SSC GD 2026 29 April 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: 7th Schedule — Option (b)
The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifies the division of legislative powers between the Union and States through three lists. The three lists under the 7th Schedule: Union List (List I) — Contains 97 subjects (originally 97, now 100 after amendments) on which only Parliament can legislate; examples include defence , foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, banking, currency, and communications; State List (List II) — Contains 66 subjects on which State Legislatures can legislate; examples include police, public health, agriculture, local government, and land; Concurrent List (List III) — Contains 52 subjects (originally 47) on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate; examples include education, forests, marriage, bankruptcy, and criminal law. In case of conflict between Union and State laws on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails (Article 254). The 7th Schedule is among the most important schedules as it defines the federal structure of India's governance.
Option (a) 5th Schedule — Incorrect: The 5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram; it does not deal with the division of powers between Union and States.
Option (c) 9th Schedule — Incorrect: The 9th Schedule (added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment, 1951) contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in courts (judicial review protected); it does not specify the division of powers between Union and States.
Option (d) 10th Schedule — Incorrect: The 10th Schedule (added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment, 1985) deals with the Anti-Defection Law — provisions disqualifying members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection; it is not related to the division of powers.

Correct Answer: Chief Justice of the High Court — Option (c)
The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state. Constitutional basis: Article 159 of the Indian Constitution states: 'Every Governor and every person discharging the functions of the Governor shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the senior-most Judge of that Court available, an oath or affirmation in the following form...' The form of oath taken by the Governor: The Governor swears (or affirms) to faithfully execute the office of Governor and to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of the State. Key distinction: The President's oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (Article 60), while the Governor's oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court.
Option (a) President — Incorrect: The President administers the oath to the Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers, and other Constitutional functionaries, but NOT to the Governor; the Governor's oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court under Article 159.
Option (b) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister does not administer the oath to anyone under the Constitution; the Prime Minister's own oath is administered by the President; the Governor's oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court.
Option (d) Chief Minister — Incorrect: The Chief Minister has no role in administering the oath to the Governor; in fact, the Governor appoints the Chief Minister — the constitutional hierarchy does not permit the Chief Minister to administer the Governor's oath.

Correct Answer: Use of sticks called ' Tippani ' by dancers while performing rhythmic dance — Option (a)
The primary and defining characteristic of Tippani dance is the use of sticks called ' Tippani ' (or ' Tipri ') by the dancers who strike them rhythmically on the ground while dancing. Key features of Tippani dance: Origin: Tippani dance originates from the Saurashtra region of Gujarat, traditionally performed by women from the Nayak and Koli communities; The sticks ( Tippani / Tipri ): These are short, wooden sticks that are struck rhythmically on the ground while dancers move in formation — the percussion created by the sticks forms the core musical element; The dance originated among women road-construction workers ( labourers who pounded roads using similar implements) and evolved into an artistic folk dance form; Performance: Dancers perform in groups, wearing colourful traditional Gujarati attire with mirrors, embroidery, and jewelry; the synchronized stick-striking and footwork create a visually and acoustically impressive performance; Occasions: Performed at weddings, festivals, and community celebrations; It has been recognized nationally and featured in cultural festivals across India.
Option (b) Swordsmanship with swords and shields — Incorrect: Swordsmanship with swords and shields is associated with martial dances like Kalaripayattu (Kerala), Chhau (eastern India), or Thang-ta (Manipur); Tippani dance does not involve swords or shields — its hallmark is the use of small sticks ( Tippani ).
Option (c) Solo dance with slow and graceful movements — Incorrect: Tippani dance is performed in groups, not as a solo dance; it is also characterized by energetic and rhythmic movements rather than slow and graceful ones; slow and graceful movements are more characteristic of classical dances like Odissi or Mohiniyattam .
Option (d) Use of handkerchief in circular motion — Incorrect: The use of handkerchiefs in circular/swirling motion is associated with folk dances from other regions, such as certain Rajasthani dances or some Garba variations; Tippani's defining characteristic is the rhythmic striking of wooden sticks ( Tippani ) on the ground, not handkerchiefs.

