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Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 12 January 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 18 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 on 12 January 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Static GK, Polity, Economics, Geography, Chemistry.

📚 18 questions🗓️ 12 January 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Ancient History (2) · Static GK (5) · Polity (1) · Economics (4) · Geography (1) · Chemistry (1) · Computer (1) · Current Affairs (1) · Medieval History (1) · Physics (1)

Ancient History (2)

Sources and Prehistoric India · Mesolithic Age

Q1. The widespread use of microliths and early signs of domestication in India are characteristic of which prehistoric phase?

  1. (a) Paleolithic
  2. (b) Mesolithic
  3. (c) Neolithic
  4. (d) Chalcolithic
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mesolithic

Mesolithic is correct. The Mesolithic (Middle Stone Age, c. 10,000–6,000 BCE in India) is characterized by the use of microliths — tiny, geometrically shaped blades and flakes of stone used as composite tools. This period also shows early signs of animal domestication and semi-nomadic lifestyles, marking the transition from hunter-gatherer communities toward settled agriculture.
• Paleolithic: The Old Stone Age used large, crude stone tools (hand axes, cleavers); microliths had not yet developed.
• Neolithic: The New Stone Age is characterized by polished stone tools, settled agriculture, and pottery — a further development from the Mesolithic.
• Chalcolithic: This phase is defined by the use of copper alongside stone tools; microliths are not its primary characteristic.
Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q2. Which of the following is true about the Vishnu Cave murals at Badami?

  1. (a) They depict Jain themes on the sanctum wall.
  2. (b) They began a new southern miniature style, unrelated to earlier art.
  3. (c) They appear on the mandapa roof and continue the Ajanta mural tradition.
  4. (d) The cave was built in the 12th century under the Cholas.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They appear on the mandapa roof and continue the Ajanta mural tradition.

Option 3 is correct. The Badami Cave temples (6th–8th century CE, Chalukya period) in Karnataka contain notable murals in Cave 1 (Shiva cave) and Cave 3 (Vishnu cave). The murals in the Vishnu cave appear on the mandapa (pillared hall) ceiling and walls, and they are considered stylistic continuations of the Ajanta mural tradition — featuring similar naturalistic figures, narrative scenes, and painterly techniques.
• Option 1 is wrong: The Vishnu Cave at Badami depicts Vaishnava (Vishnu/Hindu) themes, not Jain themes. Cave 4 at Badami has Jain imagery.
• Option 2 is wrong: The Badami murals do not represent a new miniature style unrelated to earlier art; they are firmly rooted in the Ajanta tradition.
• Option 4 is wrong: The Badami cave temples were built during the Chalukya period (6th–8th century CE), not the 12th century, and not under the Cholas.

Static GK (5)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q3. What is the socio-religious significance of Sammakka in tribal belief systems?

  1. (a) Rain deity
  2. (b) War goddess who resisted state power
  3. (c) Fertility goddess
  4. (d) Forest protector spirit
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) War goddess who resisted state power

War goddess who resisted state power is correct. Sammakka is a revered deity of the tribal communities of Telangana, particularly the Koya and Gond tribes. According to tribal legend, she was a warrior queen or chieftain who fought against the Kakatiya rulers to protect her people's rights. She attained martyrdom in battle, and was subsequently deified. The Sammakka-Saralamma Jatara held at Medaram (Telangana) is one of the largest tribal fairs in India, celebrating her defiance of unjust state power.
• Rain deity: Sammakka is not specifically a rain deity; her significance is as a warrior-martyr who resisted oppression.
• Fertility goddess: While tribal deities may have multiple associations, Sammakka's primary socio-religious identity is as a warrior goddess and symbol of resistance.
• Forest protector spirit: Her significance relates to political resistance and tribal identity, not specifically forest protection.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q4. BIMSTEC's relevance has grown in India's foreign policy due to what?

  1. (a) India's decreased interest in ASEAN
  2. (b) The collapse of SAARC
  3. (c) Focus on Bay of Bengal regional cooperation
  4. (d) BRICS inviting Pakistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Focus on Bay of Bengal regional cooperation

Option 3 is correct. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) groups nations around the Bay of Bengal — India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan. Its growing relevance in India's foreign policy stems from its geographic and strategic focus on Bay of Bengal connectivity, trade, and maritime security, which aligns with India's Act East Policy and broader Indo-Pacific strategy.
• Option 1 is wrong: India's interest in ASEAN has not decreased — ASEAN remains a key pillar of India's Act East Policy.
• Option 2 is wrong: SAARC has not formally collapsed; it remains dormant due to India-Pakistan tensions, which is one reason India has pivoted toward BIMSTEC, but SAARC's collapse is not the stated cause of BIMSTEC's rise.
• Option 4 is wrong: BRICS has not invited Pakistan, and this is unrelated to BIMSTEC's relevance in India's foreign policy.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q5. In which year did the Indian women's hockey team first qualify for the Olympics?

