SSC GD 2026 30 April 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Governor — Option (a)
The Governor has the power to summon and prorogue the State Legislature. Constitutional basis: Article 174 of the Indian Constitution states: '(1) The Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. (2) The Governor may from time to time — (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the Legislative Assembly.' Key powers of the Governor regarding the State Legislature: Summoning: The Governor convenes/calls the legislative assembly to meet (Article 174); Proroguing: The Governor terminates a session of the legislature (Article 174); Dissolving: The Governor can dissolve the Legislative Assembly on the advice of the Council of Ministers; Addressing the Legislature: The Governor addresses the first session of each year and after general elections (Article 175); Sending messages: The Governor can send messages to the Houses of the Legislature (Article 175).
Option (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly — Incorrect: The Speaker presides over the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly and maintains order, but does NOT have the power to summon or prorogue the legislature — those powers rest exclusively with the Governor under Article 174.
Option (c) Chief Minister — Incorrect: While the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (headed by the Chief Minister) in exercising most functions, the constitutional power to summon and prorogue the legislature is formally vested in the Governor, not the Chief Minister.
Option (d) President — Incorrect: The President has similar powers for Parliament (Articles 85 and 86) but does NOT have the power to summon or prorogue State Legislatures; those powers belong to the Governor of the respective state under Article 174.

Correct Answer: Supreme Court — Option (b)
Disputes related to the election of the Vice-President of India are decided by the Supreme Court of India. Constitutional basis: Article 71(1) of the Indian Constitution states: 'All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision shall be final.' Key points: Exclusive jurisdiction: Only the Supreme Court has the power to inquire into and decide election disputes related to the Vice-President (and President); The decision of the Supreme Court is final and binding; Comparison with President: The same provision (Article 71) governs disputes regarding the election of both the President and Vice-President; This is different from ordinary election disputes, which go to High Courts (for state legislatures) or the Supreme Court (for Parliament) under Article 329; Related provision: Article 70 also provides that Parliament may make provisions for discharging functions of the President in contingencies not provided for in the Constitution.
Option (a) President — Incorrect: The President cannot decide disputes related to the election of the Vice-President; under Article 71, it is the Supreme Court (not the President) that has the exclusive jurisdiction to settle such disputes.
Option (c) Election Commission — Incorrect: While the Election Commission conducts and supervises the elections of the President and Vice-President, it does NOT have the power to decide disputes arising from those elections; that power belongs to the Supreme Court under Article 71.
Option (d) Parliament — Incorrect: Parliament does not decide election disputes related to the Vice-President; Article 71 specifically vests this power in the Supreme Court of India; the candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Rajasthan — Option (b)
Mand is a semi-classical folk music style that originated from Rajasthan. Key facts about Mand: Nature: Mand occupies a unique position between classical and folk music — it uses classical ragas but is expressed with the emotional and cultural character of Rajasthani folk tradition; Origin: It evolved in the royal courts ( darbars ) of Rajasthan, particularly in cities like Jaipur, Bikaner, and Jodhpur; Style characteristics: Mand is known for its romantic themes, leisurely tempo, and lyrical depth; songs are often about the beauty of the desert, longing, and love; Famous songs: ' Kesariya Balam' is perhaps the most iconic Mand song, associated with the greeting of guests and lovers; Famous performers: Alkaji (Alka Yagnik's inspiration), Gavri Devi of Barmer, and various traditional Manganiars and Langas sing Mand; Language: Usually sung in Rajasthani dialects (Marwari, Dhundhari); Cultural context: Mand was traditionally sung in the royal courts and on auspicious occasions like weddings; Connection to classical music: Mand is also the name of a Rajasthani raga that is incorporated into Hindustani classical music.
Option (a) Gujarat — Incorrect: Mand is not a folk style from Gujarat; Gujarat's folk music traditions include Garba, Bhavai , and Dayro; Mand is specifically a semi-classical folk style associated with the royal courts and folk culture of Rajasthan.
Option (c) Haryana — Incorrect: Mand is not from Haryana; Haryana's folk music traditions include Ragini, Saang , and various folk songs related to harvesting; Mand is specifically from Rajasthan.
Option (d) Madhya Pradesh — Incorrect: Mand is not from Madhya Pradesh; MP has its own rich folk music traditions including Pandwani , Rai, and various tribal music forms; Mand is specifically a semi-classical folk style originating from Rajasthan.

