the 8th Schedule, but only Hindi and English are official languages at the Union level.
Answer: Option 1 → Hindi and English
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 2 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q12. Article 243ZI of the Indian Constitution empowers the State Legislature to make laws regarding co-operative societies. Which principle is NOT included in its scope?

  1. (a) Autonomous functioning
  2. (b) Compulsory State supervision
  3. (c) Voluntary formation
  4. (d) Democratic member control
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Compulsory State supervision

Article 243ZI: Co-operative Societies
Part IXB (Art 243ZH-243ZT) deals with co-operative societies.
Article 243ZI empowers State Legislature to make laws on:
• Incorporation, regulation, and winding up of co-operatives
• Based on principles of voluntary formation, democratic control, and autonomous functioning
Key Principles (Art 243ZH):
1. Voluntary formation and membership
2. Democratic member control (one member, one vote)
3. Autonomous functioning
4. Economic participation by members
Answer: Option 2 → Compulsory State supervision
SSC GD 2026 – 27 May 2026 Shift 1 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q13. Which language(s) were added to the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003?

  1. (a) Maithili
  2. (b) Bodo
  3. (c) Santhali
  4. (d) All of the above
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above — Option (d)
The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 added FOUR languages to the Eighth Schedule: Maithili, Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali . About the 92nd Constitutional Amendment, 2003: Passed in: December 2003; Came into force: January 7, 2004; Provisions: Added four new languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution; The four languages added: Bodo: Spoken primarily in Assam and Northeast India; has its own script (Devanagari variant); Dogri: Spoken primarily in Jammu and Himachal Pradesh; Maithili: Spoken primarily in Bihar and Nepal; it is a major language of the Maithil Brahmins; Santhali : Spoken by the Santhal tribal community in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar; written in Ol Chiki script; Effect: The Eighth Schedule went from 18 languages to 22 languages after this amendment; Previous additions to the 8th Schedule: Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (1967) — bringing total to 15; Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment (1992) — bringing total to 18; The 92nd Amendment (2003) added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali — bringing total to 22; Since all three options (Maithili, Bodo, Santhali ) in the question were added by the 92nd Amendment (along with Dogri), 'All of the above' is the correct answer.
Option (a) Maithili only — Incorrect: While Maithili was indeed added by the 92nd Amendment 2003, Bodo and Santhali were ALSO added by the same amendment; selecting only Maithili misses the other two languages mentioned in the options.
Option (b) Bodo only — Incorrect: While Bodo was indeed added by the 92nd Amendment 2003, Maithili and Santhali were ALSO added by the same amendment; selecting only Bodo misses the other two languages.
Option (c) Santhali only — Incorrect: While Santhali was indeed added by the 92nd Amendment 2003, Maithili and Bodo were ALSO added by the same amendment; all three languages (plus Dogri) were added together by the 92nd Amendment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer.
SSC GD 2026 – 26 May 2026 Shift 2 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q14. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language?

  1. (a) Part XV
  2. (b) Part XVI
  3. (c) Part XVII
  4. (d) Part XVIII
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Part XVII

Correct Answer: Part XVII — Option (c)
Part XVII (Articles 343–351) of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language. About Part XVII — Official Language: Article 343: Official language of the Union — Hindi in Devanagari script; Article 344: Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language; Article 345: Official language or languages of a State; Article 346: Official language for communication between one State and another or between a State and the Union; Article 347: Special provision relating to language spoken by a section of population of a State; Article 348: Language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills, etc.; Article 349: Special procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to language; Article 350: Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances; Article 350A: Facilities for instruction in mother tongue at primary stage; Article 350B: Special Officer for linguistic minorities; Article 351: Directive for development of the Hindi language; Key facts about Official Language: Hindi in Devanagari script was declared the Official Language of the Union under Article 343; English was to be used for 15 years (until 1965) — but the Official Languages Act, 1963 allowed continued use of English; 8th Schedule lists 22 recognized languages; About other Parts: Part XV (Articles 324-329): Elections (Election Commission, Delimitation, etc.); Part XVI (Articles 330-342): Special provisions for SC, ST, Anglo-Indians; Part XVIII (Articles 352-360): Emergency Provisions (National Emergency, President's Rule, Financial Emergency).
Option (a) Part XV — Incorrect: Part XV (Articles 324–329) deals with Elections in India — it covers the Election Commission of India, delimitation of constituencies, and other electoral matters; it has nothing to do with Official Language.
Option (b) Part XVI — Incorrect: Part XVI (Articles 330–342) deals with Special Provisions relating to certain classes — it covers reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Parliament, and provisions for Anglo-Indians; not Official Language.
Option (d) Part XVIII — Incorrect: Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) deals with Emergency Provisions — National Emergency (Article 352), President's Rule/State Emergency (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360); it has no connection to Official Language which is covered under Part XVII.
SSC GD 2026 – 26 May 2026 Shift 3 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q15. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is related to the Official Language of the Union?

