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Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 12 January 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 17 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 on 12 January 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Biology, Chemistry, Economics, Static GK, Geography.

📚 17 questions🗓️ 12 January 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Ancient History (2) · Biology (2) · Chemistry (1) · Economics (3) · Static GK (5) · Geography (1) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (2)

Ancient History (2)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q1. Which of the following correctly describes the significance of Chanhudaro and Lothal in the Indus Valley Civilization?

  1. (a) Chanhudaro was a port city; Lothal was a pottery production center
  2. (b) Both were major religious centers of the Harappan phase
  3. (c) Chanhudaro was a craft production center; Lothal had a dockyard
  4. (d) Both sites were located in modern-day Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chanhudaro was a craft production center; Lothal had a dockyard

Option 3 is correct. Chanhudaro (in present-day Pakistan's Sindh) was a specialized craft production center of the IVC, famous for bead-making, shell-working, and metalwork. Lothal (in Gujarat, India) is renowned for having a planned dockyard — one of the earliest known in the world — used for maritime trade.
• Option 1 is wrong: Lothal had a dockyard, not a pottery center; and Chanhudaro was a craft site, not a port city.
• Option 2 is wrong: Neither Chanhudaro nor Lothal is primarily identified as a religious center of the Harappan phase.
• Option 4 is wrong: Chanhudaro is in modern Sindh (Pakistan) and Lothal is in Gujarat (India); neither is in Punjab.
Mauryan Empire · Mauryan art and architecture

Q2. Which of the following characteristics best distinguishes Mauryan royal architecture from pre-Mauryan architecture in the Indian subcontinent?

  1. (a) Use of mud bricks for residential buildings
  2. (b) Use of iron tools for stone carving
  3. (c) Introduction of monolithic polished stone pillars
  4. (d) Domed roofs over religious structures
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Introduction of monolithic polished stone pillars

Option 3 is correct. The hallmark of Mauryan royal architecture is the introduction of monolithic (single-stone) polished stone pillars — such as the Ashokan pillars — which were carved from single sandstone blocks and given a highly lustrous polish. This 'Mauryan polish' is unique to this period and distinguishes it from all pre-Mauryan construction.
• Option 1 is wrong: Mud bricks were used in pre-Mauryan and Indus Valley periods; Mauryan architecture used stone extensively.
• Option 2 is wrong: Iron tools for stone carving existed before the Mauryan period; this is not a distinguishing feature.
• Option 4 is wrong: Domed structures (stupas) emerged in the Mauryan era, but domed roofs over religious structures is not the most distinctive feature of Mauryan royal architecture compared to monolithic pillars.

Biology (2)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q3. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the legal significance and operational challenges of the National Medical Register (NMR) under the National Medical Commission (NMC) framework?

  1. (a) The National Medical Register is maintained by state medical councils and serves as a voluntary database of doctors practicing traditional systems of medicine across India.
  2. (b) The NMR is a central digital registry maintained by the NMC that confers the status of licensed practitioner only after a mandatory two-year rural internship, regardless of medical degree.
  3. (c) The NMR is a national-level electronic register of all licensed allopathic medical practitioners in India, maintained by the National Medical Commission, and registration in it is mandatory for issuing a Unique Permanent Registration Number (UPRN) to legally practice modern medicine across the country.
  4. (d) The NMR is used solely for academic research purposes and has no legal bearing on licensing, practice, or disciplinary action.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The NMR is a national-level electronic register of all licensed allopathic medical practitioners in India, maintained by the National Medical Commission, and registration in it is mandatory for issuing a Unique Permanent Registration Number (UPRN) to legally practice modern medicine across the country.

Option 3 is correct. Under the National Medical Commission Act, 2020, the NMR is a national-level digital register of all licensed allopathic (modern medicine) doctors in India, maintained by the NMC. Every doctor registered in the NMR receives a Unique Permanent Registration Number (UPRN), which is mandatory for legally practicing medicine anywhere in India.
• Option 1 is wrong: The NMR is maintained by the NMC (national body), not by state medical councils; it covers allopathic doctors, not traditional medicine practitioners.
• Option 2 is wrong: Practitioner status under NMR is based on medical degree and registration, not a mandatory two-year rural internship.
• Option 4 is wrong: The NMR has direct legal significance — it is the basis for licensing, monitoring, and disciplinary action against doctors.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Immunity and immune system

Q4. Which type of immunity is provided when antibodies are transferred from 'a mother to her fetus, through the placenta'?