Correct Answer: Rajasthan — Option (b)
Kalbelia dance is the traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, performed by the Kalbelia community (also known as Sapera or snake charmers). Key facts about Kalbelia dance: Community: Performed by the Kalbelia people, a nomadic community traditionally known as snake charmers in Rajasthan; UNESCO Recognition: Kalbelia dance and songs were inscribed in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010; Costumes: Dancers wear distinctive black skirts with intricate embroidery and swirl in circular, hypnotic movements; The movements mimic the fluid, swaying motion of a serpent — reflecting the community's traditional association with snakes; Music: Accompanied by the 'pungi' (a wind instrument traditionally used to charm snakes), 'dholak' (drum), and ' khanjari ' (tambourine); Famous performer: Gulabo Sapera is perhaps the most internationally renowned Kalbelia dancer; she has performed across the world and received the Padma Bhushan in 2016; Regional identity: Kalbelia is one of the most iconic and internationally recognized dance forms of Rajasthan.
Option (a) Gujarat — Incorrect: While Gujarat has its own rich folk dance tradition (Garba, Dandiya Raas, Tippani ), Kalbelia is not a Gujarati dance — it belongs to the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan.
Option (c) Punjab — Incorrect: Punjab's folk dances include Bhangra (men) and Giddha (women); Kalbelia is not a Punjabi dance — it originates from the snake-charming Kalbelia community of Rajasthan.
Option (d) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Maharashtra's folk dances include Lavani, Tamasha, Koli, and Dhangari Gaja; Kalbelia is not a Maharashtrian dance — it is a UNESCO-recognized folk dance from the Kalbelia nomadic community of Rajasthan.

Correct Answer: Rabindranath Tagore — Option (c)
The novel 'Ghare-Baire' (The Home and the World) was written by Rabindranath Tagore, first published in Bengali in 1916. Key facts about the novel: The story is set during the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908), which was triggered by the Partition of Bengal (1905) by Viceroy Lord Curzon; The novel presents a nuanced and critical perspective on extreme nationalism and the Swadeshi Movement through the story of a liberal zamindar (Nikhilesh), his wife (Bimala), and a charismatic nationalist leader (Sandip); Tagore's concerns: While supportive of Indian independence, Tagore was critical of the extremist and potentially destructive aspects of radical nationalism; He felt that blind religious nationalism could be harmful — sentiments explored through the novel's moral conflicts; Film adaptation: The novel was famously adapted into a film by Satyajit Ray in 1984 (Ghare Baire); Tagore received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his collection 'Gitanjali', making him the first Asian Nobel laureate.
Option (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay — Incorrect: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was a 19th-century Bengali novelist best known for ' Anandamath ' (which contains 'Vande Mataram ') and ' Durgeshnandini '; he did not write 'Ghare-Baire' — Rabindranath Tagore did.
Option (b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay — Incorrect: Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay was a renowned Bengali novelist known for works like 'Devdas', 'Parineeta', and 'Srikanta'; he did not write 'Ghare-Baire' — that was written by Rabindranath Tagore.
Option (d) Bhavani Bhattacharya — Incorrect: Bhavani Bhattacharya was a 20th-century Indian novelist who wrote in English (works like 'So Many Hungers!' about the Bengal Famine of 1943); he did not write 'Ghare-Baire' — that was written by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali in 1916.