  1. (a) Article 341
  2. (b) Article 343
  3. (c) Article 344
  4. (d) Article 339
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 343

Correct Answer: Article 343 — Option (b)
Article 343 of the Indian Constitution declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the Official Language of the Union. About Article 343: Article 343(1): 'The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.' 'The form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals.'; Article 343(2): Notwithstanding anything in clause (1), for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., up to 1965), the English language shall continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for which it was being used before the Constitution; Article 343(3): Notwithstanding anything in this article, Parliament may by law provide for the use of the English language or the Devanagari form of numerals, for such purposes as may be specified in the law; Important development: The Official Languages Act, 1963 was passed to continue the use of English even after 1965; This effectively meant both Hindi and English continue as official languages of the Union; About related Articles in Part XVII (Official Language): Article 343: Official language of the Union (Hindi); Article 344: Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language; Article 345: Official language or languages of a State; Article 346: Official language for communication between states and between state and Union; Article 347: Special provision relating to language spoken by a section of population of a State; Article 348: Language to be used in SC and HCs and for Acts, Bills; Article 350: Language to be used for grievances; Article 351: Directive for development of Hindi language.
Option (a) Article 341 — Incorrect: Article 341 deals with 'Scheduled Castes' — the President is authorized to specify which castes/races/tribes shall be Scheduled Castes for each state; it has nothing to do with Official Language.
Option (c) Article 344 — Incorrect: Article 344 establishes a Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language to review progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes — it is about the IMPLEMENTATION mechanism for official language, not the declaration of the official language itself (which is Article 343).
Option (d) Article 339 — Incorrect: Article 339 relates to control of the Union over the administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes — it has no connection to Official Language; the correct article for the Official Language of the Union is Article 343.
SSC GD 2026 – 20 May 2026 Shift 2 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q16. Which constitutional amendment gave constitutional status to cooperative societies?

  1. (a) 73rd Amendment
  2. (b) 86th Amendment
  3. (c) 91st Amendment
  4. (d) 97th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 97th Amendment

Correct Answer: 97th Amendment — Option (d)
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 gave constitutional status to cooperative societies in India. Key provisions of the 97th Amendment: It inserted Article 43B under Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), which directs the State to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies; It inserted Part IXB ('The Co-operative Societies') consisting of Articles 243ZH to 243ZT, which provides a constitutional framework for the incorporation, regulation, and winding up of cooperative societies; It made the right to form cooperative societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(c). The amendment ensured free and fair elections to cooperative bodies, fixed terms for their boards, and audit of their accounts, bringing much-needed transparency and accountability to the cooperative sector.
Option (a) 73rd Amendment — Incorrect: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) added Part IX to the Constitution dealing with Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural local self-government); it had nothing to do with cooperative societies.
Option (b) 86th Amendment — Incorrect: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002) added Article 21A making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6-14 years; it did not deal with cooperative societies.
Option (c) 91st Amendment — Incorrect: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha/State Legislature; it was not related to cooperative societies.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 2 · Union Territories administration

Q17. If a new union territory is created, who will appoint its administrator?

  1. (a) The Parliament of India
  2. (b) The Chief Minister of the nearest state
  3. (c) The Prime Minister of India
  4. (d) The President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The President of India

Topic: Union Territories - Administration
Constitutional Provision: Article 239
Every Union Territory is administered by thePresident of India.
The President appoints anAdministrator/Lieutenant Governorfor each UT.
The Administrator acts as the representative of the President.
Answer: Option 4 → The President of India
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q18. Which of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for administration of tribal areas in northeastern India?

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Third Schedule
  3. (c) Eighth Schedule
  4. (d) Sixth Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sixth Schedule

Topic:Constitutional Provisions for Tribal Areas
Sixth Schedule(Article 244) deals with administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
It provides for Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils with legislative, judicial, and executive powers.
Other Schedules: Third (Forms of Oaths), Eighth (Recognized Languages), Eleventh (Panchayati Raj).
Answer: Option 4 → Sixth Schedule
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 2 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q19. Which community lost its constitutional provision of nominated representation in legislatures through the 104ᵗʰ Amendment Act?

  1. (a) Jains
  2. (b) Anglo-Indians
  3. (c) Scheduled Tribes
  4. (d) Scheduled Castes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anglo-Indians

Topic: 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
The 104th Amendment Act abolished thespecial provisionfor nomination of Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
Key Facts:
• Articles 331 and 333 provided for nomination of 2 Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies respectively.
• This provision was initially for 10 years but was extended multiple times.
• The 104th Amendment (2020) removed this provision as the community had adequate representation.
Answer: Option 2 → Anglo-Indians
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 3 · Union Territories administration

Q20. Which of the following Union Territories of India was granted legislature through the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963?

  1. (a) Puducherry
  2. (b) Andaman & Nicobar
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Chandigarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puducherry

Government of Union Territories Act, 1963
This Act provided for the creation of legislatures and councils of ministers for certain Union Territories.
Puducherry(then Pondicherry) was granted a legislature through this Act in 1963.
Delhi got its legislature much later through the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991.
Andaman & Nicobar and Chandigarh do not have legislatures.
Answer: Option 1 → Puducherry
SSC GD 2026 – 7 May 2026 Shift 2 · Union Territories administration

Q21. Which of the following Union Territories has a Legislature (Vidhan Sabha)?

  1. (a) Chandigarh
  2. (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  3. (c) Puducherry
  4. (d) Lakshadweep
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Puducherry

Correct Answer: Puducherry — Option (c)
Puducherry (Pondicherry) is one of the Union Territories of India that has its own Legislature (Vidhan Sabha). Under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, Puducherry has a Legislative Assembly with 30 elected members. It also has an elected Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister. Other Union Territories with legislatures include Delhi (NCT) and Jammu & Kashmir (recently granted UT status with legislature). Most UTs are governed directly by the Central Government through an Administrator/Lieutenant Governor.
Option (a) Chandigarh — Incorrect: Chandigarh is a UT and serves as the capital of Punjab and Haryana; it does not have its own Legislature.
Option (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands — Incorrect: Andaman and Nicobar Islands is administered by a Lieutenant Governor and has no Legislature.
Option (d) Lakshadweep — Incorrect: Lakshadweep is a UT administered by an Administrator; it does not have a Legislative Assembly.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 1 · Union Territories administration

Q22. Which of the following Union Territories has a Legislative Assembly?

