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SSC Selection Post 2025 2 August 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Selection Post 2025 on 2 August 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Current Affairs, Ancient History, Biology, Economics, Geography.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 2 August 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (4) · Current Affairs (4) · Ancient History (2) · Biology (1) · Economics (5) · Geography (3) · Static GK (3) · Physics (2)

Polity (4)

Local Government · 73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj

Q1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) aimed at legal reform in which of the following areas?

  1. (a) Industrial disputes management
  2. (b) Environmental protection at grassroot level
  3. (c) Local self-governance at rural level
  4. (d) Consumer protection rights in villages
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Local self-governance at rural level

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Local self-governance at rural level
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), establishing a three-tier system of local self-governance in rural India: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate level), and Zila Parishad (district level). It added Part IX and the 11th Schedule to the Constitution.
Option 1 (Industrial disputes): Governed by the Industrial Disputes Act; not related to the 73rd Amendment.
Option 2 (Environmental protection): Environmental laws fall under other legislation; not the 73rd Amendment.
Option 4 (Consumer protection): Addressed by the Consumer Protection Act; not the 73rd Amendment.
Polity Miscellaneous · Constitutional facts and firsts

Q2. Who hand-calligraphed the original manuscript of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) B.N. Rau
  2. (b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
  3. (c) S.N. Mukherjee
  4. (d) Gopalaswami Ayyangar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Prem Behari Narain Raizada
The original handwritten manuscript of the Indian Constitution was calligraphed in flowing italic script by Prem Behari Narain Raizada (also known as Prem Behari Narain Saxena) in New Delhi. He refused any payment for this work and asked only that his name and his grandfather's name be inscribed on every page of the Constitution.
Option 1 (B.N. Rau): Sir B.N. Rau was the Constitutional Advisor who prepared the initial draft of the Constitution.
Option 3 (S.N. Mukherjee): The chief draftsman who worked on technical aspects under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Option 4 ( Gopalaswami Ayyangar ): A key member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q3. Identify the correct option based on given statements:
Assertion (A): The Union Government alone can legislate on matters related to the deployment and jurisdiction of armed forces within Indian states.
Reason (R): The Constitution includes the deployment of Union forces in aid of civil power, regulation of cantonments, and control over arms and atomic energy in the Union List.

  1. (a) A and R are correct, and R is the correct reason for A
  2. (b) A and R both true, but R is not the appropriate explanation for A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A and R are correct, and R is the correct reason for A

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A and R are correct, and R is the correct reason for A
Assertion A is CORRECT: Under Entry 1 of the Union List (Seventh Schedule), defense of India and the armed forces are exclusively under the Union Government's legislative jurisdiction.
Reason R is CORRECT and explains A: The Union List specifically includes Entry 2A (deployment of armed forces in aid of civil power), Entry 3 (Army, Navy, Air Force, and other armed forces), Entry 25 (arms, firearms, ammunition and explosives), and Entry 41 (atomic energy). These provisions collectively explain why the Union alone can legislate on armed forces matters.
Since both A and R are true and R correctly explains A, Option 1 is the right answer.
Union Executive · Lists of Presidents, Vice-Presidents and Prime Ministers

Q4. Who is the 15th President of India?

  1. (a) Pratibha Patil
  2. (b) Ram Nath Kovind
  3. (c) Droupadi Murmu
  4. (d) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Droupadi Murmu

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Droupadi Murmu
Droupadi Murmu became the 15th President of India in July 2022. She is the first President from a tribal community (Santali tribe) and the second woman to hold the office. She was elected with the support of the NDA.
Order of recent Presidents:
12th President: Pratibha Patil (2007–2012) – first woman President of India
13th President: Pranab Mukherjee (2012–2017)
14th President: Ram Nath Kovind (2017–2022)
15th President: Droupadi Murmu (2022–present)

Current Affairs (4)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q5. India recently became the fourth country to successfully demonstrate space docking. Which of the following countries had achieved this feat before India?