  1. (a) 1980
  2. (b) 1984
  3. (c) 1992
  4. (d) 2000
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1980

1980 is correct. The Indian women's hockey team first participated in the Olympic Games at the 1980 Moscow Olympics — the first time women's field hockey was included as an Olympic event. India finished fourth in that inaugural women's hockey tournament at the Moscow Olympics.
• 1984: India did not participate in the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics due to India's boycott in solidarity with the Soviet Union's 1980 boycott. Also, 1984 was not the first qualification.
• 1992: By 1992, the Indian women's team had already participated in previous Olympics; 1992 was not their first appearance.
• 2000: India's women's hockey team qualified again for the 2000 Sydney Olympics after a long gap, but this was not their first qualification.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q6. Which of the following instruments are correctly matched with their use or performance context?
1. Sri-khol - Kirtan
2. Ektara - Baul singing
3. Dhol - Rabha war dance

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

All three (1, 2 and 3) are correctly matched:
• Sri-khol (Khol) – Kirtan: The khol is a clay/terracotta barrel drum used prominently in Bengali and Assamese kirtan (devotional singing), particularly associated with Vaishnavite traditions and the Bhakti movement.
• Ektara – Baul singing: The ektara is a single-stringed drone instrument used by Baul folk singers of Bengal. It is synonymous with Baul music and the wandering mystic-poet tradition.
• Dhol – Rabha war dance: The dhol (double-headed drum) is used in the Rabha community's traditional war dances and folk performances. The Rabha tribe of Assam uses the dhol prominently in their cultural ceremonies.
Since all three pairs are correctly matched, '1, 2 and 3 are correct' is the right answer.
Awards and Honours · Sports awards (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, Dronacharya, Dhyan Chand)

Q7. Match the following awards in Column A with their correct purpose in Column B. Choose the correct option.
Column A: A. Arjuna Award | B. Dronacharya Award | C. Khel Ratna Award
Column B: 1. Coach Recognition | 2. Outstanding Performance | 3. Top Sporting Honor

  1. (a) A-2, B-1, C-3
  2. (b) A-1, B-2, C-3
  3. (c) A-3, B-1, C-2
  4. (d) A-2, B-3, C-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3

A-2, B-1, C-3 is correct.
• A. Arjuna Award – 2. Outstanding Performance: The Arjuna Award is given to athletes for outstanding performance in sports over the last 4 years and for the year of nomination.
• B. Dronacharya Award – 1. Coach Recognition: The Dronacharya Award is given to coaches who have produced outstanding sportspersons at the national and international level.
• C. Khel Ratna Award (Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award) – 3. Top Sporting Honor: The Khel Ratna is India's highest sporting honor, awarded for the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of four years.
• Option 2 (A-1, B-2, C-3) is wrong: Arjuna is not for coaches.
• Option 3 (A-3, B-1, C-2) is wrong: Arjuna is not the top sporting honor; Khel Ratna is.
• Option 4 (A-2, B-3, C-1) is wrong: Khel Ratna is not for coaches.

Polity (1)

Elections, Parties and Representation · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q8. Regarding the Delimitation Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct and aligns with the constitutional provisions and Supreme Court interpretations related to its powers and functioning?

  1. (a) The Delimitation Commission's orders are subject to judicial review, and the Supreme Court can modify its decisions if they violate principles of equality under Article 14.
  2. (b) The Delimitation Commission is a constitutional body appointed every 5 years to ensure proportional representation in Parliament and State Assemblies, and its orders take effect only after Presidential assent.
  3. (c) The Delimitation Commission's orders are final and binding, cannot be challenged in any court, and are implemented as per the schedule laid down in the delimitation order.
  4. (d) The Constitution mandates that the Delimitation Commission must fix equal population for every parliamentary and assembly constituency, without exceptions for special provisions like Scheduled Tribes or geographical considerations.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Delimitation Commission's orders are final and binding, cannot be challenged in any court, and are implemented as per the schedule laid down in the delimitation order.