  1. (a) Active natural immunity
  2. (b) Passive natural immunity
  3. (c) Active artificial immunity
  4. (d) Passive artificial immunity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Passive natural immunity

Passive natural immunity is correct. When a mother's antibodies (IgG) are transferred to the fetus through the placenta during pregnancy, it is called passive natural immunity. It is 'passive' because the fetus does not produce the antibodies itself — they are received ready-made. It is 'natural' because it occurs through a natural biological process (pregnancy), not through medical intervention.
• Active natural immunity: Develops when the individual's own immune system produces antibodies after being exposed to a pathogen (e.g., recovering from an infection). The fetus is not producing these antibodies.
• Active artificial immunity: Develops after vaccination — the individual actively produces antibodies in response to a vaccine antigen.
• Passive artificial immunity: Involves injection of externally produced antibodies (e.g., antitoxins, immunoglobulin injections) as a medical treatment.

Chemistry (1)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Natural acids and their sources

Q5. What makes lemon juice an effective natural cleaner?

  1. (a) High sugar content
  2. (b) Citric acid
  3. (c) Carbon dioxide
  4. (d) Potassium nitrate
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Citric acid

Citric acid is correct. Lemon juice contains approximately 5–8% citric acid, which is responsible for its cleaning power. Citric acid is a mild acid that can dissolve mineral deposits (limescale, rust stains), break down grease, kill bacteria and mold, and act as a natural bleaching agent — making it an effective and eco-friendly cleaner.
• High sugar content: Lemons do contain a small amount of sugar, but sugar has no cleaning properties; it would actually promote bacterial growth.
• Carbon dioxide: CO₂ is a gas; lemons do not contain significant CO₂, and it has no cleaning ability in this context.
• Potassium nitrate: This is not found in lemons; it is a chemical compound used in fertilizers and explosives, unrelated to lemon's cleaning properties.

Economics (3)

Industry and Infrastructure · Competition Commission of India

Q6. What was the central economic and regulatory objective of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act of 1969, and how did it reflect the ideological underpinnings of India's post- independence industrial policy?

  1. (a) To liberalize the Indian economy by encouraging large industrial houses to dominate global markets
  2. (b) To promote foreign direct investment by easing trade restrictions for multinational corporations
  3. (c) To prevent concentration of economic power and regulate anti-competitive practices, in alignment with India's commitment to a mixed economy and socialistic pattern of development
  4. (d) To eliminate all forms of government control over domestic industries and enable free-market pricing mechanisms
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To prevent concentration of economic power and regulate anti-competitive practices, in alignment with India's commitment to a mixed economy and socialistic pattern of development

Option 3 is correct. The MRTP Act of 1969 was enacted to prevent the concentration of economic power in the hands of a few large industrial houses, control monopolistic and restrictive trade practices, and ensure that the growth of private sector did not undermine the socialistic pattern of development enshrined in India's economic policy and the Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 39).
• Option 1 is wrong: The MRTP Act was designed to restrict, not encourage, large industrial dominance.
• Option 2 is wrong: India's policy from 1947–1991 was protectionist and restricted FDI; the MRTP Act followed the same restrictive ideology.
• Option 4 is wrong: The MRTP Act increased government control over industrial practices, not eliminated it.
National Income · GVA, factor cost and market price

Q7. Which of the following best describes the distinction between Gross Value Added (GVA) and Net Value Added (NVA)?

  1. (a) Value added
  2. (b) Depreciation
  3. (c) Production flow
  4. (d) Investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Depreciation

Depreciation is correct. The key distinction between GVA (Gross Value Added) and NVA (Net Value Added) is depreciation (also called Consumption of Fixed Capital). The formula is: NVA = GVA − Depreciation. GVA includes the full value of output minus intermediate consumption, while NVA further subtracts the wear and tear (depreciation) of capital assets used in production.
• Value added: This is what both GVA and NVA measure — the value added at each stage of production; it is not the distinction between them.
• Production flow: This is a concept in economics related to the movement of goods through production stages; it is not what separates GVA from NVA.
• Investment: Investment (capital formation) is related to GDP measurement but is not the distinguishing factor between GVA and NVA.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q8. As per Budget 2025, which new scheme aims to enhance productivity in 100 low-performing districts?

  1. (a) Rural Prosperity & Resilience Prog.
  2. (b) PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana
  3. (c) National Food Security Mission
  4. (d) PM Gram Sadak Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana

PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana is correct. Announced in Union Budget 2025-26 by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana is a new agricultural scheme targeting 100 districts with low agricultural productivity. It aims to improve crop yields, strengthen irrigation, develop post-harvest storage, and enhance credit access to farmers in these underperforming districts.
• Rural Prosperity & Resilience Prog.: This was also announced in Budget 2025 but focuses on addressing rural unemployment and skilling of rural youth — not specifically agricultural productivity in 100 low-performing districts.
• National Food Security Mission: An existing scheme focused on increasing production of rice, wheat, and pulses across India; it was not the new scheme announced in Budget 2025 for 100 low-performing districts.
• PM Gram Sadak Yojana: A rural road connectivity scheme; unrelated to agricultural productivity enhancement.