Correct Answer: The Other Side of Midnight — Option (c)
Sidney Sheldon's novel 'The Other Side of Midnight' (1973) is based on World War II and a tragic love story. Key facts about the novel: Published: 1973; Setting: The novel is set against the backdrop of World War II (1939-1945) and post-war period; Plot summary: The story follows Noëlle Page, a French girl who falls in love with an American pilot, Larry Douglas; Larry abandons her for another woman; Noëlle, heartbroken and determined, becomes a famous actress and mistress to a wealthy Greek shipping magnate, Constantine Demiris; She orchestrates an elaborate scheme of revenge against Larry and his new wife; The story involves themes of passion, betrayal, revenge, and tragedy; The novel explores how World War II shaped and disrupted the lives of the characters; Film adaptation: The novel was adapted into a film in 1977; It was Sidney Sheldon's second novel and his first bestseller; About Sidney Sheldon: Born in 1917, died in 2007; American author known for his hugely popular novels including 'Bloodline', 'Rage of Angels', 'Master of the Game', and 'The Other Side of Midnight.'
Option (a) Tell Me Your Dreams — Incorrect: 'Tell Me Your Dreams' (1998) by Sidney Sheldon is a psychological thriller about a woman with multiple personality disorder and a serial killer — it is NOT based on World War II and a tragic love story.
Option (b) If Tomorrow Comes — Incorrect: 'If Tomorrow Comes' (1985) by Sidney Sheldon is about Tracy Whitney, a woman wrongly imprisoned who becomes a master thief after being framed — it is a thriller/crime novel, NOT based on World War II and a tragic love story.
Option (d) Windmills of the Gods — Incorrect: 'Windmills of the Gods' (1987) by Sidney Sheldon is a political thriller about Mary Ashley, a professor appointed as US Ambassador, who becomes a target of assassination — it is NOT based on World War II and a tragic love story.

Correct Answer: 1976 — Option (b)
The Indian Women's Cricket Team played its first Test match in 1976. Key facts: The Women's Cricket Association of India (WCAI) was established in 1973; The Indian Women's Cricket Team played their first official Test match in 1976, against the West Indies Women's team; Venue: The first Test match was played in Bangalore; India's women's cricket journey: After the first Test in 1976, Indian women's cricket developed gradually; The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) took over the administration of women's cricket from the WCAI in 2006; India Women have since become one of the top teams globally, reaching the ICC Women's T20 World Cup final multiple times; Famous players: Mithali Raj (India's highest run-scorer in women's Tests), Jhulan Goswami (fastest to 200 wickets in women's ODIs), and Harmanpreet Kaur (current captain) have been stalwarts of Indian women's cricket.
Option (a) 1973 — Incorrect: 1973 was the year the Women's Cricket Association of India (WCAI) was established; the Indian Women's Cricket Team played their first Test match in 1976, not 1973.
Option (c) 1983 — Incorrect: 1983 is the year India's Men's Cricket Team won the Cricket World Cup (under Kapil Dev's captaincy); the Indian Women's Cricket Team played their first Test match much earlier, in 1976.
Option (d) 1986 — Incorrect: 1986 was not the year of Indian Women's cricket team's first Test match; they played their first Test in 1976; 1986 is when various other cricket events occurred but not the first women's Test for India. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 17.2 m — Option (c)
The minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound to hear a distinct echo is 17.2 metres . Scientific explanation: For a person to hear a distinct echo, the reflected sound must reach their ear at least 1/10th of a second (0.1 second) after the original sound, because the human ear can distinguish two sounds only if there is a time gap of at least 0.1 seconds between them; Speed of sound at 20°C (approximately room temperature) = 344 m/s; Total distance travelled by sound (to obstacle and back) = Speed × Time = 344 × 0.1 = 34.4 m; Since sound has to travel to the obstacle AND back, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source = 34.4/2 = 17.2 metres . Therefore, for a distinct echo to be heard, the reflecting surface must be at least 17.2 metres away from the source of sound. Note: The speed of sound changes with temperature (approximately 331 m/s at 0°C, 344 m/s at 20°C). At the commonly used standard value of 344 m/s, the minimum distance for echo = 17.2 m.
Option (a) 34.4 m — Incorrect: 34.4 metres is the total distance that sound must travel (to the obstacle and back) for the time gap to be 0.1 seconds; the minimum DISTANCE OF THE OBSTACLE from the source is half of this, i.e., 17.2 m — not 34.4 m.
Option (b) 22.5 m — Incorrect: 22.5 metres is not the minimum distance for a distinct echo; this value does not correspond to any standard calculation for echo distance; the correct minimum distance is 17.2 m (based on speed of sound 344 m/s and minimum time gap 0.1 s). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 10.6 m — Incorrect: 10.6 metres is less than the required minimum distance; at this distance, the echo would return in 10.6×2/344 = 0.0616 seconds, which is less than 0.1 seconds — insufficient for the human ear to distinguish the echo from the original sound.