  1. (a) Ladakh
  2. (b) Lakshadweep
  3. (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  4. (d) National Capital Territory of Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) National Capital Territory of Delhi

Union Territories with Legislative Assembly
Only 3 UTs have their own Legislative Assembly:
1. Delhi (NCT) - 70 members
2. Puducherry - 30 members
3. Jammu & Kashmir - 90 members
Ladakh, Lakshadweep, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands are governed directly by the Central Government through Lieutenant Governors.
Answer: Option 4 → National Capital Territory of Delhi
SSC GD 2026 – 29 April 2026 Shift 1 · Union Territories administration

Q23. The administration of Union Territories in India is carried out by which of the following?

  1. (a) Parliament
  2. (b) Chief Minister
  3. (c) Governor
  4. (d) Administrator appointed by the President
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Administrator appointed by the President

Correct Answer: Administrator appointed by the President — Option (d)
The administration of Union Territories (UTs) in India is carried out by an Administrator appointed by the President of India. This is provided under Article 239 of the Indian Constitution: 'Every Union territory shall be administered by the President acting, to such extent as he thinks fit, through an administrator to be appointed by him with such designation as he may specify.' Key facts about UT administration: The Administrator can be designated as Lieutenant Governor (as in Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands), Administrator (as in Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Lakshadweep), or Chief Commissioner; Some UTs have legislatures (Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir) while others do not; In UTs with legislatures, the elected government functions alongside the Administrator, though the Administrator has special powers; The President appoints Administrators who act as his agents.
Option (a) Parliament — Incorrect: While Parliament can legislate for Union Territories (including on state list subjects under Article 246), the actual day-to-day administration of UTs is not directly by Parliament but through an Administrator appointed by the President.
Option (b) Chief Minister — Incorrect: Chief Ministers head the governments of States, not Union Territories; only some UTs (Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir) have elected governments with Chief Ministers, but even there, the LG/Administrator has overriding powers — the primary administrative head remains the President's appointee.
Option (c) Governor — Incorrect: Governors are constitutional heads of States, not Union Territories; UTs are administered by Administrators (called LG or Administrator) appointed by the President, who are distinct from Governors.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 27 March 2026 Shift 2 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q24. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mandates regular elections to the board of Co-operative Societies?

  1. (a) Article 243ZL
  2. (b) Article 243ZI
  3. (c) Article 243ZG
  4. (d) Article 243ZK
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 243ZK

Topic:Co-operative Societies - Constitutional Provisions
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 added Part IXB
to the Constitution dealing with Co-operative Societies.
Article 243ZKspecifically deals with elections to
the board of Co-operative Societies.
It mandates that elections to the board shall be conducted
before the expiry of the term and within six months of
supersession in case of dissolution.
Answer: Option 4 → Article 243ZK
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 1 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q25. What is the total number of languages listed under the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India, as on 30 June 2024?

  1. (a) 26
  2. (b) 22
  3. (c) 16
  4. (d) 20
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 22

8th Schedule of Indian Constitution
Originally contained14 languagesin 1950.
Sindhi added by21st Amendment (1967).
Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali added by71st Amendment (1992).
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali added by92nd Amendment (2003).
Total languages = 14 + 1 + 3 + 4 =22
As on 30 June 2024,22 languagesare listed.
Answer: Option 2 → 22
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 1 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q26. The 97th Constitutional Amendment provided constitutional status to which of the following?

  1. (a) District Planning Committees
  2. (b) Metropolitan Councils
  3. (c) Cooperative Societies
  4. (d) Market Regulatory Boards
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cooperative Societies

97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
Key Provisions:
• Added Article 43B - State policy to promote cooperative societies
• Added Article 19(1)(c) - Right to form cooperative societies as Fundamental Right
• Added Part IXB (Articles 243ZH to 243ZT) - Provisions relating to cooperative societies
This amendment gaveconstitutional status and protection to cooperative societies
Answer: Option 3 → Cooperative Societies
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 2 · Union Territories administration

Q27. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution empowers the administrator to promulgate ordinances during recess of the Legislature in Union Territories?

  1. (a) 241
  2. (b) 239AA
  3. (c) 239B
  4. (d) 239
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 239B

Topic: Union Territories - Legislative Powers
Article 239B- Power of administrator to promulgate ordinances during recess of Legislature.
This article specifically deals with ordinance-making power of the administrator when the Legislature of a Union Territory is not in session.
Other Articles:
Article 239 - Administration of Union Territories
Article 239AA - Special provisions for Delhi
Article 241 - High Courts for Union Territories
Answer: Option 3 → 239B
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 2 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q28. The Constitution (Ninety‑Fifth Amendment) Act of 2009 extended the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Anglo‑Indians for how many years?

  1. (a) Fifteen Years
  2. (b) Twenty Years
  3. (c) Five Years
  4. (d) Ten Years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ten Years

Constitution (95th Amendment) Act, 2009
This amendment extended the reservation of seats for:
• Scheduled Castes (SCs)
• Scheduled Tribes (STs)
• Anglo-Indians
Extension Period:10 years(from 2010 to 2020)
Note: The 104th Amendment (2019) further extended SC/ST reservation till 2030, but removed Anglo-Indian reservation.
Answer: Option 4 → Ten Years
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 24 March 2026 Shift 1 · Union Territories administration

Q29. Which of the following Union Territories has a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers?