Static GK (5)

Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q9. Which of the following distinguishes SAARC from BIMSTEC in terms of organizational functionality?

  1. (a) BIMSTEC is led by China
  2. (b) SAARC excludes landlocked countries
  3. (c) BIMSTEC operates better due to exclusion of India-Pakistan rivalry
  4. (d) SAARC includes Russia and Iran
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) BIMSTEC operates better due to exclusion of India-Pakistan rivalry

Option 3 is correct. SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) has been largely paralyzed due to the persistent India-Pakistan rivalry — any decision requires consensus, so bilateral tensions effectively block regional cooperation. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) excludes Pakistan, which allows India to engage with South and Southeast Asian neighbors more effectively without the India-Pakistan deadlock.
• Option 1 is wrong: BIMSTEC is not led by China; China is not a member. Members are India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
• Option 2 is wrong: SAARC does not exclude landlocked countries — Nepal and Bhutan (landlocked) are members.
• Option 4 is wrong: SAARC does not include Russia or Iran; its members are India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Afghanistan.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q10. The QUAD grouping has launched various non-military initiatives in recent years. Which of the following highlights QUAD's role beyond defense collaboration?

  1. (a) Development of military drones for export
  2. (b) Establishing a joint naval fleet
  3. (c) COVID-19 vaccine diplomacy and critical tech cooperation
  4. (d) Cyber war training across Asia
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) COVID-19 vaccine diplomacy and critical tech cooperation

Option 3 is correct. Beyond its strategic security role, QUAD (comprising India, USA, Japan, Australia) has expanded into non-military domains. A key initiative was the Quad Vaccine Partnership launched in 2021, committing to produce and distribute up to 1 billion COVID-19 vaccine doses across the Indo-Pacific. QUAD also collaborates on critical and emerging technologies (semiconductors, 5G, AI), climate change, and cybersecurity.
• Option 1 is wrong: Development of military drones for export is not a QUAD initiative; it is a defense sector activity not specifically associated with QUAD.
• Option 2 is wrong: QUAD has no joint naval fleet; it conducts joint naval exercises (like Malabar), but these are periodic exercises, not a standing fleet.
• Option 4 is wrong: Cyber war training across Asia is not a documented QUAD initiative; QUAD's cyber cooperation focuses on securing critical infrastructure, not training for offensive cyber warfare.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the festival of Erok Sim?

  1. (a) It is held during the Hindu month of Bhadrapada.
  2. (b) It marks the conclusion of the harvest season.
  3. (c) It is primarily observed by the Bhil community.
  4. (d) It signifies the beginning of the sowing season.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It signifies the beginning of the sowing season.

Option 4 is correct. Erok Sim is a traditional festival of the Ho tribe (a Munda ethnic group of Jharkhand and Odisha). It is celebrated to mark the beginning of the sowing season, when the community prays to the gods for a good harvest before starting the agricultural cycle.
• Option 1 is wrong: Erok Sim is tied to the sowing/agricultural calendar, not specifically to the Hindu month of Bhadrapada.
• Option 2 is wrong: Erok Sim marks the beginning of the sowing season, not the conclusion of the harvest season.
• Option 3 is wrong: Erok Sim is observed by the Ho tribe, not the Bhil community. The Bhil are a tribe of central and western India (Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat).
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q12. Which of the following statements correctly describes Difficult Pleasures?

  1. (a) It is a historical novel exploring Indo-Persian royal courts.
  2. (b) It is a short story collection about modern urban lives.
  3. (c) It is a retelling of Hindu epics through the eyes of minor characters.
  4. (d) It is a crime fiction novel set in colonial Assam.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is a short story collection about modern urban lives.

Option 2 is correct. Difficult Pleasures is a collection of short stories by Mrinal Pande (a prominent Indian journalist and author), translated from Hindi. The stories explore the lives, struggles, and aspirations of modern urban Indian women navigating family, society, and identity in contemporary India.
• Option 1 is wrong: Difficult Pleasures does not explore Indo-Persian royal courts; it is set in modern urban India.
• Option 3 is wrong: It is not a retelling of Hindu epics; it deals with contemporary urban women's lives.
• Option 4 is wrong: It is not a crime fiction novel set in colonial Assam; that description does not match Mrinal Pande's work.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q13. Who was the first Asian Nobel laureate in literature, known for 'Gitanjali'?