Correct Answer: Alluvial soil — Option (b)
The northern plains of India (the Indo-Gangetic Plains) are mainly formed by the deposit of alluvial soil. Key facts about alluvial soil in the northern plains: Formation: The northern plains were formed over millions of years by the deposition of sediments (silt, sand, clay, and gravel) carried down from the Himalayan rivers — primarily the Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries; Extent: The Indo-Gangetic alluvial plain stretches approximately 3,200 km from Punjab in the west to Assam in the east, covering states including Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam; Types of alluvial soil: Khadar — new alluvium, found in flood plains, renewed annually, more fertile; Bhangar — old alluvium, higher up on terraces, contains calcium carbonate ( Kankar ); Characteristics: Rich in minerals, very fertile, easy to till, supports intensive cultivation; Crops: Rice, wheat, sugarcane, jute, cotton, maize — the alluvial soil supports India's agricultural heartland.
Option (a) Black soil — Incorrect: Black soil (Regur soil) is found mainly in the Deccan Plateau (Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh); it is formed from volcanic rock (basalt) and is not what forms the northern plains.
Option (c) Laterite soil — Incorrect: Laterite soil is found in areas of heavy rainfall with high temperatures — mainly in Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, parts of Odisha, and Northeast India; it forms by leaching and is NOT what forms the northern plains of India.
Option (d) Red soil — Incorrect: Red soil is found mainly in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and parts of the Deccan Plateau; it forms from the weathering of crystalline and metamorphic rocks, and is NOT what forms India's northern plains.

Correct Answer: Brahmaputra — Option (b)
Majuli is the world's largest river island, formed by the Brahmaputra river in Assam. Key facts about Majuli: Location: Majuli island is situated in the Brahmaputra river in Assam, India; Size: Once the world's largest river island at approximately 1,250 sq. km, it has since shrunk due to erosion (currently about 352 sq. km); It was officially recognized as the world's largest river island by the Guinness Book of World Records; District status: In 2016, Majuli became India's first river island district when it was carved out as a separate district from Jorhat district in Assam; Cultural significance: Majuli is known as the cultural capital of Assam; it is home to numerous Vaishnavite monasteries ( Satras ) established by the 15th-century saint-reformer Srimanta Shankaradeva; these Satras are centres of neo-Vaishnavite culture, art, music, and dance ( Sattriya — one of India's eight classical dance forms); Erosion concern: Majuli faces a serious threat from erosion and flooding of the Brahmaputra; UNESCO has been involved in heritage preservation efforts.
Option (a) Ganga — Incorrect: The Ganga does not form Majuli island; while the Ganga forms several islands, Majuli — the world's largest river island — is specifically formed by the Brahmaputra in Assam.
Option (c) Yamuna — Incorrect: The Yamuna does not form Majuli island; the Yamuna is a tributary of the Ganga and flows through Delhi and Uttar Pradesh; Majuli is formed by the Brahmaputra in Assam.
Option (d) Godavari — Incorrect: The Godavari flows through Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before draining into the Bay of Bengal; it does not form Majuli island — that is formed by the Brahmaputra in Assam.