Option 3 is correct. Under the Delimitation Commission Act and Article 327 of the Constitution, the orders of the Delimitation Commission are final and cannot be questioned in any court of law. The Supreme Court has consistently held that delimitation orders have constitutional protection from judicial review (as affirmed in Meghraj Kothari v. Delimitation Commission). Orders are directly notified in the Gazette and come into force on the date specified therein.
• Option 1 is wrong: Delimitation orders are explicitly immune from judicial review — this is one of their most distinctive constitutional features.
• Option 2 is wrong: The Delimitation Commission is a statutory (not constitutional) body, not appointed every 5 years on a fixed schedule; delimitation exercises are conducted after each census as directed by Parliament, and orders do not require Presidential assent.
• Option 4 is wrong: The Delimitation Commission accommodates exceptions — constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes, and geographical considerations affect delimitation in hilly/remote areas.

Economics (4)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q9. Which of the following statements about MGNREGA is incorrect?

  1. (a) MGNREGA guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
  2. (b) The Act mandates the payment of unemployment allowance to applicants if the government fails to provide employment within 15 days of application.
  3. (c) MGNREGA allows for works related to agriculture, forestry, water conservation, and rural infrastructure development.
  4. (d) The funding for MGNREGA is shared equally between the Central and State Governments, with States responsible for wage payments.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The funding for MGNREGA is shared equally between the Central and State Governments, with States responsible for wage payments.

Option 4 is the incorrect statement. MGNREGA is primarily a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with the following funding pattern: the Central Government bears 100% of unskilled wage costs, 75% of material and skilled wages, and administrative costs; the State Government bears only 25% of material/skilled wage costs. The States are NOT responsible for wage payments, and the funding is not shared equally.
• Option 1 is correct: MGNREGA does guarantee at least 100 days of wage employment per rural household per financial year.
• Option 2 is correct: Under Section 7 of the Act, if employment is not provided within 15 days of application, the applicant is entitled to an unemployment allowance.
• Option 3 is correct: Permissible works under MGNREGA include water conservation, land development, rural connectivity, agriculture and allied activities, and forestry.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q10. Which sector received substantial public sector investment and saw significant growth during India's initial planning period (1950s–1980s)?

  1. (a) Information Technology and Software Services
  2. (b) Heavy and Basic Industries
  3. (c) Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG)
  4. (d) Tourism and Hospitality
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Heavy and Basic Industries

Heavy and Basic Industries is correct. India's early Five-Year Plans (1951–1980s) under the Nehru-Mahalanobis model prioritized investment in heavy and basic industries — steel plants (Bhilai, Durgapur, Rourkela), power plants, fertilizer factories, machine tools, and chemical industries. This was based on the strategy that building a strong industrial base (capital goods sector) would generate self-sustaining economic growth.
• Information Technology and Software Services: India's IT boom came in the 1990s–2000s, well after the initial planning period.
• Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG): FMCG was largely a private sector domain and was not a primary target of public sector investment in early planning.
• Tourism and Hospitality: Not a priority sector in early Indian planning; the focus was on industrialization and infrastructure.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q11. What was the main reason for launching economic reforms in India in July 1991?

  1. (a) Trade surplus
  2. (b) Acute balance of payments crisis
  3. (c) High agricultural output
  4. (d) Booming exports
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Acute balance of payments crisis

Acute balance of payments crisis is correct. By 1991, India faced a severe balance of payments (BOP) crisis — foreign exchange reserves had fallen to just about 2–3 weeks of import cover, forcing India to pledge 67 tonnes of gold to the Bank of England as collateral to secure an IMF loan. The crisis was caused by Gulf War oil price shocks, rising import bills, declining remittances, and fiscal mismanagement. This compelled PM Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh to launch landmark economic liberalization reforms.
• Trade surplus: India had a trade deficit, not a surplus, in 1991.
• High agricultural output: Agricultural performance was not the trigger; it was a macroeconomic financial crisis.
• Booming exports: India's exports were not booming in 1991; the BOP crisis was caused partly by export stagnation and high imports.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q12. Which report regularly publishes the Human Development Index (HDI) including India's ranking?