  1. (a) Puducherry
  2. (b) Daman and Diu
  3. (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
  4. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puducherry

Topic:Union Territories with Legislature
Article 239A: Parliament may create legislature for UTs.
UTs with Legislative Assembly:
1. Delhi (NCT) - Assembly + Council of Ministers
2. Puducherry - Assembly + Council of Ministers
3. Jammu & Kashmir - Assembly + Council of Ministers
Other UTs: Administrator-ruled (no legislature).
Answer: Option 1 → Puducherry
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 24 March 2026 Shift 3 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q30. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution deals with the Official Languages of the Indian Union?

  1. (a) Part XVI
  2. (b) Part XX
  3. (c) Part XVII
  4. (d) Part XV
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Part XVII

Topic: Indian Constitution - Official Languages
Part XVIIof the Indian Constitution deals with theOfficial Languagesof the Indian Union.
It containsArticles 343 to 351.
Key provisions:
• Article 343: Hindi in Devanagari script as official language
• Article 344: Commission and Committee on official language
• Article 351: Directive for development of Hindi language
Answer: Option 3 → Part XVII
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 24 March 2026 Shift 3 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q31. Which of the following languages is NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) English
  2. (b) Urdu
  3. (c) Sanskrit
  4. (d) Nepali
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) English

Topic: Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution
The Eighth Schedule lists22 official languagesrecognized by the Constitution.
Languages included: Hindi, Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil, Urdu, Gujarati, Malayalam, Kannada, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Kashmiri, Sindhi, Sanskrit, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, Dogri.
English is NOT in the Eighth Schedule.
English has special status underArticle 343as an associate official language but is not listed in the Eighth Schedule.
Answer: Option 1 → English
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 3 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q32. 'Oriya’ was replaced with ‘Odia’ in the Eighth Schedule by which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) 95th Amendment
  2. (b) 94th Amendment
  3. (c) 96th Amendment
  4. (d) 97th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 96th Amendment

Constitutional Amendment - Language Name Change
The96th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011replaced 'Oriya' with 'Odia' in the Eighth Schedule.
This amendment recognized the correct name of the language spoken in Odisha.
The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages of India.
Answer: Option 3 → 96th Amendment
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 3 · Union Territories administration

Q33. Which of these Union Territories has a legislative assembly and council of ministers?

  1. (a) Puducherry
  2. (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
  3. (c) Daman and Diu
  4. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puducherry

Topic:Union Territories with Legislature
Article 239A allows UTs to have Legislative Assembly.
Only 3 UTs have Legislative Assembly:
1.Delhi(NCT)
2.Puducherry
3.Jammu & Kashmir(UT since 2019)
Puducherry has both Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers.
Other options are UTs without legislature.
Answer: Option 1 → Puducherry
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 3 · Union Territories administration

Q34. According to ____ of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament may by law, constitute a High Court for a Union territory.

  1. (a) Article 239
  2. (b) Article 241
  3. (c) Article 238
  4. (d) Article 240
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 241

Article 241empowers Parliament to establish a High Court for a Union Territory or declare any court as High Court for that UT.
Article 239: Administrator of Union Territories
Article 240: Power to make regulations for certain UTs
Article 238: Repealed (related to Part B states)
Answer: Option 2 → Article 241
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 March 2026 Shift 2 · Union Territories administration

Q35. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is it stated that Union Territories are to be administered by the President, who may appoint an administrator to oversee them?

  1. (a) Article 241
  2. (b) Article 240
  3. (c) Article 239
  4. (d) Article 242
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 239

Article 239of the Constitution deals with administration of Union Territories.
Key provisions:
• President administers UTs through an Administrator
• Administrator appointed by President with designated title
• Administrator acts as agent of the President
Related Articles:
Article 240 → Power to make regulations for certain UTs
Article 241 → High Courts for Union Territories .
Answer: Option 3 → Article 239
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 1 · Union Territories administration

Q36. Administrators of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Puducherry are designated as _________.

  1. (a) Lieutenant Governor
  2. (b) Chief Minister
  3. (c) Administrator
  4. (d) Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lieutenant Governor

Key fact 1: Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Puducherry are Union Territories.
Key fact 2: Union Territories have a Lieutenant Governor as the chief executive.
Key fact 3: Some UTs like Delhi, Puducherry have elected assemblies with CM, but head is still LG.
Answer: Option 1 → Lieutenant Governor
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 2 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q37. Which Constitutional Amendment Act added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
  2. (b) 91st Amendment Act, 2003
  3. (c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
  4. (d) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003

The 8th Schedule lists the official languages of India.
Originally 14 languages; now 22 languages.
92nd Amendment Act, 2003 added four languages:
1. Bodo (Assam region, Bodoland)
2. Dogri (Jammu region)
3. Maithili (Bihar / Jharkhand)
4. Santhali (tribal language, Jharkhand)
These were added in 2004 (amendment ratified).
Total languages in 8th Schedule now = 22.
Memory Trick: BD-MS → Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (92nd Amendment)
Answer: Option 1 → 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 · Oaths, emoluments and other provisions

Q38. What is the correct sequence in which the oath of office binds a Union Minister?

  1. (a) Integrity → Constitution → Sovereignty → Duty → Impartiality (justice without fear or favour)
  2. (b) Constitution → Justice → Integrity → Sovereignty
  3. (c) Allegiance to the → Constitution, → Sovereignty and integrity → Faithful discharge of duties→ Impartiality
  4. (d) Allegiance → Sovereignty → Duty and Impartiality→ Faithful discharge
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Allegiance to the → Constitution, → Sovereignty and integrity → Faithful discharge of duties→ Impartiality

The oath of office for a Union Minister follows a specific order reflecting key principles.
First, there is allegiance to the Constitution, establishing loyalty to the supreme law of India.
Next, the Minister swears to uphold sovereignty and integrity of the country.
Then comes the promise for faithful discharge of duties, ensuring responsibility and dedication.
Finally, it includes impartiality, meaning justice without fear or favour.
Hence, Option 3 correctly presents the sequence of the oath of office for Union Ministers.
Final answer: Option 3
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 3 · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q39. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for Nagaland regarding religious or social practices, customary law, and land & resources?