Correct Answer: Nitin Gupta — Option (c)
Nitin Gupta is the Indian young athlete who broke the national record in the 5000-meter race walk by completing it in 19:24.48 (under 20 minutes). Key facts: Nitin Gupta is a promising young Indian race walker who set the national record in the 5000m race walk event; His timing of 19:24.48 was significant as it broke the 20-minute barrier for the first time in Indian athletics history for this event; Race walking is a discipline where athletes must maintain continuous ground contact (one foot must be on the ground at all times) and the leading leg must be straight from the moment it makes contact with the ground until it passes under the body; India has a strong tradition in race walking, with athletes like K.T. Irfan, Sandeep Kumar, and Priyanka Goswami excelling at national and international levels; Nitin Gupta's record-breaking performance was an important milestone for the development of race walking in India.
Option (a) Tushar Panwar — Incorrect: Tushar Panwar is an Indian athlete but did not set the 5000m race walk national record in 19:24.48; Nitin Gupta holds this record.
Option (b) Yogita — Incorrect: Yogita is not the athlete who broke the 5000m race walk national record in 19:24.48; Nitin Gupta set this national record.
Option (d) Prashant Kumar — Incorrect: Prashant Kumar did not set the 5000m race walk national record in 19:24.48; the athlete who broke the national record with a timing of 19:24.48 in the 5000m race walk was Nitin Gupta.

Correct Answer: Space tourism and station support — Option (c)
The Bharatiya Antariksha Station (BAS — Indian Space Station) to be unveiled by ISRO is planned with the objective of space tourism and station support, in addition to supporting scientific research and technology development. Key facts about BAS: Full name: Bharatiya Antariksha Station (Indian Space Station); ISRO's vision: ISRO plans to establish India's own space station by 2035 as part of its long-term space exploration goals; Primary objectives include: Microgravity research and scientific experiments in space; Technology demonstration and space science; Supporting India's Gaganyaan human spaceflight program; Space tourism and station support activities; Planned specifications: The BAS is planned to be a modular space station; it will orbit at an altitude of approximately 400 km above Earth; India's ambition: Establishing BAS would make India only the fourth country (after Russia, USA, and China) to have its own operational space station; Connection to Gaganyaan : ISRO's Gaganyaan mission (human spaceflight) is the stepping stone toward establishing and operating the BAS.
Option (a) Mars exploration — Incorrect: While ISRO has Mars exploration ambitions (Mangalyaan 1 was launched in 2013), the Bharatiya Antariksha Station (BAS) is not designed for Mars exploration; it is an Earth-orbiting station focused on research, technology development, and support activities.
Option (b) Lunar mapping — Incorrect: ISRO's Chandrayaan missions (Chandrayaan-1, 2, 3) address lunar exploration and mapping; the BAS is an Earth-orbiting space station, not a lunar mapping mission.
Option (d) Deep space communication — Incorrect: Deep space communication is handled by dedicated antenna networks and ground stations; the Bharatiya Antariksha Station (BAS) is an Earth-orbiting station focused on scientific research, technology demonstration, and station support activities, not deep space communication.