Correct Answer: Pondicherry — Option (c)
Pondicherry (Puducherry) is famous for its French Quarter (White Town/Ville Blanche), which displays a distinctive blend of French colonial and Indian architectural styles, often called Indo-French Colonial architecture. Key features of Pondicherry's French Quarter: The French Quarter is separated from the Tamil Quarter (Black Town/Ville Noire) by a canal; Wide, tree-lined boulevards with yellow-painted colonial buildings featuring large French windows, cast-iron railings, and terracotta tile roofs; French street names and signboards alongside Tamil ones; The architecture reflects Pondicherry's 280-year history as a French colonial territory (1674-1954 with interruptions); Famous landmarks: The French War Memorial, Alliance Française, French Consulate, and numerous colonial-era mansions; Sri Aurobindo Ashram (founded 1926) is also in the French Quarter; Pondicherry was transferred to India in 1954 and officially merged in 1962; It retains its unique bilingual (French-Tamil) character and is a Union Territory.
Option (a) Mumbai — Incorrect: Mumbai (formerly Bombay) was a British colonial city with Victorian Gothic and Art Deco architecture; while it has a colonial heritage, Mumbai is NOT famous for a French Quarter blending French and Indian styles — that is Pondicherry.
Option (b) Kolkata — Incorrect: Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) was the capital of British India and has impressive British colonial architecture (Victoria Memorial, Writers' Building, etc.); it is NOT famous for a French Quarter — the city famous for French colonial architecture is Pondicherry. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) Chennai — Incorrect: Chennai (formerly Madras) was a British colonial port city with British-era buildings; while Pondicherry (now Puducherry) is near Chennai, Chennai itself is not famous for a French Quarter — that distinction belongs to Pondicherry (Puducherry).

Correct Answer: 2012, London — Option (b)
Mary Kom won the bronze medal in boxing at the 2012 London Olympics. Key facts: Category: She competed in the flyweight category (51 kg); Significance: This was the FIRST time women's boxing was included as an Olympic sport; By reaching the semi-finals (and thus winning bronze), Mary Kom became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic boxing medal; Performance: She defeated several opponents before losing in the semi-finals to Nicola Adams of Great Britain (who went on to win gold); About Mary Kom: Full name — Mangte Chungneijang Mary Kom; Born in Manipur (1983); She has won the World Amateur Boxing Championship 8 times (making her the most decorated boxer in the tournament's history); She received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (now Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna) in 2003, Padma Bhushan in 2013, and Padma Vibhushan in 2020; A biopic 'Mary Kom' (2014) starred Priyanka Chopra Jonas in the lead role.
Option (a) 2008, Beijing — Incorrect: Women's boxing was not part of the 2008 Beijing Olympics; boxing for women was first included in the Olympics in 2012 (London); Mary Kom competed at the 2008 Olympics in Beijing but in a different context (boxing was not women's sport there).
Option (c) 2016, Rio de Janeiro — Incorrect: Mary Kom did not win a boxing medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics; she failed to qualify for Rio; her Olympic boxing bronze medal was won at the 2012 London Olympics. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) 2020, Tokyo — Incorrect: Mary Kom participated in the Tokyo 2020 Olympics (held in 2021) in the flyweight category but was eliminated in the pre-quarterfinals by Ingrit Valencia; she did not win a bronze medal at Tokyo — her Olympic boxing medal was from London 2012.

Correct Answer: 7 — Option (c)
India won 7 medals at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics (held from July 23 to August 8, 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic delay). India's 7 medals at Tokyo 2020: Gold (1): Neeraj Chopra — Men's Javelin Throw (Athletics) — First-ever Olympic gold in athletics for India; Silver (2): Mirabai Chanu — Women's 49 kg Weightlifting; Ravi Kumar Dahiya — Men's 57 kg Freestyle Wrestling; Bronze (4): PV Sindhu — Women's Badminton Singles; Lovlina Borgohain — Women's Welterweight Boxing (69 kg); Bajrang Punia — Men's 65 kg Freestyle Wrestling; Indian Men's Hockey Team — won bronze after a 41-year Olympic medal drought (last medal was gold in 1980). This was India's best-ever medal tally at a single Olympics, surpassing the previous record of 6 medals (at London 2012).
Option (a) 5 — Incorrect: India won 7 medals (not 5) at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics; India's 5-medal tally was at earlier Olympics like the 2016 Rio Olympics where India won 2 medals (which was actually a low point).
Option (b) 6 — Incorrect: India's previous best medal tally was 6 at the London 2012 Olympics; at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, India won 7 medals, which was a new record for India.
Option (d) 8 — Incorrect: India won 7 (not 8) medals at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics; 8 was not the medal tally — India's 7 included 1 gold, 2 silver, and 4 bronze medals.