  1. (a) USA, Russia, France
  2. (b) USA, Russia, Japan
  3. (c) USA, Russia, China
  4. (d) USA, China, UK
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) USA, Russia, China

Correct Answer: Option 3 – USA, Russia, China
Space docking technology was first demonstrated by the USA (Gemini 8, 1966), followed by the Soviet Union/Russia (Soyuz, 1967), and then China (Tiangong-1 with Shenzhou-8, 2011). India's SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment) mission successfully demonstrated space docking in January 2025, making India the 4th country to achieve this milestone.
Option 1 (France): France has not independently demonstrated space docking technology.
Option 2 (Japan): Japan has not independently demonstrated space docking.
Option 4 (UK): The UK has not independently demonstrated space docking.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q6. Consider the following statements about the Polaris Dawn Mission and Van Allen Radiation Belts:
1. The Van Allen Belts consist of charged particles originating exclusively from the Sun.
2. The Polaris Dawn Mission studied the biological effects of space radiation by traveling through high-radiation zones around Earth.
3. Spacecraft passing through the Van Allen Belts must limit their transit time to reduce radiation exposure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Statements 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Van Allen Belts consist of charged particles from BOTH the solar wind AND Earth's own magnetosphere (from cosmic ray albedo neutron decay). They do not originate 'exclusively' from the Sun.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The Polaris Dawn Mission (SpaceX, September 2024) was notable for being the first commercial spaceflight to traverse the Van Allen Belts, and it studied biological effects of space radiation on the crew.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: Spacecraft minimize transit time through the Van Allen Belts to limit radiation exposure to crew and sensitive instruments.
Since statements 2 and 3 are correct and 1 is incorrect, the answer is Option 2.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q7. According to the EIU, which country showed the most significant improvement in its business environment over the past 20 years?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Vietnam
  3. (c) Romania
  4. (d) Serbia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vietnam

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Vietnam
According to the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), Vietnam showed the most significant improvement in its business environment over the past 20 years. Vietnam's rapid economic transformation, liberalization under the Doi Moi reforms, FDI-friendly policies, and integration into global supply chains (especially for electronics and manufacturing) drove this improvement.
Option 1 (India): India has improved but was not ranked first in this EIU measure.
Option 3 (Romania): Has improved as an EU member state but not as dramatically as Vietnam.
Option 4 (Serbia): Not ranked as top improver in this EIU assessment.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q8. Who received the 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award for English for their novel "Spirit Nights"?

  1. (a) Arundhati Roy
  2. (b) Amitav Ghosh
  3. (c) Easterine Kire
  4. (d) Jhumpa Lahiri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Easterine Kire

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Easterine Kire
Easterine Kire, a celebrated Naga writer from Nagaland, received the 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award in the English language category for her novel 'Spirit Nights.' She is known for her works rooted in Naga culture and spirituality.
Option 1 (Arundhati Roy): Won the Booker Prize in 1997; not the 2024 Sahitya Akademi winner.
Option 2 (Amitav Ghosh): A prominent Indian writer known for the Ibis Trilogy; not the 2024 winner.
Option 4 (Jhumpa Lahiri): Won the Pulitzer Prize in 2000; not the 2024 Sahitya Akademi winner.

Ancient History (2)

Vedic Period · Rig Vedic society, polity and economy

Q9. The Rigveda points to an organized society. What kind of marriage existed there?

  1. (a) Only monogamy was practiced
  2. (b) Only polygamy was practiced
  3. (c) Both monogamy and polygamy was practiced equally
  4. (d) Monogamy was general rule but some princes practiced polygamy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Monogamy was general rule but some princes practiced polygamy

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Monogamy was general rule but some princes practiced polygamy
In Rigvedic society, monogamy was the general norm for common people. However, evidence in the Rigveda indicates that some kings and princes (royalty) practiced polygamy. This reflects a social hierarchy where the rules of marriage were not entirely uniform across all classes.
Option 1 (Only monogamy): Incorrect; polygamy was practiced by royalty.
Option 2 (Only polygamy): Incorrect; monogamy was the dominant form.
Option 3 (Equal practice): Incorrect; polygamy was restricted primarily to royalty, not universally practiced.
Indus Valley Civilisation · Economy, trade and seals

Q10. The Indus Valley Civilization flourished under which economy?