Correct Answer: CE20 engine ignition in vacuum — Option (b)
In February 2025, ISRO successfully tested the CE20 cryogenic engine ignition in vacuum conditions at its propulsion test facility. Key facts about the CE20 engine and this test: CE20 engine: The CE20 is India's indigenous high-thrust cryogenic rocket engine, developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC); It uses liquid hydrogen (LH2) and liquid oxygen (LOX) as propellants; It produces a thrust of approximately 20 tonnes in vacuum; Application: The CE20 is used in the Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) of the LVM3 rocket (formerly GSLV Mk III) — India's most powerful rocket; Significance of vacuum testing: Testing engine ignition in simulated vacuum conditions (as experienced in space) is crucial to validate performance before actual launches; The High Altitude Test (HAT) facility at ISRO's Mahendragiri propulsion complex simulates the vacuum of space; Importance: Successful vacuum ignition testing of CE20 is critical for future ISRO missions including the Gaganyaan human spaceflight program and commercial satellite launches.
Option (a) Restart in cryogenic engine chamber — Incorrect: While multiple restart capability is an important feature being developed for cryogenic engines, the specific ISRO test in February 2025 was the CE20 engine ignition in vacuum conditions, not a restart test.
Option (c) Human-rated life support system — Incorrect: While ISRO is developing human-rated systems for the Gaganyaan program, the specific test in ISRO's engine facilities in February 2025 was the CE20 engine ignition in vacuum, not a life support system test.
Option (d) Solar sail deployment — Incorrect: ISRO has been researching solar sail technology for future space missions, but the February 2025 test at ISRO's engine facilities was specifically the CE20 cryogenic engine ignition in vacuum conditions — not solar sail deployment.

Correct Answer: Vijay Shankar — Option (a)
In 2025, Vijay Shankar was honored with the Knight Cross of the Order of the Dannebrog by Denmark for his contributions to strengthening India-Denmark bilateral relations. Key facts: The Order of the Dannebrog is one of Denmark's oldest and most prestigious royal orders of chivalry, founded in 1671; Knight Cross is one of the grades of this order; The award was conferred in recognition of significant contributions to India-Denmark diplomatic, cultural, or economic ties; India-Denmark relations: India and Denmark share strong bilateral relations, especially in areas of clean energy (Denmark is a world leader in wind energy), green shipping, water management, and sustainable development; The 'Green Strategic Partnership' between India and Denmark was established in September 2020; This partnership focuses on green energy transition, circular economy, water and wastewater management, and sustainable urban development.
Option (b) Rajnath Singh — Incorrect: Rajnath Singh is India's Defence Minister; while he has represented India in various international forums, the Knight Cross of the Order of the Dannebrog in 2025 was awarded to Vijay Shankar, not Rajnath Singh.
Option (c) Ashim Kumar Ghosh — Incorrect: Ashim Kumar Ghosh did not receive the Knight Cross of the Order of the Dannebrog in 2025; this honor was bestowed on Vijay Shankar for contributions to India-Denmark relations. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Natarajan Chandrasekaran — Incorrect: Natarajan Chandrasekaran (Chairman of Tata Sons) has been involved in India-Denmark business relations, but the Knight Cross of the Order of the Dannebrog in 2025 was awarded to Vijay Shankar, not to him.

Correct Answer: Time, cost and recovery rate in insolvency cases — Option (c)
The Insolvency Resolution Indicator evaluates the time, cost, and recovery rate in insolvency (bankruptcy) cases. Key facts about the Insolvency Resolution Indicator: The Insolvency Resolution indicator is a component of the World Bank's Doing Business Report (now evolved into the Business Ready or B-READY index); It specifically measures how efficiently and effectively a country's legal and judicial system resolves business insolvency; Three key parameters evaluated: Time — The number of years it takes to complete insolvency proceedings (from filing to resolution/closure); Cost — As a percentage of the estate value, covering legal fees, court costs, and administrative expenses; Recovery Rate — The amount of money (cents per dollar) recovered by secured creditors through insolvency proceedings; India's Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016: India enacted the IBC in 2016 to streamline insolvency resolution; The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) handles insolvency cases; The code has significantly improved India's ranking in this indicator.
Option (a) Government debt levels — Incorrect: Government debt levels are measured by different indicators (fiscal deficit, debt-to-GDP ratio) published by agencies like IMF and World Bank; the Insolvency Resolution Indicator specifically measures time, cost, and recovery rate in business insolvency proceedings.
Option (b) Insurance cover for businesses — Incorrect: Insurance cover for businesses is assessed through separate insurance and financial sector indicators; the Insolvency Resolution Indicator evaluates time, cost, and recovery rate in insolvency cases, not insurance coverage. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Loan interest rates — Incorrect: Loan interest rates are tracked through monetary policy and banking sector indicators; the Insolvency Resolution Indicator focuses on the efficiency of insolvency proceedings (time, cost, and recovery rate), not lending rates.

Correct Answer: Verghese Kurien — Option (a)
Verghese Kurien is known as the 'Father of the White Revolution' (also called Operation Flood) in India. Key facts about Verghese Kurien: Born: 26 November 1921 in Kozhikode (Calicut), Kerala; Died: 9 September 2012; Contribution: He transformed India from a milk-deficient country into the world's largest producer of milk and milk products; Operation Flood: The White Revolution (Operation Flood) was launched in 1970 as the world's largest dairy development program; it was implemented in three phases (1970-1996); Amul: Kurien was the founding chairman of the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF), which markets the iconic Amul brand; The Anand Model: He developed the 'Anand Pattern' cooperative model, which empowers farmers through cooperative societies; Awards: Padma Vibhushan (1999), Ramon Magsaysay Award (1963), World Food Prize (1989); Legacy: November 26 is celebrated as National Milk Day in India in his honor.
Option (b) Vikram Sarabhai — Incorrect: Vikram Sarabhai is known as the 'Father of the Indian Space Programme ' (not White Revolution); he founded ISRO and established India's space research infrastructure.
Option (c) Norman Borlaug — Incorrect: Norman Borlaug (American agronomist) is known as the 'Father of the Green Revolution' — he developed high-yielding dwarf wheat varieties that transformed global food production; he is NOT associated with the White Revolution (dairy).
Option (d) M.S. Swaminathan — Incorrect: M.S. Swaminathan is known as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India' for his work in developing and introducing high-yielding varieties of rice and wheat; the White Revolution (dairy development) was led by Verghese Kurien.

Correct Answer: Three — Option (b)
The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) of 1956 classified industries into THREE categories (Schedules A, B, and C). The three categories: Schedule A (State monopoly industries — 17 industries): These industries were to be exclusively owned and operated by the State (Central Government); Examples: Heavy industries like iron and steel, heavy machinery, coal, petroleum, atomic energy, railways, air transport, broadcasting, etc.; New establishments in these sectors could only be made by the State. Schedule B (Mixed sector — 12 industries): These industries could have private sector participation alongside the public sector; However, the State would progressively own more units in these industries; Examples: Chemicals (excluding heavy chemicals), fertilizers, aluminium , machine tools, road transport, sea transport, etc. Schedule C (Private sector industries): All remaining industries not included in Schedules A and B were left to the private sector; These could be set up by private entrepreneurs, subject to regulation. Significance of IPR 1956: Known as the 'Economic Constitution of India'; It shaped India's mixed economy model; It was strongly influenced by socialist principles and Nehru's vision of the state playing a dominant role in heavy industries.
Option (a) Two — Incorrect: The IPR 1956 classified industries into THREE categories (Schedules A, B, and C), not two; two-category classification would not have captured the mixed/intermediate sector.
Option (c) Four — Incorrect: The IPR 1956 classified industries into three categories (Schedules A, B, C); there were not four categories in the 1956 classification.
Option (d) Five — Incorrect: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 classified industries into three (not five) schedules; five categories were not part of the 1956 IPR framework.

Correct Answer: It reduces public spending or increases taxes — Option (a)
If the government adopts a contractionary fiscal policy, it reduces public spending or increases taxes (or both). Definition of Contractionary Fiscal Policy: Contractionary (restrictive) fiscal policy involves government actions to reduce aggregate demand in the economy; It is the opposite of expansionary fiscal policy; Purpose: Used to cool down an overheated economy, reduce inflation, and address budget deficits; Tools of contractionary fiscal policy: Reducing government expenditure (cutting public spending on infrastructure, welfare programs, etc.); Increasing tax rates (income tax, corporate tax, GST, etc.); Reducing subsidies; Outcome: Reduced aggregate demand → slower economic growth → lower inflation; When used: During periods of high inflation, economic overheating, or when the government wants to reduce fiscal deficit; Example: If inflation is high at 8-10%, the government may reduce subsidies, cut unnecessary public spending, and increase taxes to reduce money in circulation.
Option (b) It prints more money — Incorrect: Printing more money is a monetary policy action (by the central bank/RBI), not fiscal policy; it is also associated with expansionary (not contractionary) policy; contractionary fiscal policy specifically involves reducing spending or increasing taxes.
Option (c) It reduces taxes — Incorrect: Reducing taxes is a feature of EXPANSIONARY fiscal policy (to stimulate economic activity); contractionary fiscal policy does the opposite — it INCREASES taxes (or reduces spending) to cool down the economy.
Option (d) It increases public spending — Incorrect: Increasing public spending is a feature of EXPANSIONARY fiscal policy; contractionary fiscal policy involves REDUCING public spending (along with increasing taxes) to reduce aggregate demand and control inflation.

Correct Answer: Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) — Option (b)
After agriculture, the MSME (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises) sector is the second largest source of employment in India. Key facts about MSMEs and employment: Employment: MSMEs employ approximately 11 crore (110 million) people in India — making it the second largest employer after agriculture (which employs about 42-45% of the workforce); Number of MSMEs: There are over 6 crore MSMEs registered in India; Economic contribution: MSMEs contribute approximately 30% of India's GDP and around 48% of India's exports; Sectors covered: MSMEs operate across food processing, textiles, leather, chemicals, engineering, electronics, handicrafts, services, and many other sectors; Why MSMEs employ so many: They are labour-intensive (unlike large capital-intensive industries); they have low capital requirements enabling widespread establishment; they operate across rural and urban areas; Government support: Schemes like PMEGP, Mudra loans, Credit Guarantee scheme, and the MSME Ministry actively support this sector.
Option (a) Large-scale capital-intensive industrial enterprises — Incorrect: While large industries are important, they are CAPITAL-intensive (not labour-intensive ), meaning they employ fewer workers per unit of capital; MSMEs employ far more people than large capital-intensive enterprises in India.
Option (c) Information Technology and Software Services — Incorrect: India's IT sector is a major foreign exchange earner and high-skill employer, but it directly employs approximately 50 lakh (5 million) people — far fewer than MSMEs (11 crore); IT is not the second largest employer after agriculture. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Transportation and logistics infrastructure — Incorrect: While transportation and logistics is an important employer, MSMEs are the second largest source of employment in India after agriculture; the transportation sector employs far fewer people than the MSME sector.

Correct Answer: 32.94 crore — Option (a)
As of March 1, 2025, India has 32.94 crore active domestic LPG consumers, including 10.33 crore PMUY (Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana) beneficiaries. Key facts about LPG and PMUY in India: Total active domestic LPG consumers as of March 1, 2025: 32.94 crore (329.4 million); PMUY beneficiaries within this: 10.33 crore (103.3 million); About PMUY: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched on May 1, 2016 by PM Narendra Modi from Ballia, Uttar Pradesh; Objective: To provide free LPG connections to women from BPL (Below Poverty Line) households to replace traditional cooking fuels (wood, dung, kerosene) that cause indoor air pollution; PMUY 2.0: The scheme was relaunched in August 2021 with expansion to migrant workers and additional categories; Impact: The scheme has dramatically increased LPG penetration in rural India, improving health outcomes (especially for women and children) by reducing indoor air pollution.
Option (b) 38.94 — Incorrect: As of March 1, 2025, India had 32.94 crore active domestic LPG consumers (not 38.94 crore); 38.94 crore overstates the actual number.
Option (c) 42.94 — Incorrect: India had 32.94 crore active domestic LPG consumers as of March 1, 2025 (not 42.94 crore); this figure significantly overstates the actual consumer base.
Option (d) 22.94 — Incorrect: 22.94 crore understates the number of active domestic LPG consumers in India as of March 1, 2025; the correct figure is 32.94 crore.

