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SSC MTS 2025 18 February 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC MTS 2025 on 18 February 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Medieval History, Biology, Ancient History, Static GK, Geography.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 18 February 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Economics (4) · Medieval History (2) · Biology (2) · Ancient History (1) · Static GK (9) · Geography (2) · Physics (3) · Chemistry (1) · Modern History (1)

Economics (4)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q1. Which five year plan of India came after the annual plans between 1966-1969?

  1. (a) Second
  2. (b) Fourth
  3. (c) Sixth
  4. (d) Seventh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fourth

The correct answer is option 2.
After the Third Five Year Plan (1961–66), India faced severe economic difficulties — the Indo-China war (1962), Indo-Pak war (1965), drought, and food crisis — which made comprehensive planning difficult. India implemented Three Annual Plans from 1966 to 1969. After these annual plans, the Fourth Five Year Plan (1969–1974) commenced under Indira Gandhi's government.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Second Five Year Plan (1956–61) came before the Third Plan, not after the Annual Plans.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Sixth Five Year Plan (1980–85) came much later.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Seventh Five Year Plan (1985–90) came even later.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q2. Which of the following was a major issue at the beginning of the first five year plan of India?
I. Influx of refugees
II. Severe food shortage

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

The correct answer is option 3.
At the beginning of India's First Five Year Plan (1951–56), the country was dealing with two major crises simultaneously:
I. Influx of refugees — millions of refugees had crossed over from Pakistan following Partition (1947), creating a massive humanitarian and economic burden.
II. Severe food shortage — India was dependent on food imports and faced acute shortage of food grains.
Both issues were central challenges that the First Five Year Plan sought to address, with a major focus on agriculture.
Option 1 is incorrect: While refugee influx was a real problem, food shortage was equally a major issue.
Option 2 is incorrect: While food shortage was real, refugee influx was also a significant crisis.
Option 4 is incorrect: Both issues were very much present at the beginning of the First Five Year Plan.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q3. When the fruit or vegetable vendors sell the farm produce to household consumers, this type of economic activity is included in _____ sector of the economy.

  1. (a) Primary
  2. (b) Secondary
  3. (c) Tertiary
  4. (d) Quinary
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tertiary

The correct answer is option 3.
The Tertiary sector (also called the Service sector) includes all economic activities that involve providing services rather than producing goods. When vendors sell farm produce to household consumers, they are performing a distribution/trading service — connecting producers to consumers. This activity of trade and retail falls under the Tertiary sector.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Primary sector involves direct extraction/production from nature — farming, fishing, mining, etc. The vendors do not grow the produce; they sell it.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Secondary sector involves manufacturing and processing of raw materials into finished goods. Selling fruits and vegetables as-is is not manufacturing.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Quinary sector refers to the highest level of decision-making activities — government, research, top executives — not retail trade.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign exchange reserves and exchange rates

Q4. Which of the following Institution is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserve in India?

  1. (a) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
  2. (b) Ministry of Finance
  3. (c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  4. (d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Reserve Bank of India

The correct answer is option 4.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the custodian and manager of India's foreign exchange reserves. As India's central bank, the RBI manages the reserves under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) with the objective of ensuring external stability of the rupee and maintaining adequate liquidity for import payments.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Foreign Affairs (Ministry of External Affairs) deals with India's diplomatic relations, not financial reserves management.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of Finance deals with economic policy, budget, and fiscal management but does not directly hold or manage foreign exchange reserves.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Ministry of Corporate Affairs regulates companies and corporate governance; it has no role in managing foreign exchange reserves.

Medieval History (2)

Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Other religious movements (Virashaiva, etc.)

Q5. What is the name of the devotional philosophy promoted by Shankardeva ?

  1. (a) Dvaita Vedanta
  2. (b) Advaita Vedanta
  3. (c) Achintya Bheda Abheda
  4. (d) Eka Sarana Nama Dharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Eka Sarana Nama Dharma

The correct answer is option 4.
Shankardeva (1449–1568) was a great Vaishnava saint-reformer from Assam. He founded the devotional philosophy called Eka Sarana Nama Dharma (also known as Neo-Vaishnavism or Mahapuruxiya Dharma). This philosophy emphasises devotion to one God (Vishnu/Krishna), singing of God's name (Naam), and equality among devotees irrespective of caste or social status.
Option 1 is incorrect: Dvaita Vedanta (dualism) was propounded by Madhvacharya , not Shankardeva .
Option 2 is incorrect: Advaita Vedanta (non-dualism) was propounded by Adi Shankaracharya.
Option 3 is incorrect: Achintya Bheda Abheda was the philosophy of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu of Bengal.
Later Mughals and Regional Powers · Sikh power and Ranjit Singh

Q6. In which of the following years Maharaja Ranjit Singh died?

  1. (a) 1839
  2. (b) 1842
  3. (c) 1845
  4. (d) 1851
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1839

The correct answer is option 1.
Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the founder and ruler of the Sikh Empire, died on June 27, 1839. His death marked the beginning of the decline of the Sikh Empire, as conflicts and instability followed, eventually leading to its annexation by the British after the Anglo-Sikh Wars.
Option 2 is incorrect: 1842 was after Ranjit Singh's death; it was a period of instability in the Sikh Empire.
Option 3 is incorrect: 1845 was the year the First Anglo-Sikh War began, six years after Ranjit Singh's death.
Option 4 is incorrect: 1851 was long after Ranjit Singh's death and after the Sikh Empire had already been annexed by the British (1849).

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Human digestive system - organs

Q7. What role do teeth play in the digestion of food?

  1. (a) They secrete enzymes
  2. (b) They crush and grind the food into smaller particles
  3. (c) They produce saliva
  4. (d) They absorb nutrients from the food
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They crush and grind the food into smaller particles

The correct answer is option 2.
Teeth play the role of mechanical digestion — they crush and grind food into smaller particles, increasing the surface area available for chemical digestion by enzymes. This process is called mastication (chewing) and takes place in the mouth.
Option 1 is incorrect: Enzymes are secreted by glands (salivary glands, pancreas, stomach lining, etc.), not by teeth.
Option 3 is incorrect: Saliva is produced by the salivary glands (parotid, submandibular, sublingual), not by teeth.
Option 4 is incorrect: Absorption of nutrients takes place in the small intestine, not by teeth.

Q8. Breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the _____ in a cell.

  1. (a) cytoplasm
  2. (b) lysosome
  3. (c) mitochondria
  4. (d) cell membrane
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) mitochondria

The correct answer is option 3.
After glycolysis (which occurs in the cytoplasm and produces pyruvate), the pyruvate is transported into the mitochondria. Here, in the presence of oxygen, it undergoes aerobic respiration — it is completely broken down into carbon dioxide and water, releasing a large amount of energy (ATP). This is why mitochondria are called the 'powerhouse of the cell'.
Option 1 is incorrect: The cytoplasm is the site of glycolysis (breakdown of glucose to pyruvate), not the aerobic breakdown of pyruvate.
Option 2 is incorrect: Lysosomes are the digestive organelles of the cell responsible for breaking down waste and foreign material, not for aerobic respiration.
Option 4 is incorrect: The cell membrane controls passage of substances in and out of the cell; it is not involved in energy production.

Ancient History (1)

Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q9. In which Veda is river Sarasvati mentioned for the first time?

  1. (a) Sam Veda
  2. (b) Yajur Veda
  3. (c) Atharva Veda
  4. (d) Rig Veda
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rig Veda

The correct answer is option 4.
The Rig Veda, the oldest of the four Vedas, mentions the Sarasvati river extensively — approximately 72 times. The Sarasvati is described as a mighty river, flowing from the mountains to the sea. It was a sacred and revered river in Vedic culture.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Sam Veda is largely a collection of melodies and chants derived from the Rig Veda; it does not mention Sarasvati first.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Yajur Veda deals with ritual worship procedures and was composed later.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Atharva Veda is the last of the four Vedas; it does not contain the first mention of the Sarasvati.

Static GK (9)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q10. ' Khupielilie ' is a folk dance of which of the following Indian state?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagaland

The correct answer is option 3.
Khupielilie (also written as Khupielili) is a traditional folk dance of Nagaland, performed by the Ao Naga tribe. It is a community dance that reflects the tribal culture, traditions, and way of life of the Naga people.
Option 1 is incorrect: Karnataka's major folk dances include Yakshagana , Dollu Kunitha, and Suggi Kunitha.
Option 2 is incorrect: Kerala is known for classical dance forms like Kathakali, Mohiniyattam , and folk forms like Thiruvathirakali .
Option 4 is incorrect: Himachal Pradesh is known for folk dances like Nati, Chhapeli , and Kullu Nati.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q11. The 'Lava' dance, performed only by males, is a popular folk dance of which Indian union territory?

  1. (a) Chandigarh
  2. (b) Ladakh
  3. (c) Lakshadweep
  4. (d) Andaman and Nicobar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lakshadweep

The correct answer is option 3.
The 'Lava' dance is a traditional folk dance of Lakshadweep. It is performed exclusively by males and is one of the important cultural dances of the Union Territory, reflecting the island's unique cultural heritage.
Option 1 is incorrect: Chandigarh, being a planned city, does not have Lava as its traditional folk dance.
Option 2 is incorrect: Ladakh is known for Cham (mask dance) and Shondol dance, not Lava.
Option 4 is incorrect: Andaman and Nicobar Islands have their own tribal and folk dance traditions, but Lava is not among them.

Q12. 'Madai festival' is celebrated in which of the following Indian state?

  1. (a) Haryana
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Chhattisgarh
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh

The correct answer is option 3.
Madai festival is a traditional tribal fair celebrated in Chhattisgarh. It is organised by tribal communities (especially Gondi people) as an agricultural and religious festival to worship local deities. The festival involves fairs, cultural programs, and community worship.
Option 1 is incorrect: Haryana's major festivals include Baisakhi and Gugga Navami; Madai is not associated with Haryana.
Option 2 is incorrect: Goa is known for Carnival and Shigmo festivals, not Madai.
Option 4 is incorrect: Gujarat's major festivals include Navratri and Uttarayan ; Madai is specifically a Chhattisgarh tribal festival.

Q13. Which festival is a major religious celebration of the Jaintia community in Meghalaya?

  1. (a) Kang
  2. (b) Bumchu
  3. (c) Chaitrual
  4. (d) Behdienkhlam
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Behdienkhlam

The correct answer is option 4.
Behdienkhlam is the most important festival of the Jaintia ( Pnar ) community in Meghalaya, celebrated in the month of July. The festival involves rituals to drive away plague and disease, and to pray for a good harvest. It includes elaborate processions with decorated structures and music.
Option 1 is incorrect: Kang is a festival associated with the Manipuri community, not the Jaintia community of Meghalaya.
Option 2 is incorrect: Bumchu is a Buddhist festival celebrated in Sikkim.
Option 3 is incorrect: Chaitrual is not a significant festival specifically associated with the Jaintia community of Meghalaya.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q14. Which of the following space mission of India was credited for reviving interest about presence of water on Moon?

  1. (a) Chandrayaan -I
  2. (b) Chandrayaan -II
  3. (c) Chandrayaan -III
  4. (d) Aditya L-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chandrayaan -I

The correct answer is option 1.
Chandrayaan -I (2008) was India's first lunar mission. Its Moon Impact Probe (MIP) and NASA's Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3) instrument on board detected water molecules (hydroxyl and water ice) in the polar regions of the Moon. This discovery revived global scientific interest in the presence of water on the Moon and was considered a landmark finding.
Option 2 is incorrect: Chandrayaan -II (2019) was the follow-up mission; though it advanced lunar exploration, the groundbreaking water discovery was credited to Chandrayaan -I.
Option 3 is incorrect: Chandrayaan -III (2023) successfully landed on the Moon's south pole but came after the water discovery was already established by Chandrayaan -I.
Option 4 is incorrect: Aditya L-1 is India's solar observation mission launched in 2023 to study the Sun; it has no connection to Moon water discovery.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q15. In the context of ' Rasiya ' folk songs of Uttar Pradesh, what does the word ' bumb ' refer to?

  1. (a) Mini guitars
  2. (b) Soft flutes
  3. (c) Heavy cymbals
  4. (d) Large drums
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Large drums

The correct answer is option 4.
Rasiya is a popular folk music tradition of the Braj region of Uttar Pradesh, associated with the devotional songs of Radha and Krishna. In this context, ' bumb ' refers to large drums ( dhol -type percussion instruments) that provide the rhythmic foundation for the Rasiya performance.
Option 1 is incorrect: Mini guitars are not a part of traditional Rasiya folk music instruments.
Option 2 is incorrect: Soft flutes (bansuri) are associated with Krishna's music but the word ' bumb ' specifically refers to drums.
Option 3 is incorrect: Heavy cymbals are different percussion instruments; ' bumb ' specifically refers to large drums.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q16. Which among the following is a book authored by Amitav Ghosh?

  1. (a) War Talk
  2. (b) Selection Day
  3. (c) Gun Island
  4. (d) Midnight's Children
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gun Island

The correct answer is option 3.
Gun Island (2019) is a novel written by Amitav Ghosh. It explores themes of climate change, migration, and mythology. Amitav Ghosh is the celebrated author of 'The Shadow Lines', 'The Hungry Tide', 'The Glass Palace', and the Ibis Trilogy (Sea of Poppies, River of Smoke, Flood of Fire).
Option 1 is incorrect: 'War Talk' is a book by Noam Chomsky, not Amitav Ghosh.
Option 2 is incorrect: 'Selection Day' is a novel by Aravind Adiga (author of 'The White Tiger'), not Amitav Ghosh.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Midnight's Children' is the celebrated novel by Salman Rushdie, not Amitav Ghosh.
Monuments and Heritage · UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India

Q17. Which of the following is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

  1. (a) Kamakhya Temple
  2. (b) Meenakshi Temple
  3. (c) Kashi Vishwanath Temple
  4. (d) Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple

The correct answer is option 4.
Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple (in Tamil Nadu) is part of the 'Great Living Chola Temples', which were designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2004. This grouping includes the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram , and the Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram .
Option 1 is incorrect: Kamakhya Temple in Assam is a famous shakti peetha but is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Option 2 is incorrect: Meenakshi Temple in Madurai is a magnificent temple but it is not currently a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Option 3 is incorrect: Kashi Vishwanath Temple in Varanasi is one of the holiest temples in Hinduism but is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Indian Railways · Railway stations and records

Q18. The Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus is located in which of the following city?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Ahmadabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mumbai

The correct answer is option 1.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus (CSMT), formerly known as Victoria Terminus (VT), is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra. It is a historic railway station and a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It was designed by Frederick William Stevens and completed in 1888 in the Victorian Gothic Revival style mixed with traditional Indian architecture.
Option 2 is incorrect: Kolkata's major railway terminal is Howrah Station.
Option 3 is incorrect: Delhi's major railway stations are New Delhi Railway Station and Old Delhi Railway Station.
Option 4 is incorrect: Ahmedabad's major railway station is Ahmedabad Junction.

Geography (2)

Q19. The Namdapha National Park is in _____.

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh

The correct answer is option 2.
Namdapha National Park is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is one of the largest protected areas in the Eastern Himalayas and a biodiversity hotspot. It is notable for being the only park in the world to have four big cat species — tiger, leopard, clouded leopard, and snow leopard.
Option 1 is incorrect: Assam has notable national parks like Kaziranga and Manas, but not Namdapha .
Option 3 is incorrect: Karnataka's major national parks include Bandipur and Nagarhole .
Option 4 is incorrect: Kerala's major national parks include Periyar and Silent Valley.

Q20. The Tuticorin port is in _____.

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Goa
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is option 1.
Tuticorin (officially known as Thoothukudi ) is a major port city located in Tamil Nadu. The V.O. Chidambaranar Port at Thoothukudi is one of India's major ports, serving as an important centre for international trade, especially in salt, fish, and pearl exports. It is also known for its pearl fishing industry.
Option 2 is incorrect: Kerala's major port is Kochi (Cochin) Port; Tuticorin is in Tamil Nadu.
Option 3 is incorrect: Goa's major port is Mormugao Port; Tuticorin is in Tamil Nadu.
Option 4 is incorrect: Maharashtra's major port is Mumbai Port; Tuticorin is in Tamil Nadu.

Physics (3)

Gravitation · Satellites, orbital velocity and escape velocity

Q21. A geo-stationary satellite completes one revolution around the Earth in approximately _____ hours.

  1. (a) 6
  2. (b) 12
  3. (c) 24
  4. (d) 48
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 24

The correct answer is option 3.
A geostationary satellite orbits the Earth at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km above the equator and completes one revolution in exactly 24 hours — the same time it takes Earth to complete one rotation. This makes the satellite appear stationary relative to a point on Earth's surface, which is why it is used for communication, weather monitoring, and broadcasting.
Option 1 is incorrect: 6 hours is too short a period for a geostationary orbit; this would correspond to a much lower orbit.
Option 2 is incorrect: A 12-hour orbit corresponds to medium Earth orbit satellites like GPS satellites, not geostationary satellites.
Option 4 is incorrect: A 48-hour orbit would require a much higher altitude than that of geostationary satellites.
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's first law and inertia

Q22. What is the first law of motion also known as?

  1. (a) Law of acceleration
  2. (b) Law of action and reaction
  3. (c) Law of momentum
  4. (d) Law of inertia
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Law of inertia

The correct answer is option 4.
Newton's First Law of Motion states that an object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion at constant velocity, unless acted upon by an external force. This property of matter — its tendency to resist changes in its state of motion — is called inertia. Hence, Newton's First Law is also known as the Law of Inertia.
Option 1 is incorrect: Law of acceleration refers to Newton's Second Law (F = ma), which describes how force causes acceleration.
Option 2 is incorrect: Law of action and reaction refers to Newton's Third Law — for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Option 3 is incorrect: Law of momentum is associated with Newton's Second Law (force equals rate of change of momentum); it is not the name of the First Law.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Solenoid and electromagnet

Q23. Which of the following is a correct use of electromagnets?
I. In separating magnetic material from junk
II. In sharpening pencils

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

The correct answer is option 1.
Electromagnets are used in separating magnetic material (like iron and steel scraps) from junk in scrap yards. Large industrial electromagnets can pick up and move heavy metallic scrap, making them very useful in recycling and waste management industries. This is a well-known practical application of electromagnets.
Statement II is incorrect: Sharpening pencils involves a purely mechanical cutting action and has absolutely no connection to electromagnets or magnetism.
Option 2 is incorrect: 'Only II' would mean only pencil sharpening uses electromagnets, which is completely wrong.
Option 3 is incorrect: 'Both I and II' would include sharpening pencils, which is not a use of electromagnets.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Neither I nor II' would deny that electromagnets separate magnetic material from junk, which is a well-established fact.

Chemistry (1)

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q24. What is the amount of solute present in a given amount of solution known as?

  1. (a) Dilution
  2. (b) Saturation
  3. (c) Concentration
  4. (d) Diffusion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Concentration

The correct answer is option 3.
Concentration is defined as the amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solution (or solvent). It can be expressed in various ways such as mass per volume, moles per litre (molarity), etc. A higher concentration means more solute is present in the solution.
Option 1 is incorrect: Dilution is the process of reducing the concentration of a solution by adding more solvent; it is a process, not a measure of solute amount.
Option 2 is incorrect: Saturation refers to the state when no more solute can be dissolved in a given solvent at a particular temperature; it is a condition, not a measurement of solute amount.
Option 4 is incorrect: Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration; it is a physical process, not a measure of solute amount.

Modern History (1)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q25. Who wrote the book 'Unhappy India' as a reply to the biased views of journalist Katherine Mayo?

  1. (a) Lala Lajpat Rai
  2. (b) Rajendra Prasad
  3. (c) Bipin Chandra Pal
  4. (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lala Lajpat Rai

The correct answer is option 1.
Lala Lajpat Rai wrote 'Unhappy India' (1928) as a direct response to Katherine Mayo's controversial book 'Mother India' (1927). Mayo's book portrayed India in a deeply negative and biased light, criticising Indian society and culture. Lala Lajpat Rai countered her views by highlighting colonial exploitation and defending India's civilisational achievements.
Option 2 is incorrect: Rajendra Prasad, who became India's first President, wrote 'India Divided' and 'Autobiography'; he did not write 'Unhappy India'.
Option 3 is incorrect: Bipin Chandra Pal was a prominent freedom fighter and journalist, but he did not write 'Unhappy India'.
Option 4 is incorrect: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a great nationalist leader; he died in 1920, before Katherine Mayo's book was published in 1927.
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