  1. (a) Barter system
  2. (b) Currency-based economy
  3. (c) Feudal economy
  4. (d) Industrial economy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Barter system

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Barter system
The Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization, c. 3300–1300 BCE) operated primarily on a barter economy – goods and services were exchanged directly without a standardized currency. No coins or monetary system have been discovered at IVC sites, though standardized weights and measures were used for trade.
Option 2 (Currency-based economy): No coinage or currency has been found in IVC excavations.
Option 3 (Feudal economy): Feudalism is a medieval economic system characterized by lords, serfs, and land ownership; not applicable to the Bronze Age IVC.
Option 4 (Industrial economy): IVC had skilled craft production and trade but was not an industrial economy in the modern sense.

Biology (1)

Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q11. Which plant tissue is primarily responsible for forming the hard husk of a coconut?

  1. (a) Collenchyma
  2. (b) Parenchyma
  3. (c) Sclerenchyma
  4. (d) Xylem
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sclerenchyma

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sclerenchyma
Sclerenchyma is a plant tissue with thick, heavily lignified cell walls that provide rigidity and mechanical strength. The hard fibrous husk and the stony shell (endocarp) of a coconut are formed by sclerenchyma cells (specifically sclereids/stone cells). Once mature, these cells are dead.
Option 1 (Collenchyma): A living tissue with unevenly thickened cell walls; provides flexible support in young, growing plant parts.
Option 2 (Parenchyma): Living tissue involved in photosynthesis, storage, and secretion; forms the soft parts of plants.
Option 4 (Xylem): A vascular tissue that transports water and minerals; not responsible for the hard husk.

Economics (5)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q12. Which of the following was a key feature of India's trade policy reforms in 1991 period?

  1. (a) Imposing new quantitative restrictions on essential imports
  2. (b) Expanding import licensing to control foreign trade
  3. (c) Introducing quotas to limit agricultural exports
  4. (d) Removal of licensing procedures for imports
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Removal of licensing procedures for imports

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Removal of licensing procedures for imports
A key feature of India's 1991 economic liberalization was the removal/simplification of import licensing (dismantling the 'License Raj'). Quantitative restrictions were phased out, tariffs were reduced, and trade was opened up to promote integration with the global economy.
Option 1 (Imposing new quantitative restrictions): Incorrect; the 1991 reforms moved AWAY from restrictions.
Option 2 (Expanding import licensing): Incorrect; licensing was REDUCED, not expanded.
Option 3 (Introducing quotas to limit agricultural exports): Incorrect; the direction of reform was towards liberalization, not more controls.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q13. The first Five-Year Plan of India was launched in which year?

  1. (a) 1947
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1951
  4. (d) 1955
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1951

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1951
India's First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) was launched in 1951, formulated by the Planning Commission under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. It focused primarily on agriculture, land reforms, and irrigation, using the Harrod-Domar growth model.
Option 1 (1947): The year of India's independence; the Planning Commission was not yet set up.
Option 2 (1950): The Planning Commission was established in 1950, but the plan was formally launched in 1951.
Option 4 (1955): The Second Five-Year Plan was launched in 1956; 1955 is incorrect.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Skill development and employment schemes

Q14. What is the eligibility criterion for artisans under the PM Vishwakarma Yojana?

  1. (a) Must belong to urban areas
  2. (b) Must be engaged in traditional crafts
  3. (c) Must have a minimum income of Rs. 5 lakh
  4. (d) Must be employed in government services
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Must be engaged in traditional crafts

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Must be engaged in traditional crafts
The primary eligibility criterion for PM Vishwakarma Yojana is that the beneficiary must be engaged in one of the 18 traditional trade categories recognized under the scheme (such as carpentry, blacksmithing, pottery, weaving, shoe-making, etc.). Both rural and urban artisans are eligible.
Option 1 (Must belong to urban areas): Incorrect; artisans from both rural and urban areas are eligible.
Option 3 (Minimum income of Rs. 5 lakh): Incorrect; there is no such income requirement. The scheme targets lower-income artisans.
Option 4 (Must be employed in government services): Incorrect; government employees are specifically EXCLUDED from this scheme.
Inflation · Types of inflation (demand-pull, cost-push, stagflation)

Q15. What is the term for the economic phenomenon where high inflation is combined with stagnant economic growth?