Correct Answer: Rich biodiversity — Option (b)
The Western Ghats was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2012 primarily because of its exceptional and outstanding rich biodiversity. Key biodiversity facts of the Western Ghats: It is one of the world's eight 'hottest hotspots' of biological diversity; It is home to at least 325 globally threatened species of plants and animals; Endemic species: Over 5,000 species of flowering plants (1,700 endemic), 139 mammals (29 endemic), 508 birds (19 endemic), 179 amphibians (138 endemic), 290 freshwater fish (106 endemic); Threatened species: Includes the Indian Tiger, Asian Elephant, Gaur, Lion-tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Tahr, and various rare orchid and tree species; UNESCO inscription: 39 properties across six states (Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Goa, Gujarat) covering about 795,315 hectares were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2012 under 'Outstanding Universal Value' for biodiversity; The Western Ghats form a continuous mountain range of about 1,600 km along India's western coast, significantly influencing India's monsoon climate.
Option (a) Mineral resources — Incorrect: While the Western Ghats region does have some mineral resources, UNESCO World Heritage Site status was NOT granted for mineral resources; the inscription was specifically for the region's exceptional biodiversity and endemism.
Option (c) Ancient monuments — Incorrect: The UNESCO World Heritage Site designation for the Western Ghats is a Natural Heritage category (not Cultural Heritage); ancient monuments fall under cultural heritage; the Western Ghats inscription was for natural heritage — specifically its outstanding biodiversity.
Option (d) Cultural significance — Incorrect: While the Western Ghats region has significant cultural traditions associated with local communities, UNESCO designated the Western Ghats as a World Heritage Site for its outstanding natural value — specifically its rich biodiversity and endemic species, not cultural significance.

Correct Answer: Nathu La — Option (a)
Nathu La is the mountain pass that connects India to Tibet (China) through the state of Sikkim. Key facts about Nathu La: Location: Situated in the Sikkim Himalayas at an altitude of approximately 4,310 metres (14,140 feet) above sea level; Name meaning: ' Nathu ' means 'listening ears' and 'La' means 'pass' in Tibetan/Sikkimese; History: It was part of the ancient Silk Road trade route between India and Tibet; Nathu La was closed in 1962 following the Sino-Indian War and was reopened for trade in July 2006; Strategic importance: It is one of the three open border posts between India and China (along with Shipki La in Himachal Pradesh and Lipulekh Pass in Uttarakhand); The Tsomgo Lake and Baba Mandir (a military shrine) are nearby tourist attractions; Pilgrimage: Indian pilgrims use Nathu La en route to the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra via Sikkim.
Option (b) Rohtang Pass — Incorrect: Rohtang Pass (4,111 m) is located in Himachal Pradesh in the Pir Panjal range; it connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti valleys — it does NOT connect to Tibet through Sikkim.
Option (c) Shipki La — Incorrect: Shipki La is located in Himachal Pradesh and connects the Sutlej River valley (Kinnaur district) with Tibet; it does connect India to Tibet but through Himachal Pradesh, NOT through Sikkim.
Option (d) Zoji La — Incorrect: Zoji La (3,528 m) is located in Jammu & Kashmir, connecting Srinagar with Leh (Ladakh) along the Srinagar-Leh Highway; it does NOT connect to Tibet and is not in Sikkim.