  1. (a) R.K. Narayan
  2. (b) Rabindranath Tagore
  3. (c) Salman Rushdie
  4. (d) Khushwant Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rabindranath Tagore

Rabindranath Tagore is correct. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 — the first Asian to receive this honour — for his profoundly sensitive, fresh, and beautiful collection of poems Gitanjali (Song Offerings). The Nobel Committee praised the idealism of his work and the masterly skill with which it had been rendered into English prose.
• R.K. Narayan: A celebrated Indian novelist (Malgudi Days), but never a Nobel laureate.
• Salman Rushdie: A prominent British-Indian author (Midnight's Children), but not a Nobel laureate.
• Khushwant Singh: A well-known Indian author and journalist (Train to Pakistan), but not a Nobel laureate.

Geography (1)

Universe and Solar System · Moons and dwarf planets

Q14. Why are retrograde orbits of some moons around gas giants considered strong evidence of capture rather than natural formation?

  1. (a) Retrograde motion contradicts Kepler's laws.
  2. (b) Such orbits are dynamically unstable and short-lived.
  3. (c) Moons formed in-situ would orbit in the same direction as the planet's rotation.
  4. (d) They appear only in terrestrial planets.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Moons formed in-situ would orbit in the same direction as the planet's rotation.

Option 3 is correct. When a moon forms naturally from the same protoplanetary disk as its parent planet, it inherits the rotation direction of the disk and orbits in the same (prograde) direction as the planet's rotation. A retrograde orbit (opposite to the planet's spin) cannot arise from in-situ formation in the same disk — it strongly suggests the moon was an independent body (asteroid or Kuiper Belt object) captured gravitationally by the planet.
• Option 1 is wrong: Retrograde orbits do not contradict Kepler's laws; Kepler's laws apply equally to prograde and retrograde orbits.
• Option 2 is wrong: While some retrograde moons are in less stable orbits, dynamical instability is not the primary reason they indicate capture over formation.
• Option 4 is wrong: Retrograde moons are found primarily around gas giants (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune), not terrestrial planets.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q15. Why is the Government of India Act, 1935, considered a significant constitutional milestone in British India?

  1. (a) Introduced universal adult franchise for the first time.
  2. (b) Abolished dyarchy at the center and introduced it in the provinces.
  3. (c) Provided for an All-India Federation and granted provincial autonomy.
  4. (d) Guaranteed fundamental rights to all Indian citizens.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Provided for an All-India Federation and granted provincial autonomy.

Option 3 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, was the most comprehensive constitutional legislation in British India. Its two key features were: (1) It provided for an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and princely states (though this part never came into force due to princely states' refusal); and (2) It granted provincial autonomy — provinces were empowered to govern their own affairs with elected ministries responsible to provincial legislatures (dyarchy in provinces was abolished).
• Option 1 is wrong: The 1935 Act introduced limited franchise based on property and education qualifications; universal adult franchise was introduced only by the Constitution of India in 1950.
• Option 2 is wrong: It abolished dyarchy in the provinces (not at the centre); at the central level, the Governor-General retained extensive reserve powers.
• Option 4 is wrong: The 1935 Act did not guarantee fundamental rights; that was a feature of the Indian Constitution of 1950.

Current Affairs (2)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q16. According to the 2025 World Happiness Report, what is India's rank out of 147 countries?

  1. (a) 35
  2. (b) 59
  3. (c) 118
  4. (d) 129
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 118

118 is correct. According to the 2025 World Happiness Report, India ranked 118 out of 147 countries. This reflects relatively lower scores on factors like social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perceptions of corruption compared to higher-ranked countries.
• 35: This rank corresponds to more developed or high-income nations; India's rank is significantly lower.
• 59: A mid-tier rank that does not reflect India's actual position in the 2025 report.
• 129: While some editions have placed India lower, 118 is the reported rank for the 2025 edition.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q17. Which Indian city is scheduled to host the World Para Athletics Championships in 2025?

  1. (a) Lucknow
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Bangalore
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

New Delhi is correct. New Delhi was selected to host the World Para Athletics Championships in 2025. This is a major international multi-disability athletics event organized by World Athletics (formerly IAAF) and the IPC Athletics. Hosting this event demonstrates India's growing capacity to organize world-class para-sports events.
• Lucknow: Not the designated host for the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships.
• Bangalore: While Bangalore is a major Indian city with sports infrastructure, it was not selected for this championship.
• Hyderabad: Not the host city for the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships.
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