  1. (a) Recession
  2. (b) Hyperinflation
  3. (c) Stagflation
  4. (d) Deflation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stagflation

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Stagflation
Stagflation is the economic condition characterized by simultaneously high inflation, stagnant (slow or zero) economic growth, and often high unemployment. The term was coined during the 1970s oil crisis when many economies experienced this unusual combination (normally inflation and unemployment move in opposite directions per the Phillips Curve).
Option 1 (Recession): A period of significant economic decline (negative GDP growth); not necessarily combined with high inflation.
Option 2 (Hyperinflation): Extremely rapid and out-of-control inflation (typically >50% per month); does not specifically describe the combination with stagnation.
Option 4 (Deflation): A general decrease in the price level; opposite of inflation.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q16. Name the principle that states that as production increases, the cost per unit decreases?

  1. (a) Law of diminishing returns
  2. (b) Economies of scale
  3. (c) Opportunity cost
  4. (d) Marginal utility
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Economies of scale

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Economies of scale
Economies of scale refer to the cost advantages that a firm gains as it increases its level of output. As production increases, the average (per unit) cost decreases because fixed costs are spread over more units and operational efficiencies are achieved.
Option 1 (Law of diminishing returns): States that as more of one variable input is added (with other inputs fixed), the incremental output eventually decreases. This is about output, not cost reduction with scale.
Option 3 (Opportunity cost): The value of the best alternative foregone when making a decision; not related to per-unit cost decreasing.
Option 4 (Marginal utility): The additional satisfaction gained from consuming one more unit of a good; an economics/consumer behaviour concept unrelated to production costs.

Geography (3)

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q17. Which of the following minerals are found in the state of Kerala?

  1. (a) Monazite, thorium, and bauxite clay
  2. (b) Iron ore, coal, and gold
  3. (c) Copper, limestone, and gypsum
  4. (d) Uranium, petroleum, and mica
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Monazite, thorium, and bauxite clay

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Monazite, thorium, and bauxite clay
Kerala's coastal regions, especially in Kollam, Alappuzha, and Thrissur, are rich in monazite (a thorium-bearing mineral). Kerala is one of India's primary sources of thorium. The state also has deposits of bauxite clay, ilmenite (titanium ore), and rutile.
Option 2 (Iron ore, coal, gold): These are primarily found in states like Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Karnataka.
Option 3 (Copper, limestone, gypsum): Found mainly in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh.
Option 4 (Uranium, petroleum, mica): Uranium in Jharkhand; petroleum in Gujarat/Assam; mica in Jharkhand/Rajasthan.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q18. What does the fertility rate measure?

  1. (a) Number of live births per 1000 people in the population
  2. (b) Number of women in the population between ages 15 and 49
  3. (c) Number of live births per 1000 women aged 15 to 49 in a given year
  4. (d) Number of children born per family regardless of age
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Number of live births per 1000 women aged 15 to 49 in a given year

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Number of live births per 1000 women aged 15 to 49 in a given year
The General Fertility Rate (GFR) measures the number of live births per 1,000 women of reproductive age (15–49 years) in a given year. It is a more refined measure than the Crude Birth Rate because it focuses on the population actually capable of bearing children.
Option 1 (Per 1000 people in population): This describes the Crude Birth Rate (CBR), not the fertility rate.
Option 2 (Number of women aged 15–49): This describes the Women of Reproductive Age (WRA) count, not a rate.
Option 4 (Children per family regardless of age): This is an informal description unrelated to the standard demographic measure.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q19. In which part of India is the Coromandel Coast located?

  1. (a) Western Coastal Plain
  2. (b) Eastern Coastal Plain
  3. (c) Northern Plains
  4. (d) Deccan Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Eastern Coastal Plain

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Eastern Coastal Plain
The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern coastal region of the Indian subcontinent, stretching from False Divi Point (southern Andhra Pradesh) southward to Point Calimere (Tamil Nadu), along the Bay of Bengal. It is part of the Eastern Coastal Plain of India.
Option 1 (Western Coastal Plain): The west coast (Malabar/Konkan) faces the Arabian Sea; Coromandel is on the east.
Option 3 (Northern Plains): The Indo-Gangetic Plain in the north; far from the Coromandel Coast.
Option 4 (Deccan Plateau): The interior plateau region; not a coastal plain.

