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SSC Selection Post 2025 2 August 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 23 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Selection Post 2025 on 2 August 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Static GK, Geography, Chemistry, Economics, Medieval History.

📚 23 questions🗓️ 2 August 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (1) · Static GK (4) · Geography (7) · Chemistry (1) · Economics (5) · Medieval History (2) · Polity (2) · Biology (1)

Current Affairs (1)

Awards and Honours - Current · Foreign honours to Indian leaders

Q1. Which Indian leader received France's highest civilian award, the Legion of Honour, in 2023?

  1. (a) Narendra Modi
  2. (b) S. Jaishankar
  3. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
  4. (d) Nirmala Sitharaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Narendra Modi

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Narendra Modi
Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded France's highest civilian honour, the Grand Cross of the Legion of Honour, by French President Emmanuel Macron in July 2023 during his state visit to France.
Option 2 (S. Jaishankar): India's External Affairs Minister; not awarded the Legion of Honour in 2023.
Option 3 (Dr. Manmohan Singh): Former PM; was awarded the Legion of Honour earlier in 2008.
Option 4 (Nirmala Sitharaman): Finance Minister; not awarded the Legion of Honour in 2023.

Static GK (4)

Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q2. Which QUAD country is the largest democracy in the world?

  1. (a) USA
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) Japan
  4. (d) Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India

Correct Answer: Option 2 – India
India is the world's largest democracy by population. With over 1.4 billion people and more than 900 million registered voters, India holds the largest democratic elections in the world. Among the four QUAD nations (USA, India, Japan, Australia), India has the largest population.
Option 1 (USA): The USA is a major democracy but has a smaller population (~330 million) than India.
Option 3 (Japan): Population of ~125 million; smaller democracy than India.
Option 4 (Australia): Population of ~26 million; much smaller democracy.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q3. Which metal is primarily used to make Olympic gold medals?

  1. (a) Gold
  2. (b) Silver
  3. (c) Bronze
  4. (d) Copper
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Silver

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Silver
Olympic gold medals are primarily made of silver (at least 92.5% pure silver) coated with a minimum of 6 grams of gold plating. They have been made this way since the 1912 Stockholm Olympics. Pure solid gold medals were last awarded at the 1912 Games.
Option 1 (Gold): Pure gold medals are not used; gold medals contain only a gold coating over silver.
Option 3 (Bronze): Bronze (copper-tin alloy) is used for the third-place medal.
Option 4 (Copper): Used in bronze medals; not in gold medals.
Sports · Sports and famous players

Q4. Which of the following sportspersons has been a nominated Rajya Sabha member since 2022?

  1. (a) PT Usha
  2. (b) Mary Kom
  3. (c) Abhinav Bindra
  4. (d) Sachin Tendulkar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) PT Usha

Correct Answer: Option 1 – PT Usha
P.T. Usha (Pilavullakandi Thekkeparambil Usha), the legendary Indian sprinter known as the 'Payyoli Express' and 'Queen of Indian Track and Field,' was nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President in July 2022. She was subsequently elected as the President of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) in December 2022.
Option 2 (Mary Kom): Was nominated to the Rajya Sabha in 2016; her term ended in 2022 before PT Usha's nomination.
Option 3 (Abhinav Bindra): India's first individual Olympic gold medallist; not a Rajya Sabha member.
Option 4 (Sachin Tendulkar): Was nominated to Rajya Sabha in 2012; his term ended in 2018.

Q5. The festival of Navratri is associated with the worship of:

  1. (a) Lord Shiva
  2. (b) Lord Vishnu
  3. (c) Goddess Durga
  4. (d) Lord Krishna
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Goddess Durga

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Goddess Durga
Navratri (meaning 'nine nights') is a Hindu festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Durga and her nine forms (Navadurga): Shailputri, Brahmacharini, Chandraghanta, Kushmanda, Skandamata, Katyayani, Kalaratri, Mahagauri, and Siddhidatri. It is one of the most widely celebrated Hindu festivals across India.
Option 1 (Lord Shiva): Worshipped during Mahashivratri, Shravan month, etc.
Option 2 (Lord Vishnu): Worshipped during Vaikuntha Ekadashi, Diwali (as Lakshmi-Vishnu), etc.
Option 4 (Lord Krishna): Worshipped during Janmashtami.

Geography (7)

Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Water cycle and groundwater

Q6. What is the primary source of energy driving the water cycle on Earth?