  1. (a) Article 371A
  2. (b) Article 371B
  3. (c) Article 371C
  4. (d) Article 370
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 371A

The correct answer is Article 371A (Option 1).
Article 371A provides special provisions for the state of Nagaland. It protects Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, ownership and transfer of land and its resources, and religious or social practices of the Nagas from any Act of Parliament without a resolution by the Nagaland Legislative Assembly.
Option 2 - Article 371B: Article 371B provides special provisions for Assam, including a committee of Assembly members from the Tribal Areas.
Option 3 - Article 371C: Article 371C provides special provisions for Manipur, relating to the Hill Areas Committee of the Legislative Assembly.
Option 4 - Article 370: Article 370 previously provided special status to Jammu & Kashmir; it was abrogated in August 2019. It did not deal with Nagaland's provisions.

Q40. Who is the first Lieutenant Governor of the newly created Union Territory of Ladakh?

  1. (a) B.D. Mishra
  2. (b) R.K. Mathur
  3. (c) Ghulam Ali Khatana
  4. (d) Satnam Singh Sandhu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) R.K. Mathur

R.K. Mathur (Radha Krishna Mathur) was appointed as the first Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh when it was bifurcated from Jammu & Kashmir and constituted as a Union Territory on October 31, 2019. He is a retired IAS officer from the Andaman & Nicobar cadre. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: B.D. Mishra (Brigadier B.D. Mishra, retd.) served as the Lieutenant Governor of Arunachal Pradesh and later as the second Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh (from March 2022); he was not the first LG of Ladakh.
Option 3 is wrong: Ghulam Ali Khatana is a political figure from Jammu & Kashmir; he was not appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh.
Option 4 is wrong: Satnam Singh Sandhu is a politician and former Rajya Sabha MP; he was not appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 1 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q41. Which of the following statements is correct about All India Services?

  1. (a) Their creation requires a 2/3 majority resolution of the Rajya Sabha
  2. (b) Their creation is based on an Inter-State Council recommendation
  3. (c) Their creation requires a simple majority of Lok Sabha
  4. (d) Their creation requires a Constitutional Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Their creation requires a 2/3 majority resolution of the Rajya Sabha

Under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can create new All India Services by passing a resolution supported by not less than 2/3 of the members present and voting, declaring it necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Existing All India Services include IAS (Indian Administrative Service), IPS (Indian Police Service), and IFoS (Indian Forest Service).
Option 2 is incorrect: The Inter-State Council is a consultative body for Centre-State relations; it has no role in creating All India Services.
Option 3 is incorrect: A simple majority of Lok Sabha alone cannot create an All India Service; it requires a special 2/3 majority resolution of the Rajya Sabha.
Option 4 is incorrect: Creating new All India Services does not require a Constitutional Amendment; it requires only a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 312.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 9 December 2025 Shift 2 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q42. What is the primary purpose of Article 312 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) To regulate the appointment of Supreme Court judges
  2. (b) To create All India Judicial Services
  3. (c) To determine the qualification of Members of Parliament
  4. (d) To define the power of the Attorney General
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To create All India Judicial Services

Correct Answer: To create All India Judicial Services
Article 312 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to create new All India Services (including All India Judicial Services) by a resolution passed in the Rajya Sabha with not less than 2/3 of the members present and voting. The IAS and IPS are already created under Article 312.
Option 1: Supreme Court judge appointment is covered under Article 124.
Option 3: Qualifications for MPs are covered under Articles 84 and 173.
Option 4: Powers of the Attorney General are defined under Articles 76 and 88.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q43. Consider the following statements:
1. All-India Services common to Union & states.
2. Controlled by state governments only.
Which of the above statements is/are true?

  1. (a) Neither 1 nor 2
  2. (b) Both 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 1

The correct answer is option 4. All-India Services such as the IAS, IPS and IFS are services that are common to both the Union and the states. Officers of these services are recruited and trained by the Union Government but are allocated to various states to serve under the respective state governments. This ensures uniformity in administration and strengthens the unity of the federal system. Hence, statement 1 is correct. However, these services are not controlled solely by the states, as the Union Government plays a crucial role in their recruitment, cadre allocation, training, service conditions and disciplinary matters. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 3 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q44. Which of the following North-Eastern states has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule?

  1. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Tripura
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tripura

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in the North-Eastern states through Autonomous District Councils. It applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram . Among the given options, Tripura is covered under the Sixth Schedule. In Tripura, the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC) was established to safeguard the rights and culture of indigenous tribal communities. This system ensures self-governance in tribal regions and protects their socio-economic and cultural practices.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 3 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q45. Which of the following bodies has the power to create new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States?

  1. (a) The Prime Minister with the consent of all Chief Ministers.
  2. (b) The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.
  3. (c) The President of India by issuing an executive order.
  4. (d) The Union Cabinet by a simple majority.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

The correct answer is The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority . According to Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has the authority to pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority empowering Parliament to create new All-India Services. This ensures federal cooperation between the Union and the States.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 27 November 2025 Shift 2 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q46. Provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Indian constitution does not apply to which of these states?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Meghalaya
  3. (c) Tripura
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Manipur

Correct Answer: Manipur (Option 4)
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for tribal areas in the North-East. It applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram — but NOT to Manipur. Manipur has its own separate provisions under Article 371C of the Constitution for protecting the interests of the hill areas.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Assam: The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas of Assam.
Option 2 - Meghalaya: The Sixth Schedule applies to Meghalaya.
Option 3 - Tripura: The Sixth Schedule applies to the tribal areas of Tripura.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 17 November 2025 Shift 3 · Union Territories administration

Q47. As of July 2025, Vinai Kumar Saxena is the Lieutenant Governor of _____.