  1. (a) WHO Global Health Report
  2. (b) UNDP Human Development Report
  3. (c) UNESCO Global Wellbeing Index
  4. (d) World Bank Ease of Living Report
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) UNDP Human Development Report

UNDP Human Development Report is correct. The Human Development Index (HDI) is published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in its Human Development Report (HDR). The HDI measures a country's development based on three dimensions: health (life expectancy at birth), education (mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling), and standard of living (Gross National Income per capita).
• WHO Global Health Report: Published by the World Health Organization, it focuses on global health statistics and disease data — it does not publish the HDI.
• UNESCO Global Wellbeing Index: UNESCO does not publish a 'Global Wellbeing Index'; UNESCO's reports focus on education, culture, and science.
• World Bank Ease of Living Report: The World Bank publishes reports on poverty and development but not the HDI; the Ease of Doing Business Index (discontinued in 2021) was a World Bank product.

Geography (1)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Glacial landforms

Q13. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the formation, composition, and geomorphic importance of eskers in glacial landscapes?

  1. (a) Eskers are steep-sided, elongated ridges composed mainly of till, formed by subaerial erosion during glacial retreat in temperate climates.
  2. (b) Eskers are sinuous ridges of stratified sand and gravel deposited by subglacial meltwater streams flowing within ice tunnels, serving as evidence of former glacial drainage patterns.
  3. (c) Eskers are depositional features formed by wind action on glacial outwash plains, typically consisting of fine loess deposits accumulated during the last ice age.
  4. (d) Eskers form due to the lateral morainic deposition along valley sides and primarily indicate the maximum extent of glacial advance.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Eskers are sinuous ridges of stratified sand and gravel deposited by subglacial meltwater streams flowing within ice tunnels, serving as evidence of former glacial drainage patterns.

Option 2 is correct. Eskers are long, winding (sinuous) ridges of stratified (layered) sand and gravel. They form when meltwater streams flowing through tunnels within or beneath a glacier deposit their sediment load. When the glacier retreats, these tunnel-fill deposits are left as ridge-like landforms on the landscape — serving as important geomorphic evidence of former subglacial drainage patterns.
• Option 1 is wrong: Eskers are composed of stratified sand and gravel (fluvioglacial deposits), not till (unstratified glacial sediment); and they form from subglacial meltwater streams, not subaerial erosion.
• Option 3 is wrong: Eskers are formed by water (meltwater streams), not wind action; loess is a wind-deposited material and unrelated to esker formation.
• Option 4 is wrong: Eskers are not morainic deposits along valley sides; moraines form from debris carried on/in the ice. Eskers indicate subglacial drainage routes, not the maximum extent of glacial advance.

Chemistry (1)

Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Chemicals in cosmetics and household products

Q14. Which of the following statements about mosquito repellant creams is incorrect?

  1. (a) DEET (N,N-Diethyl-meta-toluamide) is a widely used active ingredient in mosquito repellents that works by interfering with the mosquito's olfactory receptors.
  2. (b) Mosquito repellant creams provide a physical barrier preventing mosquitoes from biting by forming a thick layer on the skin.
  3. (c) Natural repellents like citronella oil act by masking human scent and disrupting mosquito host detection.
  4. (d) The effectiveness of mosquito repellents depends on factors such as concentration, formulation, and environmental conditions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mosquito repellant creams provide a physical barrier preventing mosquitoes from biting by forming a thick layer on the skin.

Option 2 is the incorrect statement. Mosquito repellant creams do NOT work by forming a physical barrier on the skin. They work chemically — by releasing volatile compounds (like DEET or citronella) that interfere with the mosquito's chemical sensory systems (olfactory receptors), confusing or deterring the mosquito from detecting and landing on the host. A thick cream layer does not stop a mosquito from penetrating it to bite.
• Option 1 is correct: DEET is one of the most widely used repellents and works by blocking/confusing the mosquito's olfactory (smell) receptors that detect human-emitted compounds like CO₂ and lactic acid.
• Option 3 is correct: Natural repellents like citronella mask human scent, making it harder for mosquitoes to locate and identify a human host.
• Option 4 is correct: Repellent effectiveness depends on concentration (higher DEET % lasts longer), formulation (lotion vs. spray), and environmental factors (temperature, humidity, sweating).

Computer (1)

Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · IT companies and founders

Q15. Who is the Indian-origin CEO of Alphabet Inc. and Google, known for driving AI expansion and product innovation globally?