Static GK (3)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q20. Which festival is popularly known as the "Water Festival" in parts of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam?

  1. (a) Losar
  2. (b) Poi Sangken
  3. (c) Dree
  4. (d) Mopin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Poi Sangken

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Poi Sangken
Poi Sangken (also known as Sangken ) is the Water Festival celebrated by the Tai communities (Tai Phake, Tai Khamti, Tai Aiton) in parts of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. It coincides with the Theravada Buddhist New Year and involves sprinkling/pouring water as a symbol of purification and new beginnings.
Option 1 (Losar): The Tibetan Buddhist New Year festival celebrated by Monpa tribe in Arunachal Pradesh; not specifically a 'Water Festival.'
Option 3 (Dree): An agricultural festival of the Adi tribe in Arunachal Pradesh; not known as Water Festival.
Option 4 ( Mopin ): A harvest festival of the Galo tribe in Arunachal Pradesh; not known as Water Festival.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q21. Given below are the statements in assertion and reason. Choose the correct options:
Assertion (A): An athlete found with banned substances in their system, even unintentionally, can still face penalties.
Reason (R): Under WADA rules, athletes are strictly liable for any prohibited substance found in their body.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion A is CORRECT: Under anti-doping rules, athletes can be penalized even for unintentional doping. Many cases involve contaminated supplements or prescribed medications containing banned substances.
Reason R is CORRECT and explains A: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) Code applies the principle of 'strict liability' – an athlete is responsible for any prohibited substance found in their body sample, regardless of how it got there or whether there was intent. This principle directly explains why unintentional cases still result in penalties.
Since both A and R are true and R correctly explains A, Option 1 is correct.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q22. The first ever South Asian Games held in India took place in which year?

  1. (a) 1982
  2. (b) 1987
  3. (c) 1991
  4. (d) 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1987

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 1987
The South Asian Federation (SAF) Games were first held in 1984 in Kathmandu, Nepal. The first time India hosted the South Asian Games was in 1987, when the 3rd SAF Games were held in Calcutta (Kolkata). India hosted the Games again in 1995 (Madras) and later years.
Option 1 (1982): The 1982 Asian Games were held in New Delhi (not South Asian Games).
Option 3 (1991): The 5th SAF Games were held in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
Option 4 (1995): The 7th SAF Games were held in Chennai, India – India's second time hosting, not the first.

Physics (2)

Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q23. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

  1. (a) Coal
  2. (b) Wind energy
  3. (c) Tidal energy
  4. (d) Solar energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Coal

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Coal
Coal is a fossil fuel formed from organic matter over millions of years through heat and pressure. Once extracted and used, it cannot be replenished in a human timescale, making it a non-renewable resource.
Option 2 (Wind energy): Wind is a renewable resource; it is continuously replenished by atmospheric processes driven by solar energy.
Option 3 (Tidal energy): Tidal energy is renewable, generated by the gravitational pull of the Moon and Sun on Earth's oceans.
Option 4 (Solar energy): Solar energy is a perpetually renewable resource derived from the Sun's radiation.
Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q24. Which energy source cannot be replenished naturally in a short period of time?

  1. (a) Wind
  2. (b) Solar
  3. (c) Natural Gas
  4. (d) Hydroelectric
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Natural Gas

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Natural Gas
Natural Gas is a fossil fuel that takes millions of years to form from decomposed organic matter under extreme heat and pressure. Once consumed, it cannot be replenished within any meaningful human timescale, making it a non-renewable energy source.
Option 1 (Wind): A renewable energy source; wind is continuously available and replenished by atmospheric processes.
Option 2 (Solar): A renewable energy source; solar radiation is continuously available.
Option 4 (Hydroelectric): A renewable energy source; water in rivers is continuously replenished by the water cycle driven by solar energy.
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