  1. (a) Ladakh
  2. (b) Puducherry
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Island
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Delhi

Correct Answer: Delhi
Vinai Kumar Saxena is the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi. He was appointed as the LG of Delhi on 26 May 2022, succeeding Anil Baijal. Delhi is a Union Territory with Legislature (National Capital Territory) and is administered by the LG with an elected government.
Why other options are wrong:
- Ladakh: A Union Territory without Legislature; has its own LG.
- Puducherry: A Union Territory with Legislature; has its own LG.
- Andaman and Nicobar Island: A Union Territory without Legislature; has its own LG/Administrator.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 3 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q48. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 310 is derived from British constitutional practice.
2. It grants absolute power to remove civil servants without inquiry.
3. Article 311 limits the scope of Article 310.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct — Article 310 (doctrine of pleasure) is based on the British constitutional principle.
Statement 2 is incorrect — the doctrine is not absolute; it is qualified by Article 311 and other provisions.
Statement 3 is correct — Article 311 provides procedural safeguards to civil servants, limiting Article 310.
Hence, 1 and 3 only are correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 17 September 2025 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q49. .Consider the following statements:
1. The Sixth Schedule is applicable to Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It empowers autonomous district councils to make laws on specified subjects.
Which of the above is/arecorrect?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram — not Nagaland or Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 1 is incorrect.
It empowers Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils to make laws on specified subjects (land, forests, inheritance, etc.). Statement 2 is correct.
Hence only Statement 2 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 17 September 2025 Shift 2 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q50. Article 312 provides for creation of new _____ by Parliament.

  1. (a) Union Territories
  2. (b) Constitutional Amendments
  3. (c) All India Services
  4. (d) Finance Commissions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) All India Services

Article 312 empowers Parliament to create newAll India Servicescommon to the Union and the States, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3 majority.
Union Territories are created via constitutional changes, Constitutional Amendments are governed by Article 368, and Finance Commissions are governed by Article 280.
Hence the answer is All India Services.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 1 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q51. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is Hindi in Devanagari script declared as the official language of the Union?

  1. (a) Article 348
  2. (b) Article 343
  3. (c) Article 344
  4. (d) Article 351
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 343

Article 343(1) declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
Article 348 deals with language in the Supreme Court / High Courts.
Article 344 deals with the Official Language Commission.
Article 351 directs the Union to promote the spread of Hindi.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 1 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q52. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can create All India Services with approval of Rajya Sabha.
2. Article 312 mentions 'Security Services' as part of All India Services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Statement 1 is correct – Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3 majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 312 specifically mentions IAS and IPS; ‘Security Services’ are not part of the AIS framework.
Hence only Statement 1 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 13 September 2025 Shift 3 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q53. Fill in the blanks: The Parliament can create a new All-India Service by a resolution in the _____.

  1. (a) Rajya Sabha
  2. (b) Lok Sabha
  3. (c) State Assemblies
  4. (d) GST Council
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajya Sabha

Article 312 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to create a new All-India Service if the Rajya Sabha, by ⅔ majority of members present and voting, passes a resolution declaring it necessary in the national interest.
No such role is given to Lok Sabha, State Assemblies or the GST Council.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 3 · Article 370 and Jammu & Kashmir

Q54. Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was abrogated by which constitutional mechanism?

  1. (a) Presidential Order under Article 370(3)
  2. (b) Amendment by Parliament under Article 368
  3. (c) Ordinance by the President
  4. (d) Order under Article 356
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Presidential Order under Article 370(3)

• Indian Polity (2019 event):
• On August 5, 2019, Article 370 was abrogated through a Presidential Order issued under Article 370(3).
• The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019 was passed by Parliament to bifurcate J&K into two Union Territories.
• A Constitutional Amendment under Article 368 was NOT used — Article 370 itself had a provision for its abrogation via Presidential Order.
• Answer: Presidential Order under Article 370(3)
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 1 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q55. Which Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to Co-operative Societies in India?

  1. (a) 74ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
  2. (b) 73ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
  3. (c) 97ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
  4. (d) 86ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 97ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 2 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q56. What is the administrative jurisdiction of Central Services officers?

  1. (a) Joint between the State and the Centre
  2. (b) Exclusive to the Central Government
  3. (c) Both Union and State
  4. (d) Elected Constitutional Authorities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Exclusive to the Central Government

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 3 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q57. Why is Sanskrit counted among the modern Indian languages by the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Due to its status as the most ancient classical language
  2. (b) Given its designation as India's national language
  3. (c) As it serves as the linguistic root for all contemporary Indian languages
  4. (d) Because it continues to be actively used
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Because it continues to be actively used

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 1 · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q58. As of June 2025, how many languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 22
  2. (b) 14
  3. (c) 24
  4. (d) 18
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 22

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 1 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q59. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for the power of the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 336
  2. (b) Article 342
  3. (c) Article 343
  4. (d) Article 340
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 342

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 3 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q60. Which of the following Schedules deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes?

  1. (a) Seventh
  2. (b) Fifth
  3. (c) Ninth
  4. (d) Sixth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fifth

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 3 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q61. Which of the following services is jointly controlled by both the Union and State Governments?