Correct Answer: Mawsynram , Meghalaya — Option (b)
Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest annual rainfall in India and is also one of the wettest places on Earth. Key facts about Mawsynram : Location: Mawsynram is a village in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, located on the southern slopes of the Khasi Hills; Annual rainfall: Receives approximately 11,871 mm (about 467 inches) of rainfall annually on average; It has surpassed Cherrapunji ( Sohra ), also in Meghalaya, which was previously the record holder; Reason for extreme rainfall: The unique topography — the Meghalaya hills funnel the Bay of Bengal branch of the South-West Monsoon winds upward, causing orographic (relief) rainfall; The Khasi Hills act as a natural barrier, trapping moisture-laden winds from the Bay of Bengal; Mawsynram and nearby Cherrapunji both receive extremely high rainfall because they are perfectly positioned to intercept the monsoon winds.
Option (a) Kerala Coast — Incorrect: The Kerala coast receives very high rainfall (averaging around 3,000-4,000 mm annually) and is the first part of India to receive the South-West Monsoon (around June 1), but it is NOT the area of highest rainfall — that distinction belongs to Mawsynram , Meghalaya.
Option (c) Konkan Coast — Incorrect: The Konkan coast (Maharashtra and Goa) receives very high rainfall (2,000-4,000 mm) due to the Western Ghats causing orographic rainfall, but it does not receive as much as Mawsynram in Meghalaya, which gets over 11,000 mm annually.
Option (d) Western Rajasthan — Incorrect: Western Rajasthan (the Thar Desert region) is one of the driest parts of India, receiving very little rainfall (less than 250 mm annually); it is the exact opposite of the highest rainfall region — Mawsynram , Meghalaya.

Correct Answer: Extreme seasonal changes — Option (a)
Uranus's extreme axial tilt of approximately 98° causes extreme seasonal changes. Scientific explanation: Because of its 98° axial tilt, Uranus essentially rotates on its side; During Uranus's orbit around the Sun (which takes about 84 Earth years), each pole alternately faces the Sun for approximately 42 years: For 42 years, one pole is in continuous sunlight (perpetual summer/day) while the other is in complete darkness (perpetual winter/night); Then for the next 42 years, the poles reverse; The equatorial regions of Uranus receive relatively consistent (but less) sunlight, while the poles experience extreme temperature differences — this creates dramatically extreme seasons; Surface temperature: Despite receiving sunlight for 42 years, the poles do not warm significantly due to Uranus's faint solar heating (being far from the Sun); but the distribution of solar energy varies dramatically. The 98° tilt is believed to have resulted from a massive collision with a planet-sized object early in the solar system's history.
Option (b) No seasonal changes — Incorrect: Uranus's extreme axial tilt of 98° creates the most dramatic seasonal variations of any planet in our solar system; 'no seasonal changes' is the opposite of what actually happens — the extreme tilt creates extreme seasonal changes.
Option (c) Mild seasons — Incorrect: Mild seasons are characteristic of planets with relatively small axial tilts (like Earth's 23.5°, which creates our moderate seasons); Uranus's 98° tilt is the most extreme of any planet, creating extreme (not mild) seasons.
Option (d) Permanent day on one side — Incorrect: 'Permanent day on one side' describes a tidally locked body (like our Moon relative to Earth); Uranus is not tidally locked to the Sun — it rotates (albeit on its side), and its poles experience long periods of sunlight/darkness that alternate over its 84-year orbit. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: In 100 years — Option (b)
If a star 100 light-years away explodes right now, the light from the explosion will take 100 years to reach Earth. We would see the explosion in 100 years from now. Scientific explanation: A light-year is the distance light travels in one year (approximately 9.461 × 10^12 km); Light travels at approximately 3 × 10^8 meters per second — the fastest anything can travel in the universe; Since the star is 100 light-years away, the light from any event at the star (including an explosion/supernova) takes exactly 100 years to reach Earth; This means: The explosion happening 'right now' at the star — we won't know about it until 100 years have passed; Conversely, when we look at a star 100 light-years away, we are seeing it as it was 100 years ago; This concept applies to all cosmic observations — we are always seeing the 'past' when we look at stars; A supernova visible from Earth has already occurred the indicated light-years ago.
Option (a) Immediately — Incorrect: Light does not travel instantaneously — it has a finite speed of approximately 3 × 10^8 m/s. Since the star is 100 light-years away, the explosion's light will take 100 years to reach Earth, NOT immediately.
Option (c) In 1 year — Incorrect: If the star were 1 light-year away, the explosion's light would reach us in 1 year; since the star is 100 light-years away, it will take 100 years (not 1 year) for the light from the explosion to reach Earth. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Never — Incorrect: The light from the star's explosion will eventually reach Earth — it will just take 100 years; 'never' would only apply if some physical barrier prevented the light from reaching us, which is not the case here.

Correct Answer: Suniti Chaudhary — Option (a)
Suniti Chaudhary (also spelled Suniti Choudhuri) was a young revolutionary girl who, at the age of 14, participated in the assassination of a British magistrate during India's freedom struggle. Key facts: On December 14, 1931, Suniti Chaudhary and her companion Shanti Ghosh shot dead Charles Geoffrey Buckman Stevens, the District Magistrate of Comilla (in present-day Bangladesh), in Tripura; Both were students of Cumilla Binode Bihari Hindu Girls' School; The act was carried out as part of the revolutionary activities of the Jugantar revolutionary organization in Bengal; After the assassination, both girls were arrested and sentenced to transportation for life to the Andaman Cellular Jail (the Kala Pani); However, they were released following the amnesty of 1939; Suniti Chaudhary's act of courage at such a young age made her a celebrated symbol of youth revolutionary spirit in India's freedom struggle.
Option (b) Tara Rani Srivastava — Incorrect: Tara Rani Srivastava was a freedom fighter from Bihar who participated in the Quit India Movement (1942); she was shot by British police while leading a procession but continued to wave the national flag; she did not kill a British magistrate at age 14.
Option (c) Matangini Hazra — Incorrect: Matangini Hazra (nicknamed 'Gandhi Buri' — Old Gandhi) was a 73-year-old revolutionary from Bengal who was shot dead by police while leading the Quit India Movement procession in Tamluk in 1942; she was not a young revolutionary who killed a British magistrate.
Option (d) Aruna Asaf Ali — Incorrect: Aruna Asaf Ali was a prominent freedom fighter famous for hoisting the Indian National Congress flag at Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai during the Quit India Movement (August 9, 1942); she did not kill a British magistrate at age 14 — the revolutionary who did was Suniti Chaudhary. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Begum Hazrat Mahal — Option (b)
Begum Hazrat Mahal was the key leader who took an active and leading part in promoting and leading the Revolt of 1857 in Lucknow. Key facts about Begum Hazrat Mahal and the 1857 Revolt: Identity: She was a wife of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Awadh (Oudh), who had been exiled by the British in 1856 when Awadh was annexed; Leadership: When the Revolt of 1857 broke out in May 1857, Begum Hazrat Mahal rallied troops, zamindars, and the common people against the British; She declared her minor son, Birjis Qadr, as the Nawab of Awadh and became his regent; She coordinated the armed resistance in Lucknow during the famous Siege of Lucknow (1857-58); After the British recaptured Lucknow in March 1858, she continued guerrilla resistance; She refused a pardon offered by the British and eventually went into exile in Nepal, where she died in 1879; Legacy: A park in Lucknow (Hazrat Mahal Park) is named in her honour .
Option (a) Nana Saheb — Incorrect: Nana Saheb ( Dhondu Pant) was the leader of the 1857 Revolt in Kanpur (Cawnpore), not Lucknow; he was the adopted son of the last Peshwa, Baji Rao II; he is associated with the Kanpur massacre, not the Lucknow uprising. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Rani Laxmibai — Incorrect: Rani Laxmibai (the 'Rani of Jhansi') was the iconic leader of the 1857 Revolt in Jhansi (Madhya Pradesh/Uttar Pradesh border region), not Lucknow; she is famous for dying in battle at Gwalior in June 1858.
Option (d) Bahadur Shah Zafar — Incorrect: Bahadur Shah Zafar (the last Mughal emperor) was the symbolic leader of the 1857 Revolt in Delhi, not Lucknow; he was captured after Delhi fell to the British in September 1857 and exiled to Rangoon (Yangon), where he died in 1862.

Correct Answer: September 1857 — Option (b)
The British recaptured Delhi from the rebels in September 1857. Timeline of the Delhi Siege during the 1857 Revolt: May 1857: The revolt began at Meerut on May 10, 1857; the rebel sepoys marched to Delhi and on May 11-12, they captured Delhi and proclaimed Bahadur Shah Zafar (the last Mughal emperor) as the Emperor of India; June-August 1857: British forces arrived at Delhi Ridge and besieged the city; The British forces were commanded by General Archdale Wilson; General John Nicholson (who was fatally wounded during the assault) led the final attack; September 14-21, 1857: The British launched the final assault on Delhi — this is known as the Assault and Capture of Delhi; On September 14, 1857, the British breached the walls; By September 20, 1857, the British had seized control of Delhi; Bahadur Shah Zafar was captured at the Humayun's Tomb on September 20, 1857, by Lt. William Hodson; He was subsequently tried and exiled to Rangoon in November 1858.
Option (a) June 1857 — Incorrect: In June 1857, the British forces were still besieging Delhi from the Delhi Ridge; the actual recapture of Delhi happened in September 1857 after months of siege and fighting.
Option (c) January 1858 — Incorrect: By January 1858, Delhi had already been recaptured (in September 1857); in January 1858, British forces were fighting in other areas like Lucknow, which was finally recaptured in March 1858. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) March 1858 — Incorrect: March 1858 was when the British finally recaptured Lucknow (not Delhi); Lucknow was the last major centre of the 1857 Revolt to be recovered; Delhi was recaptured earlier, in September 1857.

Correct Answer: Connective tissue — Option (b)
Bone is classified as a type of connective tissue. The four main types of animal tissues and their subtypes: Epithelial tissue — covers body surfaces, lines organs and cavities (e.g., skin epidermis, intestinal lining); Connective tissue — connects, supports, and binds other tissues; includes: Loose connective tissue (areolar, adipose), Dense connective tissue (tendons, ligaments), Skeletal connective tissue: Bone (osseous tissue) and Cartilage, Fluid connective tissue: Blood and Lymph; Muscular tissue — responsible for movement (skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle); Nervous tissue — transmits electrical signals (neurons and glial cells). Why bone is connective tissue: Bone has a matrix (extracellular material) consisting of organic components (collagen fibres ) and inorganic components (calcium phosphate/hydroxyapatite); Living bone cells (osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts) are embedded in this hardened matrix; The matrix makes bone the hardest connective tissue — it connects and supports the body's structure.
Option (a) Muscular tissue — Incorrect: Muscular (muscle) tissue is specialized for contraction and movement and consists of muscle fibres /cells; bone is not muscular tissue — it belongs to the connective tissue category.
Option (c) Nervous tissue — Incorrect: Nervous tissue is specialized for transmitting electrical impulses and consists of neurons and supportive glial cells; bone does not transmit nerve signals and is not nervous tissue — it is a connective tissue. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (d) Epithelial tissue — Incorrect: Epithelial tissue covers surfaces and lines cavities, characterized by closely packed cells with minimal extracellular matrix; bone has an extensive extracellular matrix (hardened with calcium salts) and is classified as connective tissue, not epithelial tissue.

Correct Answer: Photosynthesis — Option (d)
The primary function of chloroplasts is photosynthesis — the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy (food). The photosynthesis equation: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Light Energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ (glucose) + 6O₂. Structure of chloroplasts supporting photosynthesis: Thylakoids: Flattened membrane sacs containing chlorophyll and other photosynthetic pigments; the light-dependent reactions occur here; Grana: Stacks of thylakoids; Stroma: The fluid-filled space surrounding the thylakoids where the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions/dark reactions) occur; Outer and inner membranes: Regulate material transport. Two stages of photosynthesis: Light reactions (occur in thylakoids): Light energy is converted to ATP and NADPH; Calvin cycle/Dark reactions (occur in stroma): CO₂ is fixed into organic molecules (glucose) using ATP and NADPH. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll (which gives plants their green color) that absorbs sunlight to drive photosynthesis.
Option (a) Storage of starch — Incorrect: While chloroplasts can temporarily store starch (made during photosynthesis) as starch grains, this is a secondary function; the PRIMARY function of chloroplasts is photosynthesis (converting light energy to chemical energy).
Option (b) Protein synthesis — Incorrect: Ribosomes in the chloroplast (70S ribosomes) do synthesize some proteins, but protein synthesis is not the PRIMARY function of chloroplasts; the primary function is photosynthesis.
Option (c) Energy production like mitochondria — Incorrect: Mitochondria produce energy (ATP) through cellular respiration (oxidizing glucose); chloroplasts CAPTURE light energy and STORE it as glucose through photosynthesis — they are not analogous to mitochondria in function.

Correct Answer: 2 crore — Option (a)
In June 2024, the Union Cabinet approved the construction of 2 crore (20 million) additional houses under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) for the period 2024-25 to 2028-29. Key facts about PMAY-G: Full name: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana- Gramin (Prime Minister's Rural Housing Scheme); Launch: PMAY-G was launched on November 20, 2016, replacing the earlier Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY); Objective: To provide pucca (permanent) houses to all rural households living in temporary/kutcha houses; Financial support: Under PMAY-G, financial assistance of Rs. 1.20 lakh per house is provided in plain areas and Rs. 1.30 lakh in hilly and difficult areas; The June 2024 Cabinet decision approved 2 crore additional houses under PMAY-G Phase 2 (2024-29); Progress: Under PMAY-G Phase 1, approximately 2.94 crore houses were built for the rural poor; The expanded scheme continues the government's commitment to 'Housing for All' as part of the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.
Option (b) 3 — Incorrect: The Union Cabinet in June 2024 approved 2 crore (not 3 crore) additional houses under PMAY-G for the 2024-25 to 2028-29 period.
Option (c) 4 — Incorrect: The Cabinet approval was for 2 crore additional houses (not 4 crore) under PMAY-G for the period 2024-25 to 2028-29.
Option (d) 5 — Incorrect: The Union Cabinet approved 2 crore additional PMAY-G houses (not 5 crore) in June 2024 for the five-year period from 2024-25 to 2028-29.

Correct Answer: 33% — Option (a)
According to the SIPRI (Stockholm International Peace Research Institute) Arms Transfers Report published in March 2025, Asian and Oceanian countries accounted for 33% of total global arms imports during the period 2020-24. Key findings from the SIPRI March 2025 Arms Transfers Report: Asia and Oceania together remained the largest arms-importing region globally, accounting for 33% of total global arms transfers during 2020-24; The major arms importers in Asia and Oceania include India (the world's largest arms importer for many years), Australia, China, South Korea, Japan, and Pakistan; The influx of arms to Ukraine (following Russia's full-scale invasion in February 2022) made Ukraine the largest single-country importer, but Asia and Oceania as a region retained the largest collective share; The SIPRI report highlighted shifting geopolitical dynamics, with Japan and South Korea significantly increasing their arms imports in response to regional security concerns; India has been working to reduce its arms import dependence through its ' Atmanirbhar Bharat' (Self-Reliant India) initiative in defence production.
Option (b) 50% — Incorrect: Asia and Oceania's share in global arms imports in 2020-24 was 33%, not 50%; while the region is the largest arms-importing region, it does not account for half of global arms imports. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) 74% — Incorrect: 74% significantly overstates Asia and Oceania's share in global arms imports for 2020-24; the correct figure from the SIPRI March 2025 report is 33%.
Option (d) 81% — Incorrect: 81% would mean Asia and Oceania account for more than four-fifths of all global arms imports, which is far higher than the actual 33% reported by SIPRI for 2020-24; this option greatly overstates the regional share.