  1. (a) Satya Nadella
  2. (b) Arvind Krishna
  3. (c) Parag Agrawal
  4. (d) Sundar Pichai
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sundar Pichai

Sundar Pichai is correct. Sundar Pichai (born Pichai Sundararajan) is the Indian-origin CEO of both Google LLC and its parent company Alphabet Inc. He has been at the forefront of Google's transformation into an AI-first company, overseeing products like Google Search, Gmail, Google Maps, Android, Chrome, and AI initiatives including Gemini and Google DeepMind.
• Satya Nadella: Indian-origin CEO of Microsoft, not Google/Alphabet.
• Arvind Krishna: Indian-origin CEO of IBM, not Google/Alphabet.
• Parag Agrawal: Former Indian-origin CEO of Twitter (now X), not Google/Alphabet.

Current Affairs (1)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q16. What is the primary objective of NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar), the Earth-observation satellite developed jointly by NASA and ISRO?

  1. (a) To study solar storms and space radiation hazards
  2. (b) To provide real-time weather forecasting using radar pulses
  3. (c) To monitor Earth's surface changes and ecosystem disturbances
  4. (d) To track atmospheric pollutants and ozone depletion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To monitor Earth's surface changes and ecosystem disturbances

Option 3 is correct. NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth-observation satellite mission by NASA (USA) and ISRO (India). Its primary objective is to measure and monitor Earth's surface changes including land subsidence, glacier movement, earthquake deformation, volcanic activity, ecosystem disturbances (wetlands, forests), and sea-level-related coastal changes — using dual-frequency SAR (L-band by NASA, S-band by ISRO). It will scan Earth's entire surface every 12 days.
• Option 1 is wrong: Studying solar storms is the role of heliospheric observatories like ADITYA-L1 (ISRO) or NASA's Parker Solar Probe; not NISAR.
• Option 2 is wrong: Real-time weather forecasting uses meteorological satellites (like INSAT/GOES series); NISAR is not a weather satellite.
• Option 4 is wrong: Tracking atmospheric pollutants and ozone is done by satellites like Sentinel-5P or TROPOMI instruments; NISAR focuses on surface deformation, not atmospheric chemistry.

Medieval History (1)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Bahmani kingdom

Q17. Which of the following statements regarding the Bahmani Sultanate's history and decline is correct?

  1. (a) Rulers were always appointed by the Delhi Sultanate.
  2. (b) Mahmud Gawan's assassination weakened the Sultanate.
  3. (c) Capital stayed only at Gulbarga throughout.
  4. (d) Bahmanis built the Sun Temple at Konark.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mahmud Gawan's assassination weakened the Sultanate.

Option 2 is correct. Mahmud Gawan (1411–1481 CE) was the most able minister (wakil-us-saltanat) of the Bahmani Sultanate, instrumental in its administrative efficiency and military expansion. His execution in 1481 by Sultan Muhammad Shah III on false charges of treason proved catastrophic — it alienated the Deccani nobles, fueled factional conflicts between Deccanis and Afaqis (foreigners), and accelerated the fragmentation of the Sultanate into five successor states (the Deccan Sultanates).
• Option 1 is wrong: The Bahmani Sultanate was founded in 1347 when Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah declared independence from the Delhi Sultanate; rulers were not appointed by Delhi.
• Option 3 is wrong: The capital was originally at Gulbarga (1347–1425) but was later shifted to Bidar by Ahmad Shah Wali in 1425.
• Option 4 is wrong: The Sun Temple at Konark was built by Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty (c. 1250 CE), not the Bahmanis.

Physics (1)

Modern Physics and Electronics · X-rays, LASER and photoelectric effect

Q18. As per current physics, what is the mass of a photon?

  1. (a) 1 kg
  2. (b) 9.1×10⁻³¹ kg
  3. (c) 0 kg
  4. (d) 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ kg
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 0 kg

0 kg is correct. According to the Standard Model of particle physics and Einstein's theory of special relativity, photons are massless particles — they have zero rest mass. This is why photons can travel at the speed of light (c = 3×10⁸ m/s); only massless particles can achieve this speed. Although photons carry energy (E = hf) and momentum (p = h/λ), their rest mass is exactly zero.
• 1 kg: Photons have no measurable mass; 1 kg is an absurdly large macroscopic mass with no relevance to subatomic particles.
• 9.1×10⁻³¹ kg: This is the rest mass of an electron, not a photon.
• 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ kg: This value (approximately) is sometimes confused with the elementary charge (1.6×10⁻¹⁹ coulombs); it is not a mass value associated with photons.
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