  1. (a) Central Engineering Service
  2. (b) State Medical Service
  3. (c) Indian Economic Service
  4. (d) Indian Administrative Service
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian Administrative Service

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q62. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas in states, other than the Northeast?

  1. (a) Ninth Schedule
  2. (b) Fifth Schedule
  3. (c) Sixth Schedule
  4. (d) Seventh Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 3 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q63. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the President to declare Scheduled Areas?

  1. (a) Article 370
  2. (b) Article 244
  3. (c) Article 338
  4. (d) Article 146
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 244

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 1 September 2025 Shift 2 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q64. In which year was the Second Pay Commission appointed in India?

  1. (a) 1957
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1962
  4. (d) 1965
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1957

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 1 · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q65. Which of the following States enjoys special provisions under Article 371A due to its unique customary law and land ownership practices?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Sikkim
  3. (c) Manipur
  4. (d) Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nagaland

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 1 · Union Territories administration

Q66. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with Union Territories?

  1. (a) Article 7
  2. (b) Article 1
  3. (c) Article 239
  4. (d) Article 262
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 239

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 1 · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q67. Article 371A of the Indian Constitution grants special provisions for the state of ____________.

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagaland

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 2 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q68. Which of the following constitutional mechanisms ensures political representation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) Article 330 and 332
  2. (b) Article 341 and 342
  3. (c) Article 15 and 16
  4. (d) Article 338 and 339
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 330 and 332

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 2 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q69. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with special provisions for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other backwards classes?

  1. (a) Part XVI
  2. (b) Part IX
  3. (c) Part IV
  4. (d) Part III
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Part XVI

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 3 · Union Territories administration

Q70. Who is responsible for the administration of Union Territories like Chandigarh and Lakshadweep?

  1. (a) Elected Chief Ministers of the Union Territories
  2. (b) Governors of neighbouring states
  3. (c) The President of India
  4. (d) Prime Minister of India directly
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The President of India

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 22 August 2025 Shift 1 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q71. According to Article 335 of the Constitution of India, claims of SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration in matters of:

  1. (a) public employment
  2. (b) land acquisition
  3. (c) taxation policies
  4. (d) religious freedom
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) public employment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 22 August 2025 Shift 3 · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q72. Which state has special constitutional provisions to protect its tribal customs and laws under Article 371A?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Tripura
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nagaland

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 2 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q73. In which year was the Indian Civil Service (ICS) officially replaced by the Indian Administrative Service (IAS)?

  1. (a) 1949
  2. (b) 1951
  3. (c) 1950
  4. (d) 1947
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1947

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 3 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q74. What is the name of the Act that governs the rules and service conditions of All-India Services?

  1. (a) All-India Services Act, 1951
  2. (b) Civil Services Regulation Act, 1946
  3. (c) Indian Services Governance Act, 1955
  4. (d) All-India Civil Act, 1950
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) All-India Services Act, 1951

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 3 · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q75. What special provision is granted under Article 371J of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Special powers to the Governor of Manipur for law and order
  2. (b) Special status for the Hyderabad–Karnataka region
  3. (c) Creation of a common High Court for the northeastern states
  4. (d) Provision for official language use in Goa and Daman and Diu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Special status for the Hyderabad–Karnataka region

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q76. The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration and control of which of the following?

  1. (a) Official languages of India
  2. (b) Union and State Lists of the Seventh Schedule
  3. (c) Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
  4. (d) Disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q77. Under Article 244(2) of the Constitution of India, the provisions of the Sixth Schedule apply to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following sets of States?

  1. (a) Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal and Assam
  2. (b) Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
  4. (d) Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 2 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q78. Which Article allows the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of socially and educationally backward classes?

  1. (a) Article 330
  2. (b) Article 342
  3. (c) Article 332
  4. (d) Article 340
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 340

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 3 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q79. Which of the following states are covered under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Mizoram and Manipur
  2. (b) Assam and Tripura
  3. (c) Nagaland and Meghalaya
  4. (d) Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 2 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q80. The All-India Services Act, 1951, allows which authority to frame rules for All-India service recruitment?

  1. (a) Union Public Service Commission
  2. (b) Central Government
  3. (c) The Parliament of India
  4. (d) President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central Government

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 1 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q81. In which year were the Indian Civil Service (ICS) and Indian Police (IP) replaced by the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and Indian Police Service (IPS), later recognised as All-India Services?

  1. (a) 1946
  2. (b) 1945
  3. (c) 1950
  4. (d) 1947
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1947

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 2 · Article 370 and Jammu & Kashmir

Q82. Which of the following was a key feature of Article 370 that granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir before its abrogation in 2019?

  1. (a) Jammu and Kashmir had no representation in the Lok Sabha.
  2. (b) The provisions of the Directive Principles of State Policy were fully enforceable in the state.
  3. (c) Parliament needed the state government's concurrence to legislate on Union List matters for Jammu and Kashmir.
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir could not be included in the First Schedule of the Constitution.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Parliament needed the state government's concurrence to legislate on Union List matters for Jammu and Kashmir.

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q83. Under the Fifth Schedule, which primary authority is granted to the Governor of a State regarding Scheduled Areas?

  1. (a) Power to regulate land, forests and social customs in Scheduled Areas
  2. (b) Power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
  3. (c) Authority to appoint Members of Parliament from Scheduled Areas
  4. (d) Power to amend the Constitution regarding Schedule amendments
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Power to regulate land, forests and social customs in Scheduled Areas

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 3 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q84. The All India Services in India are created under which Article of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 320
  2. (b) Article 206
  3. (c) Article 107
  4. (d) Article 312
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 312

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 1 · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q85. Special provisions for certain states are covered under which Part of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Part XXI
  2. (b) Part XIX
  3. (c) Part XXII
  4. (d) Part XX
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Part XXI

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 1 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q86. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) Article 330
  2. (b) Article 331
  3. (c) Article 334
  4. (d) Article 332
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 330

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 1 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q87. Which of the following central services holds the highest prestige, pay and emoluments among its peers?