Correct Answer: 1855 — Option (b)
The Santhals revolted around 1855 — this uprising is known as the Santhal Rebellion or Santhal Hool (Hool meaning 'revolution' or 'uprising' in Santhali ). Key facts about the Santhal Rebellion: Dates: June 30, 1855 to November 1856; Leaders: Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu (brothers), along with Chand and Bhairav Murmu; Location: Santhal Parganas (present-day Jharkhand), particularly around Bhagnadihi village in Birbhum (West Bengal); Causes: Exploitation by moneylenders ( mahajans / dikus — outsiders), zamindars, and British merchants through illegal land seizures and usurious loans; corrupt revenue system; forced labour ; British colonial land policies disrupting the traditional tribal way of life; Events: On June 30, 1855 (known as Hool Diwas), Sidhu and Kanhu declared an uprising; they called for a state free from exploitation; the rebels targeted dikus (outsiders), moneylenders, and the colonial administration; Suppression: The British crushed the rebellion using military force in late 1855-56; Sidhu and Kanhu were captured and executed; Death toll: Approximately 10,000-15,000 Santhal rebels were killed; Significance: Hool Diwas (June 30) is celebrated annually in Jharkhand and West Bengal as a tribute to the Santhal martyrs.
Option (a) 1821 — Incorrect: The Santhal Rebellion did not take place around 1821; the year 1821 was closer to the Kol Uprising (1831-32) and various Bhil tribal revolts; the Santhal Hool (Rebellion) occurred in 1855.
Option (c) 1885 — Incorrect: The Santhal Rebellion occurred in 1855, not 1885; 1885 is significant in Indian history as the year the Indian National Congress was founded; the candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 1903 — Incorrect: The Santhal Rebellion did not occur around 1903; it took place in 1855-56; 1903 falls in the period of early nationalist movements and partition of Bengal (1905) discussions.

Correct Answer: Hooghly — Option (a)
The Serampore College, established by Christian missionaries, was situated on the bank of the Hooghly River. Key facts about Serampore College: Founded: November 15, 1818; Founders: The ' Serampore Trio' — William Carey, Joshua Marshman, and William Ward (Baptist missionaries from England); Location: Serampore (also spelled Srirampur or Shrirampur ), situated on the western bank of the Hooghly River in present-day West Bengal; Historical context: Serampore was then a Danish colonial settlement (not British), which gave the missionaries a degree of freedom from British colonial restrictions; Significance: It was one of the earliest colleges in Asia offering education in Western subjects including science, humanities, and theology; It is often considered the first college to award degrees in Asia; Charter: It received a Royal Charter from the King of Denmark in 1827, allowing it to confer degrees — making it technically a university; About William Carey: William Carey is considered the 'Father of Modern Missions'; he was also a botanist, Bible translator, and social reformer who opposed practices like sati.
Option (b) Yamuna — Incorrect: Serampore College is situated on the banks of the Hooghly River in West Bengal, not the Yamuna; the Yamuna flows through Delhi, Agra, and Mathura — far from Serampore .
Option (c) Damodar — Incorrect: The Damodar River flows through Jharkhand and West Bengal; Serampore is not on the Damodar River — it is situated on the western bank of the Hooghly River.
Option (d) Mahananda — Incorrect: The Mahananda River flows through parts of West Bengal and Bihar; Serampore College is not on the Mahananda — it is located on the Hooghly River in Serampore , West Bengal.