  1. (a) Geothermal energy
  2. (b) Solar energy
  3. (c) Wind energy
  4. (d) Ocean tides
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Solar energy

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Solar energy
The water cycle (hydrological cycle) is primarily driven by solar energy. The sun's heat causes evaporation of water from oceans, lakes, and rivers. This water vapour rises, condenses to form clouds, and eventually falls as precipitation, completing the cycle.
Option 1 (Geothermal energy): Plays a minor role in some geothermal regions but is not the primary driver.
Option 3 (Wind energy): Winds help transport water vapour but are themselves driven by solar energy; they are a secondary factor.
Option 4 (Ocean tides): Caused by gravitational pull of the Moon; not related to the water cycle.
Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Water cycle and groundwater

Q7. Why is the management of subsurface fluid reservoir important?

  1. (a) Only for environmental reasons
  2. (b) Only for economic reasons
  3. (c) For both economic and environmental reasons
  4. (d) For neither economic nor environmental reasons
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) For both economic and environmental reasons

Correct Answer: Option 3 – For both economic and environmental reasons
Subsurface fluid reservoirs (such as groundwater aquifers and oil/gas reservoirs) are important for both economic and environmental reasons.
Economic reasons: Extraction of oil, natural gas, and groundwater supports energy production, agriculture, and industry.
Environmental reasons: Improper management can cause land subsidence, induced seismicity (earthquakes), and groundwater contamination.
Option 1 (Only environmental): Incorrect; economic importance is equally significant.
Option 2 (Only economic): Incorrect; environmental consequences are equally critical.
Option 4 (Neither): Incorrect; both dimensions are highly relevant.

Q8. Which is the only floating national park in the world?

  1. (a) Keoladeo National Park
  2. (b) Manas National Park
  3. (c) Keibul Lamjao National Park
  4. (d) Kaziranga National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Keibul Lamjao National Park

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Keibul Lamjao National Park
Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur, located on the Loktak Lake, is the world's only floating national park. It rests on phumdi (floating masses of vegetation, soil, and organic matter). It is the last natural refuge of the endangered Manipur brow-antlered deer (Sangai), the state animal of Manipur.
Option 1 (Keoladeo National Park): Located in Rajasthan; a famous bird sanctuary and UNESCO World Heritage Site; not a floating park.
Option 2 (Manas National Park): Located in Assam; a UNESCO World Heritage Site and Tiger Reserve; not a floating park.
Option 4 (Kaziranga National Park): Located in Assam; famous for the one-horned rhinoceros; not a floating park.
World Geography · Countries and international boundaries

Q9. Which BRICS country is the largest by land area?

  1. (a) Brazil
  2. (b) China
  3. (c) India
  4. (d) Russia
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Russia

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Russia
Russia is the world's largest country by land area (approximately 17.1 million sq km), making it also the largest among the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
Option 1 (Brazil): ~8.5 million sq km – second largest in BRICS.
Option 2 (China): ~9.6 million sq km – third largest globally but second in BRICS after Russia and before Brazil.
Option 3 (India): ~3.3 million sq km – much smaller than Russia.
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q10. The Amarkantak Plateau region has which of the following river flowing through it?

  1. (a) Godavari
  2. (b) Narmada
  3. (c) Krishna
  4. (d) Ganga
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narmada

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Narmada
The Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh (at the meeting point of the Vindhya and Satpura ranges) is the origin/source of the Narmada River. The Sone River also originates here. Amarkantak is considered a sacred pilgrimage site.
Option 1 (Godavari): Originates near Trimbakeshwar in Nashik district, Maharashtra.
Option 3 (Krishna): Originates at Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats, Maharashtra.
Option 4 (Ganga): Originates from the Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q11. Name the hill station located on the Nilgiri Hills?

  1. (a) Shimla
  2. (b) Ooty
  3. (c) Darjeeling
  4. (d) Manali
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ooty

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Ooty
Ooty (Udhagamandalam / Ootacamund), often called the 'Queen of Hill Stations,' is located in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu. It is a popular tourist destination known for its scenic tea gardens and the Nilgiri Mountain Railway (UNESCO World Heritage Site).
Option 1 (Shimla): Located in the Himalayan ranges of Himachal Pradesh; former summer capital of British India.
Option 3 (Darjeeling): Located in the sub-Himalayan ranges of West Bengal; famous for Darjeeling tea.
Option 4 (Manali): Located in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh in the Himalayas.
India - Drainage System · Waterfalls of India

Q12. The Kunchikal Falls, the highest waterfall in India, is located in which state?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Karnataka

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Karnataka
Kunchikal Falls, located on the Varahi River in Shimoga (Shivamogga) district of Karnataka, is the highest waterfall in India with a height of approximately 455 metres (1,493 feet). It is formed by the Varahi River before entering the Malabar coast.
Option 1 (Kerala): Home to Athirappilly Falls, but not the highest waterfall in India.
Option 3 (Tamil Nadu): Has several waterfalls like Hogenakkal but not the highest.
Option 4 (Maharashtra): Home to Dudhsagar Falls (partially) and others, but Kunchikal is taller.

Chemistry (1)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q13. What is another use of bleaching powder besides bleaching?

  1. (a) Making soap
  2. (b) Disinfecting drinking water
  3. (c) Making detergent
  4. (d) Making paint
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Disinfecting drinking water

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Disinfecting drinking water
Bleaching powder (calcium hypochlorite / calcium oxychloride – Ca(OCl)Cl) is widely used to disinfect drinking water and swimming pools due to its strong oxidizing and germicidal properties. It kills bacteria and pathogens, making water safe for consumption.
Option 1 (Making soap): Soap is made by saponification of fats/oils with alkalis like NaOH/KOH; bleaching powder is not used.
Option 3 (Making detergent): Detergents are synthetic surfactants; bleaching powder is not a raw material.
Option 4 (Making paint): Bleaching powder is not a component in paint manufacturing.

Economics (5)

Q14. Which of the following is a direct tax collected by the government?

  1. (a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
  2. (b) Income Tax
  3. (c) Customs Duty
  4. (d) Excise Duty
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Income Tax

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Income Tax
Income Tax is a direct tax – it is levied directly on the income/earnings of an individual or company, and the burden cannot be shifted to another person. It is collected by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
Option 1 (GST): An indirect tax levied on the supply of goods and services; burden is passed on to the consumer.
Option 3 (Customs Duty): An indirect tax levied on imported/exported goods; collected at ports.
Option 4 (Excise Duty): An indirect tax levied on the manufacture of goods (now largely subsumed into GST).
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · National sample surveys (NFHS, PLFS, NSS) - findings

Q15. Which one of the following states in India records the lowest female literacy rate as per the National Sample Survey 2018?

  1. (a) Jammu and Kashmir
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Arunachal Pradesh
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Rajasthan
According to the National Sample Survey (NSS) 2018, Rajasthan recorded the lowest female literacy rate among Indian states. Deep-rooted social and cultural factors, early marriage, and limited access to education contribute to the low female literacy in rural Rajasthan.
Option 1 (Jammu and Kashmir): Has a higher female literacy rate than Rajasthan.
Option 3 (Arunachal Pradesh): Female literacy rate is moderate; higher than Rajasthan as per NSS 2018.
Option 4 (Bihar): Also has a low female literacy rate but ranks higher than Rajasthan in NSS 2018 data.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q16. A high Ease of Doing Business (EODB) score means it is:

  1. (a) Hard to start a business
  2. (b) Expensive to travel
  3. (c) Easy to start a business
  4. (d) Difficult to find a job
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Easy to start a business

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Easy to start a business
A high EODB (Ease of Doing Business) score/rank indicates that a country has a favorable regulatory environment for conducting business – including ease of starting a business, getting permits, obtaining credit, paying taxes, and enforcing contracts. The index was published by the World Bank until 2021.
Option 1 (Hard to start a business): Incorrect; high score means the opposite.
Option 2 (Expensive to travel): EODB has nothing to do with travel costs.
Option 4 (Difficult to find a job): EODB measures business regulatory environment, not employment conditions.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q17. What was the primary focus of the Antyodaya Program launched in 1977?

  1. (a) Provide employment to rural youth
  2. (b) Uplift the poorest sections of society
  3. (c) Promote industrial growth
  4. (d) Reduce fiscal deficit
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uplift the poorest sections of society

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Uplift the poorest sections of society
Antyodaya (meaning 'rise of the last/poorest person') was a programme launched in Rajasthan in 1977 under Chief Minister Shiv Charan Mathur, inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy of 'Antyodaya.' Its primary aim was to uplift the poorest of the poor (Antyodaya families) through targeted economic assistance.
Option 1 (Provide employment to rural youth): Employment-focused programmes like NREP and RLEGP came later.
Option 3 (Promote industrial growth): Not the focus of Antyodaya; it targeted the rural poor.
Option 4 (Reduce fiscal deficit): A macroeconomic goal unrelated to Antyodaya.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q18. What was the primary reason for introducing economic reforms in India in 1991?

  1. (a) High GDP growth
  2. (b) Balance of payments crisis
  3. (c) Overpopulation
  4. (d) Agricultural stagnation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Balance of payments crisis

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Balance of payments crisis
In 1991, India faced a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis – foreign exchange reserves fell to just about 2–3 weeks' worth of imports. India was forced to pledge its gold reserves as collateral for an IMF loan. This crisis, combined with a rising fiscal deficit and high inflation, compelled the government (under PM P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh) to introduce landmark economic liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG) reforms.
Option 1 (High GDP growth): India was actually facing low growth and a fiscal crisis, not high growth.
Option 3 (Overpopulation): Not the direct trigger for the 1991 reforms.
Option 4 (Agricultural stagnation): Not the immediate cause; the reforms were triggered by the BoP crisis.

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q19. The Battle of Plassey (1757) marked the beginning of British rule in India. Which earlier battle marked the decline of the Delhi Sultanate?

  1. (a) Battle of Panipat (1526)
  2. (b) Battle of Talikota (1565)
  3. (c) Battle of Khanwa (1527)
  4. (d) Battle of Tarain (1192)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Battle of Panipat (1526)

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Battle of Panipat (1526)
The First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between Babur (founder of the Mughal Empire) and Ibrahim Lodi (last ruler of the Delhi Sultanate). Babur's victory ended the Delhi Sultanate and established the Mughal Empire in India.
Option 2 (Battle of Talikota, 1565): Fought between the Deccan Sultanates and the Vijayanagara Empire; led to the decline of Vijayanagara, not the Delhi Sultanate.
Option 3 (Battle of Khanwa, 1527): Between Babur and Rana Sanga of Mewar; consolidated Mughal power after the Delhi Sultanate was already ended.
Option 4 (Battle of Tarain, 1192): Muhammad of Ghor defeated Prithviraj Chauhan; this actually ESTABLISHED the Delhi Sultanate, not ended it.
Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q20. The Battle of Haldighati (1576) was fought between which two leaders?

  1. (a) Akbar and Rana Pratap
  2. (b) Babur and Rana Sanga
  3. (c) Sher Shah Suri and Humayun
  4. (d) Jahangir and Rana Amar Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Akbar and Rana Pratap

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Akbar and Rana Pratap
The Battle of Haldighati (June 1576) was fought between the forces of Mughal Emperor Akbar (led by Man Singh I of Amber) and Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar. Though Akbar's forces won the battle, Rana Pratap escaped and continued guerrilla resistance. The battle took place in the Haldighati pass in present-day Rajasthan.
Option 2 (Babur and Rana Sanga): This was the Battle of Khanwa (1527).
Option 3 (Sher Shah Suri and Humayun): This was the Battle of Chausa (1539) and Battle of Kannauj (1540).
Option 4 (Jahangir and Rana Amar Singh): A series of battles occurred between 1605-1615, ending in a treaty; not Haldighati.

Polity (2)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Salient features of the Constitution

Q21. What is the supreme law of India?

  1. (a) Supreme Court Judgment
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Indian Constitution
  4. (d) President's Order
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Constitution

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Indian Constitution
The Indian Constitution is the supreme law of India. Article 13 of the Constitution explicitly states that any law that is inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void. The Constitution is the grundnorm (basic norm) from which all other laws derive their authority.
Option 1 (Supreme Court Judgment): Supreme Court judgments are binding but derive authority from the Constitution.
Option 2 (Parliament): Parliament can make laws but cannot override constitutional provisions; any law contrary to the Constitution is void.
Option 4 (President's Order): Presidential orders derive authority from constitutional provisions.
Parliament · Composition of Parliament

Q22. What is the total number of houses that make up the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) One
  2. (b) Two
  3. (c) Three
  4. (d) Four
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Two

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Two
The Indian Parliament (Sansad) is bicameral, consisting of two houses:
1. Lok Sabha (House of the People) – the lower house
2. Rajya Sabha (Council of States) – the upper house
The President of India is also a constituent part of Parliament under Article 79, but the two 'houses' are the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Option 1 (One): Unicameral Parliament is not India's system.
Option 3 (Three) and Option 4 (Four): Incorrect; India has two houses.

Biology (1)

Q23. Which blood cells help in fighting infections in the human body?

  1. (a) Red blood cells
  2. (b) White blood cells
  3. (c) Platelets
  4. (d) Plasma
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) White blood cells

Correct Answer: Option 2 – White blood cells
White blood cells (WBCs / leukocytes) are the body's primary immune defense. They identify, attack, and destroy pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Types of WBCs include neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils.
Option 1 (Red blood cells): RBCs (erythrocytes) carry oxygen from the lungs to body tissues; they do not fight infections.
Option 3 (Platelets): Thrombocytes help in blood clotting and wound healing; not involved in fighting infections.
Option 4 (Plasma): The liquid component of blood that transports cells, nutrients, hormones, and waste products; not directly involved in fighting infections (though it carries antibodies).
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