  1. (a) Indian Foreign Service
  2. (b) Indian Postal Service
  3. (c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
  4. (d) Indian Defence Accounts Service
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Foreign Service

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 2 · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q88. Which Article of the Constitution provides special provisions for the State of Nagaland?

  1. (a) Article 371A
  2. (b) Article 371D
  3. (c) Article 370
  4. (d) Article 371B
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 371A

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 3 · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q89. Which platform provides online learning for civil servants under Mission Karmayogi in India?

  1. (a) ePathshala
  2. (b) SWAYAM
  3. (c) iGOT Karmayogi
  4. (d) NISG Portal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) iGOT Karmayogi

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 3 · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q90. Which Amendment extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the legislatures for another 10 years till 2030?

  1. (a) 104ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 105ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 101ˢᵗ Amendment
  4. (d) 103ʳᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 104ᵗʰ Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 August 2025 Shift 1 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q91. Which of the following Parts of the Constitution was amended by the 97ᵗʰ Amendment to promote co-operative societies?

  1. (a) Part IXB
  2. (b) Part XII
  3. (c) Part XI
  4. (d) Part IXA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Part IXB

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 August 2025 Shift 2 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q92. Under which of the following conditions is a Tribal Advisory Council (TAC) established in a State?

  1. (a) When the tribal population exceeds 50%
  2. (b) If there is at least one Scheduled Tribe
  3. (c) When the tribal population exceeds 10%
  4. (d) If the State has any forest area
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) If there is at least one Scheduled Tribe

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 August 2025 Shift 3 · Union Territories administration

Q93. Under Article 239 of the Constitution, a Union Territory is administered by:

  1. (a) the Governor of an adjacent State
  2. (b) the Parliament of India
  3. (c) the Prime Minister of India
  4. (d) the President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) the President of India

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 2 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q94. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes?

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Sixth Schedule
  3. (c) Fifth Schedule
  4. (d) Ninth Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fifth Schedule

Q95. Which of the following powers did Jammu and Kashmir have under Article 370?

  1. (a) Its own Constitution
  2. (b) Separate flag
  3. (c) Decision-making in all matters except defence , foreign affairs, and communications
  4. (d) All of the above
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) All of the above

Correct Answer: Option 4 – All of the above
Under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution (now abrogated on August 5, 2019), Jammu & Kashmir had special autonomous status that included all three powers listed:
Option A (Its own Constitution): J&K had its own separate Constitution (Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, 1956), unlike other Indian states which are governed solely by the Indian Constitution.
Option B (Separate flag): J&K had its own state flag (a red flag with three vertical white stripes and a plough) in addition to the Indian national flag.
Option C (Decision-making except defence /foreign affairs/communications): Under Article 370, Parliament could only legislate on matters in the Instrument of Accession ( defence , foreign affairs, communications) for J&K — all other subjects required the J&K government's concurrence.
All three were features of J&K's special status under Article 370, which was revoked on August 5, 2019, and J&K was bifurcated into two Union Territories (J&K UT and Ladakh UT).
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 24 July 2025 Shift 3 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q96. Consider the following statements:
1. Schedule VI applies to tribal areas in Assam and Tripura.
2. Autonomous Councils under Schedule VI can make laws on forest management.
3. Schedule VI is applicable to Jharkhand.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Statements 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244) provides for the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Assam and Tripura are specifically included.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) under Schedule VI have legislative powers over specified subjects including land management, forest management (other than reserved forests), use of waterways, shifting cultivation, and other local subjects.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: Schedule VI does NOT apply to Jharkhand. Jharkhand (along with other states with significant tribal populations like Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, etc.) is covered under the Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)), which provides for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes — a different mechanism from Schedule VI.
Since only statements 1 and 2 are correct, Option 1 (A) is the answer.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 24 June 2025 Shift 1 · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q97. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in which region?

  1. (a) Central India
  2. (b) North-East India
  3. (c) Western Ghats
  4. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) North-East India

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 23 June 2025 Shift 2 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q98. What is the term for elected members serving on the board of a co-operative society?

  1. (a) 5 years
  2. (b) 4 years
  3. (c) 6 years
  4. (d) 3 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5 years

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 June 2025 Shift 1 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q99. Where is the audit report of an apex co-operative society required to be presented?

  1. (a) State Legislature
  2. (b) High Court
  3. (c) District Office
  4. (d) State Secretariat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State Legislature

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 June 2025 Shift 3 · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q100. What is the maximum time limit for a co-operative society to conduct its annual general meeting after the close of the financial year?

  1. (a) 12 months
  2. (b) 3 months
  3. (c) 6 months
  4. (d) 9 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 6 months

12

More Polity chapters

Polity Miscellaneous176 questionsJudiciary147 questionsEmergency and Centre-State Relations140 questionsUnion Executive136 questionsDPSP and Fundamental Duties122 questionsFundamental Rights108 questionsConstitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies103 questionsLocal Government93 questionsState Government87 questionsParliament86 questionsAmendments and Important Articles85 questionsUnion, Territory and Citizenship84 questionsPreamble, Features, Parts and Schedules63 questionsConstitutional Development and Making54 questionsElections, Parties and Representation27 questions
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): All previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz