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Diseases, Immunity and Health PYQs – Biology, SSC & Railway

87 Diseases, Immunity and Health (Biology) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 87 questionsSSC 39 · Railway 48
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 12 September 2026 Shift 2 · First aid, ORS and everyday remedies

Q1. Why do we feel refreshed after drinking ORS during dehydration?

  1. (a) It supplies calories
  2. (b) It stimulates nerves
  3. (c) It restores electrolytes and water
  4. (d) It increases oxygen flow
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It restores electrolytes and water

Answer: Option 3 — It restores electrolytes and water
Dehydration is the loss of water and salts (sodium, potassium, chloride) from the body, usually through diarrhoea, vomiting or heavy sweating.
ORS replaces exactly these; the small amount of glucose in it is there to pull sodium and water into the blood, not to feed the body.
Revision note — Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS)
• ORS works on sodium–glucose co-transport: the SGLT1 carrier in the small intestine absorbs sodium only along with glucose, and water follows the sodium by osmosis.
• This is why plain water, or salt water without sugar, is absorbed far less well.
• WHO and UNICEF low-osmolarity ORS (2002), per litre of clean water: sodium chloride 2.6 g, glucose 13.5 g, potassium chloride 1.5 g, trisodium citrate 2.9 g; total osmolarity 245 mOsm/L.
• Home substitute: six level teaspoons of sugar and half a teaspoon of salt in one litre of clean water.
• In childhood diarrhoea ORS is given with zinc — 20 mg a day for 14 days (10 mg for infants under six months) — which shortens the episode.
• Oral rehydration therapy was proven in the 1971 refugee camps of the Bangladesh war by Dr Dilip Mahalanabis of the cholera laboratory at Dhaka (now icddr,b).
• He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan posthumously in 2023.
• The Lancet called ORT "potentially the most important medical advance of the 20th century"; India observes ORS Day on 29 July.
Do not mix these up
• ORS vs glucose drink — a sweet drink gives calories but very little sodium; ORS is balanced so that glucose only helps sodium and water get absorbed.
• Dehydration vs malnutrition — dehydration is loss of water and electrolytes over hours; malnutrition is a long-term shortage of nutrients.

Q2. Which of the following statements best describes the design, working mechanism, and challenges associated with recombinant vector vaccines?

  1. (a) Recombinant vector vaccines use inactivated whole pathogens to stimulate immunity and require multiple booster doses due to their low immunogenicity.
  2. (b) These vaccines utilize a harmless viral or bacterial vector genetically engineered to express antigenic proteins of a target pathogen, eliciting a strong cellular and humoral immune response, but face challenges like vector immunity and stability issues.
  3. (c) Recombinant vector vaccines directly inject synthetic antigenic peptides without involving any genetic material, leading to rapid but short-lived immunity.
  4. (d) Such vaccines rely solely on the production of DNA plasmids without any viral components, making them ineffective against intracellular pathogens.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) These vaccines utilize a harmless viral or bacterial vector genetically engineered to express antigenic proteins of a target pathogen, eliciting a strong cellular and humoral immune response, but face challenges like vector immunity and stability issues.

Answer: Option 2 — These vaccines utilize a harmless viral or bacterial vector genetically engineered to express antigenic proteins of a target pathogen, eliciting a strong cellular and humoral immune response, but face challenges like vector immunity and stability issues.
A harmless carrier virus (usually an adenovirus) is given the gene for the pathogen's antigen; our own cells then make the antigen and both antibodies (humoral) and T-cells (cellular) respond.
The catch: if the body already knows the carrier virus, it destroys it before the antigen is made — vector immunity.
Revision note — Vaccine platforms
• Viral vector vaccines: Covishield (Oxford–AstraZeneca, made by the Serum Institute of India) uses the chimpanzee adenovirus ChAdOx1.
• Sputnik V uses adenoviruses Ad26 and Ad5; Johnson & Johnson uses Ad26; the Ebola vaccine Ervebo uses a VSV vector.
• India's iNCOVACC (Bharat Biotech, 2022) is an adenovirus-vectored intranasal COVID-19 vaccine — the world's first of its kind.
• Inactivated whole-virus vaccines: Covaxin (Bharat Biotech with ICMR–NIV Pune), Salk polio vaccine, rabies vaccine.
• Live attenuated: BCG, oral polio (Sabin), measles, MMR — weakened but living pathogen, strong long immunity.
• Protein subunit / recombinant protein: Hepatitis B vaccine (antigen made in yeast), Corbevax (Biological E), Covovax (SII–Novavax).
• Nucleic acid vaccines: mRNA — Pfizer, Moderna, and India's first, GEMCOVAC-19 by Gennova, Pune (2022); DNA — ZyCoV-D by Zydus Cadila (2021), the world's first DNA vaccine.
• Edward Jenner gave the first vaccine (smallpox, 1796); Louis Pasteur made the rabies vaccine (1885).
Do not mix these up
• Recombinant vector vaccine vs recombinant protein vaccine — the vector vaccine delivers a gene inside a carrier virus; the protein vaccine (Hepatitis B) delivers the ready-made protein.
• Vector vaccine vs mRNA vaccine — both make the body produce the antigen, but the vector uses a DNA gene inside a virus, the mRNA vaccine uses naked mRNA inside a lipid particle, with no virus at all.
Also asked from this topic: the developer of India's first mRNA vaccine (Gennova Biopharmaceuticals); the maker of the world's first DNA vaccine ZyCoV-D (Zydus Cadila); diseases covered under the UIP (12).

Q3. A long-term smoker develops a chronic cough and frequent respiratory infections. Which physiological change in the respiratory tract primarily contributes to this increased susceptibility?

  1. (a) Narrowing of bronchi
  2. (b) Increased mucus production
  3. (c) Destruction of cilia in the upper respiratory tract
  4. (d) Thickening of bronchial walls
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Destruction of cilia in the upper respiratory tract

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Destruction of cilia in the upper respiratory tract
Explanation:
Cilia lining the respiratory tract normally trap and sweep out dust, microbes, and mucus, keeping the airways clean. Chronic smokingdestroys/paralyzes these cilia, impairing this natural cleaning (mucociliary clearance) mechanism. This allows mucus, pathogens, and irritants to accumulate, leading to chronic cough ('smoker's cough') and recurrent respiratory infections.
Important Facts:
• Cilia damage is a hallmark of chronic bronchitis seen in long-term smokers.
• Increased mucus production also occurs but the loss of cilia's clearing function is the primary reason for recurrent infections.
• This ciliary damage can be partially reversible if smoking is stopped early.

Q4. Smoking increases the risk of which disease related to blood vessels?

  1. (a) Anaemia
  2. (b) Cardiovascular disease
  3. (c) Diabetes
  4. (d) Goitre
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cardiovascular disease

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:
Smoking damages blood vessels, raises blood pressure, promotes plaque buildup (atherosclerosis), and reduces oxygen supply to the heart, significantly increasing the risk of cardiovascular (heart and blood vessel) diseases such as heart attacks and strokes.
Important Facts:
• Nicotine and carbon monoxide in tobacco smoke are major contributors to vascular damage.
• Smoking is also a major risk factor for lung cancer and chronic respiratory diseases.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 21 August 2026 Shift 3 · Health organisations and programmes

Q5. What was the name of the programme dedicated to the nation by Dr. Jitendra Singh in May 2026 to promote early intervention and affordable healthcare for rare genetic disorders and genome-based precision medicine?

  1. (a) SAKSHAM
  2. (b) UMMID
  3. (c) AYUSH
  4. (d) UMANG
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) UMMID

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – UMMID
Explanation:
Union MinisterDr Jitendra Singh dedicated the UMMID programmeto the nation in May 2026, aimed at early intervention, affordable healthcare for rare genetic disorders, and genome-based precision medicine, confirmed by PIB and Daily Excelsior.
Important Facts:
• UMMID stands for Unique Methods of Management and treatment of Inherited Disorders.
• Dr Jitendra Singh is the Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology and MoS PMO.

Q6. Which of the following statements, correctly explains how smoking affects the respiratory system in humans?

  1. (a) Tar in tobacco strengthens the walls of alveoli
  2. (b) Carbon monoxide in smoke combines with haemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport to tissues
  3. (c) Smoking increases the surface area of alveoli for better gas exchange in the tissues
  4. (d) Nicotine increases oxygen-carrying capacity of blood to various tissues
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Carbon monoxide in smoke combines with haemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport to tissues

Explanation:
Carbon monoxide present in tobacco smoke binds to haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen does, forming carboxyhaemoglobin. This reduces haemoglobin's capacity to transport oxygen to body tissues, causing oxygen deprivation.
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Carbon monoxide in smoke combines with haemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport to tissues
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 21 August 2026 Shift 2 · Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases

Q7. Which of the following pairs is I̲N̲C̲O̲R̲R̲E̲C̲T̲?̲

  1. (a) Embryo — Uses programmed cell death for shaping
  2. (b) Malignant — Tissue invasion
  3. (c) Normal Cell — Definite lifespan
  4. (d) Cancer Cell — Controlled division
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cancer Cell — Controlled division

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Cancer Cell — Controlled division
Explanation:
Cancer cells are characterized byuncontrolled, unregulated cell division, not controlled division — making this pairing incorrect. Embryonic cells do use programmed cell death (apoptosis) to shape organs, malignant tumours do invade surrounding tissue, and normal cells do have a definite (limited) lifespan — so those three pairs are correct.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 18 August 2026 Shift 2 · Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases

Q8. When the regulatory mechanisms controlling cell growth fail, cells begin to divide uncontrollably, leading to the formation of __________.

  1. (a) Cell inclusions
  2. (b) Tumours
  3. (c) Vacuoles
  4. (d) Organ systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tumours

Uncontrolled Cell Division
When the mechanisms that normally regulate cell growth and division fail, cells lose control over their division rate and start dividing uncontrollably.
This uncontrolled, abnormal mass of cell growth is called atumour. Tumours may be benign (non-cancerous) or malignant (cancerous).
Correct Answer: Tumours

Q9. Which of the following organs is most commonly affected by smoking tobacco products?

  1. (a) Pancreas
  2. (b) Intestine
  3. (c) Lungs
  4. (d) Brain
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lungs

Answer: Option 3 – Lungs.
• Smoking tobacco most commonly damages thelungs.

Q10. A patient develops frequent coughing and respiratory infections after starting to smoke. Which physiological change best explains this?

  1. (a) Loss of cilia function in the upper respiratory tract
  2. (b) Excess saliva secretion in the oral cavity
  3. (c) Bronchial constriction throughout the lungs
  4. (d) Rapid increase in blood pressure and heart rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Loss of cilia function in the upper respiratory tract

Answer: Option 1 – Loss of cilia function in the upper respiratory tract.
• Smoking paralyses/destroys thecilia, so mucus and germs are not cleared, causing coughing and infections.

Q11. A patient who frequently chews tobacco products develops difficulty in swallowing and persistent mouth sores. Which health condition is most likely indicated?

  1. (a) Hepatitis
  2. (b) Oral cancer
  3. (c) Asthma
  4. (d) Diabetes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Oral cancer

Answer: Option 2 – Oral cancer.
• Chewing tobacco with mouth sores and swallowing difficulty most likely indicatesoral cancer.

Q12. Which form of cancer has a high occurrence in India due to the use of gutkha?

  1. (a) Skin cancer
  2. (b) Prostate cancer
  3. (c) Bone cancer
  4. (d) Oral cancer
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Oral cancer

Answer: Option 4 – Oral cancer.
• Chewing gutkha/tobacco is a major cause oforal (mouth) cancerin India.

Q13. Which disease involves the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs due to smoking?

  1. (a) Emphysema
  2. (b) Lung cancer
  3. (c) Bronchitis
  4. (d) Asthma
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lung cancer

Answer: Option 2 — Lung cancer
Uncontrolled abnormal cell growth in the lungs due to smoking islung cancer→ Option 2.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 9 August 2026 Shift 3 · Health organisations and programmes

Q14. The 2026 operational expansion of the Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY health insurance scheme ensures universal health cover to which target group?

  1. (a) All full-time educators in rural government institutions
  2. (b) All citizens aged 70 years and above regardless of income
  3. (c) All registered gig workers and platform delivery partners
  4. (d) All small-scale agricultural laborers holding land records
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) All citizens aged 70 years and above regardless of income

Answer: Option 2 — All citizens aged 70 years and above regardless of income
PM-JAY now coversall citizens aged 70+(Ayushman Vay Vandana) → Option 2.

Q15. The Government of India emphasized HPV vaccination during 2025–26 primarily to reduce the burden of which disease among women?

  1. (a) Cervical cancer among women
  2. (b) Diabetes among urban patients
  3. (c) Malaria among pregnant mothers
  4. (d) Tuberculosis among rural women
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cervical cancer among women

Answer: Option 1 — Cervical cancer among women
HPV vaccination targetscervical cancer→ Option 1.
RRB Group D 2025-26 – 4 August 2026 Shift 2 · Health organisations and programmes

Q16. In March 2026, which organization was replaced by the National Dental Commission (NDC) in India as part of recent reforms?

  1. (a) Dental Council of India
  2. (b) Indian Dental Association
  3. (c) National Dental Authority
  4. (d) Dental Board of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dental Council of India

Answer: Option 1 — Dental Council of India
TheDental Council of Indiawas replaced by the National Dental Commission → Option 1.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 June 2026 Shift 2 · Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases

Q17. Diabetes, cancer, and asthma are collectively known as which type of disorders?

  1. (a) Deficiency diseases
  2. (b) Communicable diseases
  3. (c) Airborne diseases
  4. (d) Non-communicable diseases
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Non-communicable diseases

Topic: Classification of Diseases
Diabetes, cancer, and asthma arenon-communicable diseases (NCDs).
Key characteristics:
• Cannot spread from person to person
• Caused by genetic, lifestyle, or environmental factors
• Chronic and long-lasting conditions
Deficiency diseases → caused by lack of nutrients (e.g., scurvy)
Communicable diseases → spread through contact (e.g., flu, TB)
Airborne diseases → spread through air (e.g., tuberculosis)
Answer: Option 4 → Non-communicable diseases

Q18. The deficiency of which vitamin can lead to night blindness?

  1. (a) Vitamin A
  2. (b) Vitamin C
  3. (c) Vitamin B12
  4. (d) Vitamin D
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vitamin A

Topic: Vitamin Deficiency Diseases
Vitamin A (Retinol)is essential for vision, especially in low light conditions.
It helps formrhodopsin(visual purple) in retina cells, which enables vision in dim light.
Deficiency causesnight blindness (nyctalopia)- inability to see in poor light.
Other effects: dry eyes, corneal damage, impaired immunity.
Answer: Option 1 → Vitamin A

Q19. A gastrointestinal disease caused by the protozoan Entamoeba histolytica leads to abdominal pain and stools with excess mucous and blood clots. It often spreads through contaminated food and water via houseflies acting as mechanical carriers. Which disease is described?

  1. (a) Giardiasis
  2. (b) Cholera
  3. (c) Amoebiasis
  4. (d) Ascariasis
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amoebiasis

Disease: Amoebiasis (Amoebic Dysentery)
Causative Agent:Entamoeba histolytica (protozoan)
Key Symptoms:Abdominal pain, stools with excess mucous and blood clots
Transmission:Contaminated food and water, houseflies as mechanical carriers
Other Options:
Giardiasis → Giardia lamblia
Cholera → Vibrio cholerae (bacteria)
Ascariasis → Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm)
Answer: Option 3 → Amoebiasis

Q20. If a person contracts malaria, which type of pathogen is responsible for the disease?

  1. (a) Virus
  2. (b) Fungi
  3. (c) Bacteria
  4. (d) Protozoan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Protozoan

Topic: Malaria Pathogen
Malaria is caused byPlasmodiumspecies.
Plasmodium is aprotozoan parasite.
Transmitted through femaleAnopheles mosquitobite.
Common species: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae.
Answer: Option 4 → Protozoan
SSC GD 2026 – 30 May 2026 Shift 3 · Health organisations and programmes

Q21. By July 2025, more than 72.22 lakh pregnant women are registered as beneficiaries under _________.

  1. (a) Mission Poshan 2.0
  2. (b) Food Fortification Initiative
  3. (c) Eat Right India Movement
  4. (d) PM Gati Shakti
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mission Poshan 2.0

Correct Answer: Mission Poshan 2.0 (Option 1)
Mission Poshan 2.0 (also known as Saksham Anganwadi and POSHAN 2.0) is a government initiative to strengthen nutritional support, focusing on pregnant women, lactating mothers, children under 6 years, and adolescent girls. It integrates the ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) and other nutrition-related schemes. As of July 2025, over 72.22 lakh pregnant women are registered as beneficiaries under this mission.
Why others are wrong:
- Food Fortification Initiative: Deals with adding nutrients to food; it is not a beneficiary registration programme for pregnant women.
- Eat Right India Movement: A FSSAI initiative focused on food safety and healthy eating habits.
- PM Gati Shakti: A national master plan for infrastructure connectivity; unrelated to maternal nutrition.
SSC GD 2026 – 29 May 2026 Shift 3 · Health organisations and programmes

Q22. Under the AB PM-JAY expansion, senior citizens within families already covered by AB PM-JAY will receive an additional top-up cover of up to Rs _____ lakh per year.

  1. (a) 2.5
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 7.5
  4. (d) 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 5

Correct Answer: Rs 5 lakh — Option (b)
Under the AB PM-JAY expansion, senior citizens within already-covered families receive an additional top-up cover of Rs 5 lakh per year. About AB PM-JAY Expansion for Senior Citizens: Announcement: September 2024, by PM Narendra Modi (as a gift to the nation on his birthday, coinciding with the 6th anniversary of Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY); Scheme name: Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY); Expansion: Extended to ALL citizens aged 70 years and above regardless of income; Two categories of senior citizens: (1) Senior citizens (70+) in families ALREADY covered by AB PM-JAY: Will receive an ADDITIONAL TOP-UP cover of Rs 5 lakh per year; This is OVER AND ABOVE the existing family cover; The top-up cannot be used by other family members; (2) Senior citizens (70+) in families NOT covered by AB PM-JAY: Will get a fresh annual cover of Rs 5 lakh per year; About AB PM-JAY: Launched: September 23, 2018; Type: Health insurance/assurance scheme; Coverage: Rs 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization; Beneficiaries: Bottom 40% of India's population (based on SECC 2011 data) — approximately 50 crore people; Number of beneficiaries after expansion: Additional 4.5 crore senior citizens added; Total beneficiaries: Approximately 55 crore; Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare; Implementation: National Health Authority (NHA); AB PM-JAY is cashless and paperless at empaneled hospitals.
Option (a) Rs 2.5 lakh — Incorrect: The additional top-up cover under AB PM-JAY expansion for senior citizens in already-covered families is NOT Rs 2.5 lakh; it is Rs 5 lakh per year; Rs 2.5 lakh is half the actual amount; the Government announced Rs 5 lakh as the additional top-up for senior citizens (70 years and above) in families already covered under AB PM-JAY. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Rs 7.5 lakh — Incorrect: The additional top-up cover is NOT Rs 7.5 lakh; it is Rs 5 lakh per year; Rs 7.5 lakh is the incorrect amount; the standard AB PM-JAY cover is Rs 5 lakh per family per year, and the additional top-up for senior citizens is also Rs 5 lakh (matching the existing cover amount), bringing their total potential cover to Rs 10 lakh per year.
Option (d) Rs 10 lakh — Incorrect: The additional top-up cover is NOT Rs 10 lakh per year; the top-up is Rs 5 lakh per year; however, Rs 10 lakh would be the TOTAL potential coverage for senior citizens in already-covered families (existing Rs 5 lakh family cover + Rs 5 lakh top-up = Rs 10 lakh), but the question asks for the top-up amount specifically, which is Rs 5 lakh.

Q23. The incidence of oral cancer in India is strongly linked to the frequent consumption of which of the following harmful substances?

  1. (a) Fried food
  2. (b) Soft drinks
  3. (c) Tobacco
  4. (d) High-salt diet
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tobacco

Topic: Oral Cancer Risk Factors in India
Key Facts:
1. Tobacco (smoking & chewing) is theprimary causeof oral cancer in India.
2. India has one of the highest rates of oral cancer globally due to widespread tobacco use.
3. Chewing tobacco products like gutka, paan masala, and betel quid significantly increase risk.
Answer: Option 3 → Tobacco
SSC GD 2026 – 6 May 2026 Shift 1 · Drug and alcohol abuse

Q24. What are anabolic steroids primarily used for by athletes who misuse them?

  1. (a) Increase endurance
  2. (b) Enhance flexibility
  3. (c) Build muscle mass
  4. (d) Reduce fatigue
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Build muscle mass

Correct Answer: Build muscle mass — Option (c)
Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone. When misused by athletes, their primary purpose is to build muscle mass (muscle hypertrophy) rapidly. Anabolic steroids promote protein synthesis in muscle cells, leading to faster muscle growth and increased strength. This allows athletes to train harder and recover faster. However, their misuse is banned in sports by WADA due to serious health risks including liver damage, cardiovascular problems, hormonal imbalance, and psychological effects.
Option (a) Increase endurance — Incorrect: Endurance is primarily increased through EPO (erythropoietin), which boosts red blood cell production. Anabolic steroids are specifically used for muscle mass and strength, not aerobic endurance.
Option (b) Enhance flexibility — Incorrect: Anabolic steroids do not enhance flexibility. Flexibility is improved through stretching and yoga-type training, not pharmacological agents.
Option (d) Reduce fatigue — Incorrect: While stronger muscles may indirectly delay fatigue, 'reducing fatigue' is not the primary reason athletes misuse anabolic steroids; building muscle mass is the main goal.

Q25. Which combination of symptoms is the most common characteristic of influenza in humans?

  1. (a) Rash, itching, and swelling
  2. (b) Vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration
  3. (c) Fever, cough, and body aches
  4. (d) Chest pain, palpitations, and sweating
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fever, cough, and body aches

Topic: Influenza (Flu) Symptoms
Common Influenza Symptoms:
• High fever (100-104°F)
• Dry cough
• Severe body aches and muscle pain
• Fatigue and weakness
• Headache and chills
Other Options:
Option 1 → Allergic reactions
Option 2 → Gastroenteritis (stomach flu)
Option 4 → Cardiac conditions
Answer: Option 3 → Fever, cough, and body aches

Q26. Which disease is caused specifically by a deficiency of Vitamin B1?

  1. (a) Beri- beri
  2. (b) Rickets
  3. (c) Scurvy
  4. (d) Night blindness
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Beri- beri

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) Deficiency
Beri- beriis caused by deficiency of Vitamin B1.
Other deficiency diseases:
Rickets → Vitamin D deficiency
Scurvy → Vitamin C deficiency
Night blindness → Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: Option 1 → Beri- beri
SSC MTS 2025 – 13 February 2026 Shift 1 · Organ donation and transplantation

Q27. Which of the following organ can be transplanted in humans?
I. Bone marrow
II. Cornea

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both I and II
Statement I is correct: Bone marrow transplantation is a well-established medical procedure used to treat conditions like leukaemia , lymphoma, aplastic anaemia , and other blood disorders. Stem cells from healthy bone marrow are transplanted to restore normal blood cell production.
Statement II is correct: Corneal transplantation (keratoplasty) is one of the most commonly performed and successful transplant procedures. The cornea (clear front part of the eye) is transplanted to restore vision in patients with corneal disease or injury.
Both bone marrow and cornea can be transplanted in humans.

Q28. Legionnaires' disease, which caused an outbreak in New York in August 2025, is a form of which illness?

  1. (a) Asthma
  2. (b) Pneumonia
  3. (c) Tuberculosis
  4. (d) Influenza
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pneumonia

Correct Answer: 2 – Pneumonia.
Legionnaires' disease is a severe, potentially fatal form of pneumonia (lung infection) caused by the bacterium Legionella pneumophila. The bacteria typically thrive in warm water systems such as cooling towers, hot tubs, and plumbing systems. Infection occurs when a person inhales water droplets (aerosols) contaminated with the bacteria. An outbreak of Legionnaires' disease occurred in New York in August 2025.
Asthma (Option 1) is a chronic respiratory condition caused by inflammation of airways – not related to Legionella.
Tuberculosis (Option 3) is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a different bacterium.
Influenza (Option 4) is a viral respiratory illness, not bacterial like Legionnaires' disease.

Q29. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE), highlighted during a protest in early 2025 at Mantralaya, is a rare, progressive and usually fatal disorder that affects which organ?

  1. (a) Liver
  2. (b) Brain
  3. (c) Heart
  4. (d) Lungs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Brain

Correct Answer: 2 – Brain.
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare, progressive, and usually fatal inflammatory disease of the brain caused by a persistent infection of an abnormal form of the measles (rubeola) virus. It affects the central nervous system and leads to progressive neurological deterioration. SSPE was highlighted during a protest at Mantralaya (Maharashtra government headquarters) in early 2025 by parents of affected children seeking better medical support.
Liver (Option 1), Heart (Option 3), and Lungs (Option 4) are not affected by SSPE.

Q30. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the legal significance and operational challenges of the National Medical Register (NMR) under the National Medical Commission (NMC) framework?

  1. (a) The National Medical Register is maintained by state medical councils and serves as a voluntary database of doctors practicing traditional systems of medicine across India.
  2. (b) The NMR is a central digital registry maintained by the NMC that confers the status of licensed practitioner only after a mandatory two-year rural internship, regardless of medical degree.
  3. (c) The NMR is a national-level electronic register of all licensed allopathic medical practitioners in India, maintained by the National Medical Commission, and registration in it is mandatory for issuing a Unique Permanent Registration Number (UPRN) to legally practice modern medicine across the country.
  4. (d) The NMR is used solely for academic research purposes and has no legal bearing on licensing, practice, or disciplinary action.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The NMR is a national-level electronic register of all licensed allopathic medical practitioners in India, maintained by the National Medical Commission, and registration in it is mandatory for issuing a Unique Permanent Registration Number (UPRN) to legally practice modern medicine across the country.

Option 3 is correct. Under the National Medical Commission Act, 2020, the NMR is a national-level digital register of all licensed allopathic (modern medicine) doctors in India, maintained by the NMC. Every doctor registered in the NMR receives a Unique Permanent Registration Number (UPRN), which is mandatory for legally practicing medicine anywhere in India.
• Option 1 is wrong: The NMR is maintained by the NMC (national body), not by state medical councils; it covers allopathic doctors, not traditional medicine practitioners.
• Option 2 is wrong: Practitioner status under NMR is based on medical degree and registration, not a mandatory two-year rural internship.
• Option 4 is wrong: The NMR has direct legal significance — it is the basis for licensing, monitoring, and disciplinary action against doctors.

Q31. Which type of immunity is provided when antibodies are transferred from 'a mother to her fetus, through the placenta'?

  1. (a) Active natural immunity
  2. (b) Passive natural immunity
  3. (c) Active artificial immunity
  4. (d) Passive artificial immunity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Passive natural immunity

Passive natural immunity is correct. When a mother's antibodies (IgG) are transferred to the fetus through the placenta during pregnancy, it is called passive natural immunity. It is 'passive' because the fetus does not produce the antibodies itself — they are received ready-made. It is 'natural' because it occurs through a natural biological process (pregnancy), not through medical intervention.
• Active natural immunity: Develops when the individual's own immune system produces antibodies after being exposed to a pathogen (e.g., recovering from an infection). The fetus is not producing these antibodies.
• Active artificial immunity: Develops after vaccination — the individual actively produces antibodies in response to a vaccine antigen.
• Passive artificial immunity: Involves injection of externally produced antibodies (e.g., antitoxins, immunoglobulin injections) as a medical treatment.

Q32. Which of the following statements regarding hygiene practices and their role in disease prevention is incorrect?

  1. (a) Regular handwashing with soap and water is one of the most effective ways to reduce the transmission of respiratory and diarrheal diseases.
  2. (b) The use of antibiotics as a preventive hygiene measure is recommended to reduce bacterial infections in community settings.
  3. (c) Proper sanitation infrastructure, including safe disposal of human waste, is critical in preventing waterborne diseases.
  4. (d) Vaccination complements hygiene practices by providing immunity against specific infectious diseases.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The use of antibiotics as a preventive hygiene measure is recommended to reduce bacterial infections in community settings.

The use of antibiotics as a routine preventive hygiene measure is NOT recommended and is scientifically incorrect. Antibiotics are used to treat active bacterial infections — using them preventively in community settings promotes antibiotic resistance, a major global health crisis. This makes option (2) the incorrect statement.
(1) Handwashing with soap is one of the most effective ways to prevent disease transmission — correct.
(3) Proper sanitation is critical for preventing waterborne diseases — correct.
(4) Vaccination provides immunity and complements hygiene practices — correct.

Q33. 'Mission Indradhanush' is a flagship health program of the Government of India related to what?

  1. (a) Vaccination of children and pregnant women
  2. (b) Providing iron tablets to school girls
  3. (c) Eye check-ups in rural areas
  4. (d) Cleaning rivers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vaccination of children and pregnant women

The correct answer is (a) Vaccination of children and pregnant women.
Mission Indradhanush (launched December 2014) aims to achieve full immunization coverage for children up to 2 years old and pregnant women against 12 vaccine-preventable diseases including diphtheria, measles, and polio. The rainbow name represents the 7 colors of a rainbow for the vaccines covered.
(b) Providing iron tablets to school girls: This is part of the National Iron Plus Initiative (NIPI) or WIFS; not Mission Indradhanush.
(c) Eye check-ups in rural areas: Not related to Mission Indradhanush.
(d) Cleaning rivers: This is the Namami Gange programme for river cleaning; completely unrelated.

Q34. Which disease results from iodine deficiency, leading to thyroid gland enlargement and impaired hormone production?

  1. (a) Rickets
  2. (b) Goitre
  3. (c) Night blindness
  4. (d) Scurvy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goitre

The correct answer is (b) Goitre .
Goitre is the enlargement of the thyroid gland caused by iodine deficiency. When the body lacks sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce adequate thyroid hormones, causing the gland to enlarge (swell) in an attempt to compensate. The Government of India mandates iodization of common salt to prevent goitre .
(a) Rickets: Caused by deficiency of Vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate; leads to weakened and deformed bones in children; not caused by iodine deficiency.
(c) Night blindness: Caused by Vitamin A deficiency; impairs vision in low-light conditions; not caused by iodine deficiency.
(d) Scurvy: Caused by Vitamin C deficiency; leads to bleeding gums, fatigue, and skin problems; not caused by iodine deficiency.

Q35. The Government of India aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia by which year under the National Sickle Cell Elimination Mission?

  1. (a) 2027
  2. (b) 2035
  3. (c) 2040
  4. (d) 2047
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2047

The correct answer is 2047 (Option 4).
The National Sickle Cell Elimination Mission was launched in 2023 with the goal of eliminating sickle cell disease from India by 2047 — coinciding with India's centenary of independence (India@100). The mission focuses on screening, counselling, and treatment of sickle cell anaemia , particularly in tribal populations.
Option 1 - 2027: 2027 is not the target year for the National Sickle Cell Elimination Mission; the target is 2047.
Option 2 - 2035: 2035 is also not the correct target year for this mission.
Option 3 - 2040: 2040 is not the correct year; the mission aims for elimination by 2047.

Q36. Which scheme was launched to provide health insurance coverage of up to Rs. 5 lakh per family per year for economically weaker sections?

  1. (a) Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)
  2. (b) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
  4. (d) National Health Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)

Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) was launched on September 23, 2018. It is the world's largest publicly funded health insurance scheme, providing coverage of up to Rs. 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization to approximately 50 crore beneficiaries from economically weaker sections.
Option (b) is incorrect: Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) had a much lower coverage of Rs. 30,000 per family and was subsumed under AB-PMJAY.
Option (c) is incorrect: PM Suraksha Bima Yojana is an accidental death and disability insurance scheme worth Rs. 2 lakh, not health insurance.
Option (d) is incorrect: National Health Mission (NHM) is a broader health systems strengthening program and not a health insurance scheme.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 12 December 2025 Shift 1 · Health organisations and programmes

Q37. The Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) aims to screen and manage children up to what age?

  1. (a) 5 years
  2. (b) 10 years
  3. (c) 18 years
  4. (d) 21 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18 years

Correct Answer: 18 years (Option 3)
The Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK), launched in 2013 under the National Health Mission (NHM), aims to provide comprehensive health screening and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years of age. The programme screens children for 4 D's: Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, and Developmental delays including disabilities.
5 years — This is the age group covered by some other child health programmes but not the upper limit for RBSK.
10 years — Incorrect upper age limit.
21 years — Incorrect; RBSK covers up to 18 years.
RBSK covers children from 0–6 years (through ASHA/AWW home visits) and 6–18 years (through school-age screening teams).
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 12 December 2025 Shift 2 · Health organisations and programmes

Q38. What is a key benefit provided under Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK)?

  1. (a) Free ration to pregnant women
  2. (b) Free delivery and C-section services
  3. (c) Paid ambulance transport
  4. (d) Subsidized infant clothing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Free delivery and C-section services

Correct: Free delivery and C-section services.
Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK), launched in 2011, entitles pregnant women to absolutely free and cashless services in government health facilities, including free delivery (normal and C-section), free medicines, free diagnostics, free blood, and free transport. Free ration is under ICDS/PDS, not JSSK. Ambulance is also free (not paid) under JSSK. Subsidized infant clothing is not part of JSSK.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 9 December 2025 Shift 2 · Health organisations and programmes

Q39. Which of the following is a key objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

  1. (a) Industrial growth
  2. (b) Child mortality reduction
  3. (c) Space exploration
  4. (d) Wildlife protection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Child mortality reduction

Correct Answer: Child mortality reduction
The National Health Mission (NHM), launched in 2013 (combining NRHM and NUHM), aims to strengthen healthcare systems, reduce maternal mortality, reduce child mortality (infant and under-5), control communicable and non-communicable diseases, and improve access to healthcare in rural and urban areas.
Option 1 (Industrial growth): Incorrect. NHM is purely a health sector mission.
Option 3 (Space exploration): Incorrect. Completely unrelated.
Option 4 (Wildlife protection): Incorrect. Wildlife is under the Ministry of Environment.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 2 · Health organisations and programmes

Q40. What is the aim of Ayushman Bharat scheme?

  1. (a) Clean drinking water for all
  2. (b) Health insurance for the poor
  3. (c) Free education to children
  4. (d) Housing for the poor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Health insurance for the poor

The correct answer is Health insurance for the poor . The Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) , launched in 2018, is the world’s largest government-funded healthcare scheme. It provides health insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. The scheme primarily targets poor and vulnerable families , covering over 10 crore families (approx. 50 crore beneficiaries) . It aims to reduce out-of-pocket health expenditure and ensure universal health coverage for the underprivileged sections of society.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 3 · Health organisations and programmes

Q41. Which of the following is the central objective of Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme?

  1. (a) Urban health surveillance
  2. (b) Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems
  3. (c) Food security through MSP
  4. (d) Providing skill-based employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems

The correct answer is Option 2: Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems . The Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme was launched by the Government of India to address malnutrition and ensure holistic development of children under 6 years of age. Its central aim is to provide nutritional support, promote early childhood care, and strengthen Anganwadi centres with modern facilities. The scheme merges existing nutrition-related programmes like ICDS, Anganwadi Services, and Poshan Abhiyaan into an integrated package. It focuses on improving nutritional outcomes for children, adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. By strengthening delivery systems and monitoring mechanisms, the scheme aims to combat malnutrition and enhance human capital development.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 30 November 2025 Shift 1 · Health organisations and programmes

Q42. The PM POSHAN scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of _______.

  1. (a) Health and Family Welfare
  2. (b) Women and Child Development
  3. (c) Rural Development
  4. (d) Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Education

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Education
The PM POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman) scheme, formerly known as the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, is implemented by the Ministry of Education. It provides hot cooked meals to school children in government and government-aided schools to improve nutritional levels and increase school attendance.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Health and Family Welfare): This ministry handles health programmes ; PM POSHAN falls under Education. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 2 (Women and Child Development): This ministry implements ICDS/Anganwadi schemes; not PM POSHAN.
Option 3 (Rural Development): This ministry handles MGNREGS and other rural schemes; not PM POSHAN.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 29 November 2025 Shift 1 · Health organisations and programmes

Q43. Mission Parivar Vikas was initially in the _____ high focus states.

  1. (a) 4
  2. (b) 7
  3. (c) 6
  4. (d) 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7

Mission Parivar Vikas was launched by the Government of India to accelerate access to family planning services. It was initially implemented in 7 high focus states: UP, Bihar, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Assam.
4, 6, and 9 are incorrect. Hence, 7 is correct.

Q44. The natural host of the Nipah Virus is _____.

  1. (a) Mosquitoes
  2. (b) Fruit Bats
  3. (c) Pigs
  4. (d) Sand Flies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fruit Bats

Fruit Bats (Pteropus species, also known as Flying Foxes) are the natural reservoir/host of the Nipah Virus. The virus can spread from bats to humans directly or through intermediate animal hosts like pigs. Nipah outbreaks have occurred in Bangladesh, India (Kerala), and Malaysia.
Mosquitoes are vectors for malaria, dengue; Sand Flies spread Leishmaniasis; Pigs can be intermediate hosts but are not the natural reservoir. Hence, Fruit Bats is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 24 November 2025 Shift 2 · Health organisations and programmes

Q45. Integration of TB services within the public health system is essential for India to achieve which of the following goals?
I. Eradication of malaria
II. Equitable and universal health coverage

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

Correct Answer: Only II (Option 2)
Integration of TB services within the public health system directly contributes to achieving equitable and universal health coverage (Statement II). TB is one of the leading infectious disease killers, and its integration into public health systems ensures access to prevention, diagnosis, and treatment for all — a key goal of SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-Being).
Why Statement I is wrong:
Statement I (Eradication of malaria): TB (Tuberculosis) is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, while malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. TB service integration does not directly contribute to malaria eradication.
Hence, only Statement II is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 17 November 2025 Shift 1 · Health organisations and programmes

Q46. Which year marks two decades since the launch of the ASHA programme?

  1. (a) 2019
  2. (b) 2022
  3. (c) 2023
  4. (d) 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2025

The ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) programme was launched in 2005 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Two decades (20 years) from 2005 would be the year 2025. ASHAs are community health workers who serve as a link between communities and the public health system, particularly in rural areas. Why other options are wrong: Option 1 (2019): Only 14 years after 2005, not two decades. Option 2 (2022): Only 17 years after 2005. Option 3 (2023): Only 18 years after 2005.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 15 November 2025 Shift 1 · Organ donation and transplantation

Q47. Which of the following organ can be donated while the donor is alive?
I. Part of a liver
II. Kidney

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Both organs can be donated by a living donor: - Part of a liver: The liver has remarkable regenerative capacity. A living donor can donate a portion (usually 60%) of their liver, which regenerates in both donor and recipient. - Kidney: Humans have two kidneys but can live a healthy life with one. Living donors can donate one kidney. Therefore, Both I and II are correct.

Q48. Under Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP), how many diseases are covered for free immunization nationally and sub-nationally?

  1. (a) (a) 5
  2. (b) (b) 7
  3. (c) (c) 9
  4. (d) (d) 12
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) (d) 12

UIP provides free vaccines against 12 vaccine-preventable diseases.
9 are provided nationally and 3 are sub-nationally.
Hence the total is 12.

Q49. Which of the following statements regarding human antibodies is/areaccurate?
1. IgG constitutes the largest proportion of antibodies in human blood.
2. IgE plays a key role in allergic responses.
3. IgA is primarily located in bodily secretions such as saliva and breast milk.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct

IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in serum (~75%) — 1 correct.
IgE triggers histamine release in allergies — 2 correct.
IgA is found in mucosal secretions like saliva, tears and breast milk — 3 correct.
Hence all three statements are correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 1 · Health organisations and programmes

Q50. Consider the following statements about the eSanjeevani initiative:
Statement 1: eSanjeevani OPD enables remote doctor consultations for citizens via online mode.
Statement 2: eSanjeevani AB-HWC connects citizens with Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centers (AB-HWC).
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct – eSanjeevani OPD is the citizen-to-doctor tele-consultation service.
Statement 2 is correct – eSanjeevani AB-HWC is the doctor-to-doctor service linking Health & Wellness Centres with hub physicians.
Hence both statements are correct.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 2 · Health organisations and programmes

Q51. Public health programmes enhance access to life-saving interventions and services. Which scheme aims to provide free health coverage to 50 crore beneficiaries in India?

  1. (a) Ujjwala Yojana
  2. (b) PM-KISAN
  3. (c) National Rural Health Mission
  4. (d) Ayushman Bharat - PMJAY
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ayushman Bharat - PMJAY

Q52. In May 2024, the World Health Organization (WHO) prequalified the QDENGA vaccine developed by Takeda Pharmaceuticals. This vaccine is designed to protect against which disease?

  1. (a) Malaria
  2. (b) Dengue
  3. (c) Chikungunya
  4. (d) Zika
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dengue

Q53. In which year was the first cases of the disease now known as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) identified?

  1. (a) 1981
  2. (b) 1992
  3. (c) 1977
  4. (d) 1988
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1981

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 1 · Health organisations and programmes

Q54. PM Modi’s review of NTEP in May 2025 urged volunteers called _____________ to adopt AI tools for patient follow‑up.

  1. (a) TB Mitra
  2. (b) Swasth Sanginis
  3. (c) Arogya Sahayaks
  4. (d) Nikshay Mitras
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nikshay Mitras

Q55. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

  1. (a) Tuberculosis
  2. (b) Malaria
  3. (c) Measles
  4. (d) Cholera
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Measles

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 1 · Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases

Q56. In 2025 news, Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) primarily impacts which part of the human body system?

  1. (a) Circulatory system
  2. (b) Peripheral nervous system
  3. (c) Immune system
  4. (d) Digestive system
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Peripheral nervous system

Q57. In April 2025, India developed two (Human Papillomavirus test) HPV testing kits for the diagnosis of which type of cancer?

  1. (a) Brain cancer
  2. (b) Blood cancer
  3. (c) Cervical cancer
  4. (d) Prostate cancer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cervical cancer

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 3 · Health organisations and programmes

Q58. When was the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) launched by the Government of India?

  1. (a) 12 April 2005
  2. (b) 12 April 2004
  3. (c) 8 March 2004
  4. (d) 26 January 2006
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 12 April 2005

Q59. Which disease is caused by the accumulation of lipids in brain cells due to the deficiency or inactivation of lipid digesting enzymes?

  1. (a) Tay-Sachs disease
  2. (b) Parkinson’s disease
  3. (c) Huntington’s disease
  4. (d) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tay-Sachs disease

Q60. Which is the deadliest species of Plasmodium that causes malaria in humans?

  1. (a) Plasmodium ovale
  2. (b) Plasmodium knowlesi
  3. (c) Plasmodium falciparum
  4. (d) Plasmodium inui
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Plasmodium falciparum

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 August 2025 Shift 1 · Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases

Q61. Which medical term describes an eating disorder in which energy expenditure is restricted below requirements, leading to significant weight loss?

  1. (a) Bulimia Nervosa
  2. (b) Anorexia Nervosa
  3. (c) Diabulimia Nervosa
  4. (d) Orthorexia Nervosa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anorexia Nervosa

Q62. Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?

  1. (a) Polio
  2. (b) Malaria
  3. (c) Typhoid
  4. (d) Chicken Pox
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Malaria

Q63. Fill in the blank:
_______ aims to reduce malnutrition and improve nutritional outcomes in children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.

  1. (a) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
  2. (b) PM Matru Vandana Yojana
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
  4. (d) Poshan Abhiyaan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Poshan Abhiyaan

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Poshan Abhiyaan
Poshan Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission), launched by the Government of India in 2018, is the flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children (0–6 years), pregnant women, and lactating mothers by reducing stunting, undernutrition, anaemia, and low birth weight.
Option 1 (Mid-Day Meal Scheme): Provides cooked meals to school children; does not specifically target pregnant women or lactating mothers.
Option 2 (PM Matru Vandana Yojana): Provides maternity benefit (cash transfer) but is not a comprehensive nutrition mission.
Option 3 (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana): A crop insurance scheme for farmers; completely unrelated to nutrition.

Q64. Which national initiative aims to prevent and control non-communicable diseases such as diabetes and hypertension?

  1. (a) Mission Indradhanush
  2. (b) National Digital Health Mission
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
  4. (d) National Programme for Prevention and Control of NCDs
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) National Programme for Prevention and Control of NCDs

Correct Answer: Option 4 – National Programme for Prevention and Control of NCDs
The National Programme for Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD) specifically targets the prevention, early detection, and management of NCDs such as diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular diseases, and cancer.
Option 1 (Mission Indradhanush): A vaccination/immunization programme targeting children and pregnant women; not for NCDs.
Option 2 (National Digital Health Mission): Focuses on creating a digital health ecosystem; not specifically for NCD prevention.
Option 3 (Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana): Health insurance scheme under Ayushman Bharat providing financial coverage; not a disease prevention programme.

Q65. Which Indian organization developed the world's first DNA vaccine for COVID-19, known as ZyCoV -D?

  1. (a) ICMR
  2. (b) Bharat Biotech
  3. (c) Zydus Cadila
  4. (d) DRDO
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Zydus Cadila

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Zydus Cadila
ZyCoV -D was developed by Zydus Cadila (now Zydus Lifesciences), an Ahmedabad-based Indian pharmaceutical company, in collaboration with the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). It became the world's first DNA-based COVID-19 vaccine to receive emergency use authorisation (EUA) — granted by DCGI in August 2021. Unlike conventional vaccines, ZyCoV -D uses plasmid DNA that instructs cells to produce the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2. It is administered as a three-dose regimen using a needle-free Pharmajet injector.
Option 1 (ICMR): The Indian Council of Medical Research co-developed Covaxin (with Bharat Biotech) — an inactivated virus vaccine, not a DNA vaccine.
Option 2 (Bharat Biotech): Developed Covaxin (inactivated virus) and Covishield (in partnership with AstraZeneca/Serum Institute) — not ZyCoV -D.
Option 4 (DRDO): Developed 2-DG (2-Deoxy-D-Glucose), a COVID-19 treatment drug — not the ZyCoV -D vaccine.

Q66. Which of the following is NOT a disease caused by prions?

  1. (a) Scrapie in sheep
  2. (b) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) or 'mad cow' disease
  3. (c) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) in humans
  4. (d) Influenza in humans
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Influenza in humans

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Influenza in humans
Influenza (flu) is caused by the Influenza virus (a RNA virus of the Orthomyxoviridae family) — NOT by prions. Prions are misfolded proteins (not viruses or bacteria) that cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) — progressive, fatal neurodegenerative diseases that cause sponge-like holes in brain tissue.
Option 1 (Scrapie in sheep): A prion disease — the first known TSE, affecting sheep and goats. Caused by misfolded prion proteins ( PrPSc ).
Option 2 (BSE/mad cow disease): A prion disease in cattle. The misfolded bovine prion can be transmitted to humans (via contaminated beef) causing variant CJD (vCJD) — this was a major public health crisis in the UK in the 1980s–90s.
Option 3 (CJD in humans): Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare but fatal human prion disease, causing rapid dementia. Variant CJD (vCJD) is linked to BSE exposure; sporadic CJD occurs spontaneously.

Q67. Fill in the blank:
The National Digital Health Mission's (NDHM) primary aim is to create a unique _______ for every Indian citizen.

  1. (a) Vaccine ID
  2. (b) Health ID
  3. (c) Aadhaar ID
  4. (d) Disease Registry
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Health ID

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Health ID
The National Digital Health Mission (NDHM), now called Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), was launched on September 27, 2021 by PM Modi. Its primary objective is to create a unique Health ID (ABHA — Ayushman Bharat Health Account) for every Indian citizen. The Health ID is a 14-digit unique number that stores all medical records (consultations, diagnoses, prescriptions, lab reports, hospitalisation ) digitally, enabling seamless sharing of health data between providers with patient consent. The mission also creates Health Professional Registry and Health Facility Registry.
Option 1 (Vaccine ID): CoWIN provided vaccine certificates during COVID-19; NDHM/ABDM's primary creation is the Health ID, not a vaccine-specific ID.
Option 3 (Aadhaar ID): Aadhaar is a biometric identity document issued by UIDAI — a separate system. While Aadhaar can be linked to Health ID, the NDHM's own creation is the Health ID.
Option 4 (Disease Registry): Disease registries are maintained by ICMR for specific diseases (cancer, TB); NDHM creates a personal Health ID, not a disease registry.

Q68. Which of the following statements is correct about the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP)?

  1. (a) It aims to eliminate tuberculosis in India by the year 2030.
  2. (b) The NTEP reported fewer TB cases in 2024 than in 2023 due to reduced screening.
  3. (c) India has developed its first state-wise TB burden estimation model under NTEP.
  4. (d) It focuses solely on vaccination to prevent TB in newborns.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) India has developed its first state-wise TB burden estimation model under NTEP.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – India has developed its first state-wise TB burden estimation model under NTEP
Under the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP), India developed its first-ever state-wise TB burden estimation model — a landmark achievement in TB surveillance. This allows state-specific disease burden data (incidence, mortality) rather than national aggregates, enabling targeted interventions. The model was developed in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and technical partners.
Option 1 (Eliminate TB by 2030): NTEP's target is to eliminate TB by 2025 — five years ahead of the global Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target of 2030. The SDG target is 2030, but India's national target is 2025.
Option 2 (Fewer TB cases in 2024 due to reduced screening): Reduced TB notifications due to less screening would be a negative outcome. India's TB programme has been ramping up screening, not reducing it. This statement is factually incorrect.
Option 4 (Solely vaccination): NTEP is a comprehensive programme covering detection, diagnosis, treatment, follow-up, and prevention. BCG vaccination is for newborns but NTEP's strategy is multi-pronged — it does not focus solely on vaccination.

Q69. Which Indian biotechnology company developed the first indigenous mRNA vaccine for COVID-19, with support from DBT and BIRAC?

  1. (a) Bharat Biotech
  2. (b) Gennova Biopharmaceuticals Ltd.
  3. (c) Serum Institute of India
  4. (d) Panacea Biotec
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gennova Biopharmaceuticals Ltd.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Gennova Biopharmaceuticals Ltd.
Gennova Biopharmaceuticals Ltd. (a Pune-based company, part of Emcure Pharmaceuticals) developed GEMCOVAC-OM, India's first indigenous mRNA-based COVID-19 vaccine, with financial and technical support from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) under the COVID Suraksha programme . It received Emergency Use Authorization from DCGI in 2022.
Option 1 (Bharat Biotech): Developed Covaxin — an inactivated virus vaccine, not an mRNA vaccine.
Option 3 (Serum Institute of India): Produced Covishield (AstraZeneca's viral vector vaccine) and Covovax (Novavax's protein subunit vaccine) — neither is an indigenous mRNA vaccine.
Option 4 (Panacea Biotec): Did not develop an mRNA COVID vaccine; worked on traditional vaccine platforms.

Q70. What does the Ayushman Bharat Yojana provide to eligible citizens?

  1. (a) Free education
  2. (b) Health insurance coverage
  3. (c) Subsidized housing
  4. (d) Agricultural subsidies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Health insurance coverage

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Health insurance coverage
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY), launched in 2018, provides health insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization to economically vulnerable families (approximately bottom 40% of the population). It is the world's largest government-funded health insurance scheme.
Option 1 (Free education): Addressed by Samagra Shiksha, Mid-Day Meal scheme, and RTE Act; not Ayushman Bharat.
Option 3 (Subsidized housing): Addressed by Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY).
Option 4 (Agricultural subsidies): Addressed by various agricultural schemes like PM-KISAN, MSP, fertilizer subsidies.

Q71. What is the main goal of the Ayushman Bharat scheme?

  1. (a) To provide free education
  2. (b) To provide affordable healthcare
  3. (c) To promote agriculture
  4. (d) To improve transportation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To provide affordable healthcare

Correct Answer: Option 2 – To provide affordable healthcare
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), launched in 2018, is the world's largest government-funded health insurance scheme. Its main goal is to provide affordable healthcare to economically vulnerable families, offering health cover of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization across empanelled hospitals.
Option 1 (Free education): Addressed by schemes like Samagra Shiksha and RTE; not Ayushman Bharat.
Option 3 (Promote agriculture): Addressed by PM-KISAN and other agricultural schemes.
Option 4 (Improve transportation): Addressed by PM Gati Shakti and other infrastructure schemes.

Q72. Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: A significant number of adolescent girls in India suffer from anaemia .
Statement 2: The diet available to adolescents in India is generally rich in all nutrients.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 is CORRECT: India has one of the world's highest rates of anaemia among adolescent girls. According to NFHS-5 (2019-21), about 59% of adolescent girls (15-19 years) in India are anaemic , primarily due to iron deficiency. This is a significant public health challenge addressed by schemes like Anaemia Mukt Bharat.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The diet available to adolescents in India is generally NOT rich in all nutrients. Most Indian adolescents, particularly girls and those from lower socioeconomic backgrounds, have diets deficient in iron, protein, calcium, vitamin B12, and other micronutrients. Poor dietary diversity, food insecurity, and cultural practices contribute to this nutritional gap.
Since only Statement 1 is correct, Option 1 (A) is the answer.

Q73. Why is the common cold rarely considered a lower respiratory tract infection?

  1. (a) The virus is destroyed in the alveoli.
  2. (b) It requires a vector for lower tract transmission.
  3. (c) Rhinoviruses only infect the upper respiratory tract.
  4. (d) Antibodies prevent it from entering the lungs.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rhinoviruses only infect the upper respiratory tract.

Q74. Which key event in the life cycle of Plasmodium causes rupture of red blood cells?

  1. (a) Sexual reproduction inside mosquitoes in the erythrocytes
  2. (b) Maturation and multiplication of merozoites inside the RBCs
  3. (c) Multiplication inside liver cells
  4. (d) Conversion into sporozoites
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maturation and multiplication of merozoites inside the RBCs

Q75. Which bacterial disease is specifically confirmed by a serological method?

  1. (a) Plague
  2. (b) Diphtheria
  3. (c) Pneumonia
  4. (d) Typhoid
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Typhoid

Q76. Why is the discovery of penicillin considered revolutionary in medicine?

  1. (a) It treated pain rather than infections.
  2. (b) It was used only in animals.
  3. (c) It began the antibiotic era.
  4. (d) It was used for colouring bacteria.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It began the antibiotic era.

Q77. Which unique property of Plasmodium makes malaria a cyclical disease with periodic fever?

  1. (a) Constant reinfection from environment
  2. (b) RBC rupture and toxin release every few days
  3. (c) Infection of liver cells only
  4. (d) Continual entry via mosquito bites
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) RBC rupture and toxin release every few days

Q78. A new mutation allows Plasmodium falciparum to exit the liver without maturing into merozoites. What would be the immediate consequence?

  1. (a) Increased severity of disease
  2. (b) Absence of RBC rupture and reduced clinical symptoms
  3. (c) Immediate immune response and clearance
  4. (d) Direct infection of alveoli
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Absence of RBC rupture and reduced clinical symptoms

Q79. What was the major impact of penicillin's discovery?

  1. (a) First antiviral drug for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
  2. (b) First drug for Rabies prevention and cure
  3. (c) First effective antibiotic against bacterial infections
  4. (d) First vaccine for prevention of smallpox
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) First effective antibiotic against bacterial infections

Q80. Which of the following diseases is/are a viral infection(s) transmitted through sexual contact?
a. HIV
b. Warts
c. Gonorrhoea
d. Syphilis

  1. (a) Only c
  2. (b) Only a
  3. (c) Only a and b
  4. (d) Only c and d
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only a and b

Correct Answer: Option 3 — Only a and b
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) spread mainly through sexual contact, and NCERT divides them by the type of pathogen. Bacterial STDs include gonorrhoea and syphilis, while viral STDs include HIV–AIDS and warts.
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) attacks the helper T-lymphocytes and destroys the body's immune system, leading to AIDS; it also spreads through infected blood transfusion, shared needles and from an infected mother to her baby. Warts are small skin growths caused by the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV), also a virus. So only statements a and b name viral infections.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect
✗ Only c — gonorrhoea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, not a virus.
✗ Only a — incomplete; warts (b) are also a viral STD caused by HPV.
✗ Only c and d — both gonorrhoea and syphilis (Treponema pallidum) are bacterial, so neither is viral.
📌 SSC & Railway Exam Facts
• AIDS = Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome; World AIDS Day is 1 December.
• Bacterial STDs are curable with antibiotics; viral STDs are not, which is why prevention matters.
• Use of a condom is the standard barrier method that prevents STDs as well as pregnancy.
• HPV vaccine protects against warts and cervical cancer.
• HIV does not spread by touching, sharing food, mosquito bites or working together.

Q81. Identify the correct match.

  1. (a) Bacterial infections : Warts and HIV-AIDS; Viral infections : Gonorrhoea and syphilis
  2. (b) Bacterial infections : Warts and syphilis; Viral infections : Gonorrhoea and HIV-AIDS
  3. (c) Bacterial infections : Warts and gonorrhoea; Viral infections : Syphilis and HIV-AIDS
  4. (d) Bacterial infections : Gonorrhoea and syphilis; Viral infections : Warts and HIV-AIDS
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bacterial infections : Gonorrhoea and syphilis; Viral infections : Warts and HIV-AIDS

Correct Answer: Option 4 — Bacterial infections : Gonorrhoea and syphilis; Viral infections : Warts and HIV-AIDS
Diseases are classified according to the kind of pathogen that causes them.
Bacterial sexually transmitted diseases — gonorrhoea, caused by the bacterium *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, and syphilis, caused by *Treponema pallidum*. Being bacterial, both can be cured with antibiotics.
Viral sexually transmitted diseases — warts, caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV), and AIDS, caused by HIV (human immunodeficiency virus). Viral diseases do not respond to antibiotics; HIV destroys the body's immune system, so the patient finally dies of ordinary infections.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect
✗ Bacterial : Warts and HIV-AIDS; Viral : Gonorrhoea and syphilis — completely reversed; warts and AIDS are viral, gonorrhoea and syphilis bacterial.
✗ Bacterial : Warts and syphilis; Viral : Gonorrhoea and HIV-AIDS — wrong; warts are viral while gonorrhoea is bacterial.
✗ Bacterial : Warts and gonorrhoea; Viral : Syphilis and HIV-AIDS — wrong; warts are viral while syphilis is bacterial.
📌 SSC & Railway Exam Facts
• AIDS is caused by HIV, spread by sexual contact, infected blood, shared needles and from mother to child.
• Using a condom prevents STDs; World AIDS Day is 1 December.
• Bacterial diseases — TB, typhoid, cholera, tetanus, anthrax and plague.
• Viral diseases — common cold, influenza, dengue, polio, rabies, measles and chikungunya.
• Antibiotics such as penicillin (discovered by Alexander Fleming) act on bacteria, not on viruses.

Q82. Which of the following are bacterial infections that occur due to sexual contact?
A. Gonorrhoea
B. AIDS
C. Syphilis

  1. (a) Both A and C
  2. (b) Both A and B
  3. (c) Both B and C
  4. (d) A, B and C
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and C

Correct Answer: Option 1 — Both A and C
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) spread through sexual contact with an infected person. They are caused by different kinds of germs, so we must separate the bacterial ones from the viral ones.
Gonorrhoea is caused by the bacterium *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and Syphilis by the bacterium *Treponema pallidum* — both are therefore bacterial STDs and are curable with antibiotics. AIDS, on the other hand, is caused by the HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus), which destroys the helper T-cells of the immune system; antibiotics have no effect on it. So only A and C are bacterial.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect
✗ Both A and B — AIDS is viral, not bacterial, so B cannot be included.
✗ Both B and C — again includes the viral disease AIDS along with the bacterial syphilis.
✗ A, B and C — wrong because B (AIDS) is caused by a virus.
📌 SSC & Railway Exam Facts
• HIV also spreads through infected blood transfusion, shared needles and from mother to child.
• Genital warts are caused by a virus and trichomoniasis by a protozoan.
• Condoms give protection against STDs as well as unwanted pregnancy.
• 1 December is observed as World AIDS Day.
• Antibiotics act on bacteria only; they do not work on viruses.

Q83. Which of the following diseases is caused by Leishmania?

  1. (a) Anaemia
  2. (b) Dengue
  3. (c) Kala-azar
  4. (d) Malaria
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kala-azar

Correct Answer: Option 3 — Kala-azar
Kala-azar, also called visceral leishmaniasis or black fever, is caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani. It is transmitted by the bite of the female sandfly (Phlebotomus).
The parasite attacks the spleen, liver and bone marrow, causing prolonged fever, enlargement of the spleen and liver, weight loss, anaemia and darkening of the skin — from which the name *kala* (black) *azar* (fever) comes. In biology it is equally famous as an example of binary fission in a definite orientation, because Leishmania has a flagellum at one end that fixes the plane of division.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect
✗ Anaemia — not an infection by Leishmania; it is a deficiency disease caused chiefly by lack of iron, resulting in low haemoglobin.
✗ Dengue — caused by the dengue virus, spread by the Aedes aegypti mosquito; known as break-bone fever and marked by a fall in platelets.
✗ Malaria — caused by the protozoan Plasmodium, spread by the female Anopheles mosquito; it reproduces by multiple fission.
📌 SSC & Railway Exam Facts
• Protozoan diseases: malaria (Plasmodium), kala-azar (Leishmania), amoebic dysentery (Entamoeba), sleeping sickness (Trypanosoma).
• Bacterial: typhoid, cholera, tuberculosis, tetanus, anthrax, plague.
• Viral: AIDS, influenza, dengue, polio, rabies, common cold, COVID-19.
• Vector-borne diseases spread through mosquitoes, flies and sandflies.
• Ronald Ross received the Nobel Prize for discovering the malaria transmission cycle in mosquitoes.

Q84. Select the INCORRECT statement.

  1. (a) Gonorrhea is a bacterial disease.
  2. (b) Warts are a protozoan disease.
  3. (c) AIDS is caused by the HIV virus.
  4. (d) Many diseases can be sexually transmitted.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Warts are a protozoan disease.

Correct Answer: Option 2 — Warts are a protozoan disease.
This statement is incorrect. Warts are small, rough growths on the skin or mucous membrane caused by the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) — that is, they are a viral disease, not a protozoan one. Protozoan diseases are entirely different: malaria (Plasmodium), amoebic dysentery (Entamoeba), kala-azar (Leishmania) and sleeping sickness (Trypanosoma).
Both warts and the other sexually transmitted infections spread through close physical or sexual contact, which is why they are grouped together in the NCERT chapter on reproductive health.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect
✗ Gonorrhea is a bacterial disease — this is true; it is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae and is curable with antibiotics.
✗ AIDS is caused by the HIV virus — true; the Human Immunodeficiency Virus destroys the helper T-cells, so immunity collapses.
✗ Many diseases can be sexually transmitted — true; syphilis, gonorrhoea, warts, AIDS and hepatitis-B all spread by sexual contact.
📌 SSC & Railway Exam Facts
• Bacterial STDs — gonorrhoea and syphilis; Viral STDs — AIDS, warts and genital herpes.
• Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.
• AIDS spreads by unprotected sex, infected blood transfusion, shared needles and from an infected mother to her child — never by touching, sharing food or mosquito bites.
• World AIDS Day is observed on 1 December; the HIV test commonly used is ELISA.
• Other viral diseases: polio, measles, chickenpox, rabies, dengue, influenza, COVID-19.

Q85. Which of the following bacterial infections is considered a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?

  1. (a) Gonorrhoea
  2. (b) Tuberculosis
  3. (c) Typhoid
  4. (d) Pneumonia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gonorrhoea

Answer: Option 1 — Gonorrhoea
Gonorrhoea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae and spreads through sexual contact, so it is a bacterial STD.
Revision note — Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
• Bacterial STDs — gonorrhoea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae), syphilis (Treponema pallidum), chlamydia; treated with antibiotics.
• Viral STDs — HIV-AIDS, genital warts (HPV), genital herpes, hepatitis B; antibiotics do not work on them.
• Condoms (barrier method) reduce STD spread; surgical methods (vasectomy, tubectomy) prevent pregnancy but not infection.
• Other bacterial diseases spread differently — tuberculosis through air (BCG vaccine), typhoid through contaminated food and water (Widal test).
• Pneumonia is usually bacterial (Streptococcus pneumoniae) and spreads through droplets.
Also asked from this topic: a limitation of surgical contraception (it does not prevent sexually transmitted infections); the test that confirms typhoid (Widal test); the first antibiotic (penicillin).

Q86. Which of the following statements about AIDS is FALSE?

  1. (a) AIDS can be transmitted through mosquito bites.
  2. (b) AIDS affects the immune system of the body.
  3. (c) AIDS can be prevented by practising safe sex.
  4. (d) AIDS is caused by the HIV virus.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) AIDS can be transmitted through mosquito bites.

Answer: Option 1 — AIDS can be transmitted through mosquito bites.
This is false. HIV does not multiply inside a mosquito and is not injected with its saliva, so mosquitoes cannot spread AIDS.
The other three statements are true.
Revision note — AIDS and HIV
• AIDS = Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome; caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus), a retrovirus.
• HIV destroys helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells), so the immune system weakens and ordinary infections become dangerous.
• Spread by: unprotected sexual contact, infected blood transfusion, shared needles/syringes, and mother to child (pregnancy, birth, breastfeeding).
• Not spread by: mosquito bites, handshakes, hugging, sharing food or utensils.
• Prevention: safe sex (condoms), screened blood, sterile needles; no vaccine or cure yet — antiretroviral therapy (ART) controls it.
• First cases reported in 1981; HIV identified in 1983; World AIDS Day — 1 December; screening test: ELISA.
Also asked from this topic: the year the first cases of AIDS were identified (1981).

Q87. Which of the following is a viral infection that can be transmitted through sexual contact?

  1. (a) Syphilis
  2. (b) HIV-AIDS
  3. (c) Gonorrhoea
  4. (d) Tuberculosis
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) HIV-AIDS

Answer: Option 2 — HIV-AIDS
AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) — a virus — and spreads through sexual contact.
Syphilis and gonorrhoea are bacterial; tuberculosis is bacterial and spreads through the air.
Revision note — Sexually transmitted diseases (NCERT Class 10)
• Viral STDs: HIV-AIDS, genital warts (HPV), genital herpes, hepatitis B.
• Bacterial STDs: syphilis (Treponema pallidum), gonorrhoea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae).
• HIV attacks helper T-cells (CD4), weakening the immune system; it is a retrovirus.
• HIV also spreads through infected blood, shared needles, and from mother to child.
• World AIDS Day — 1 December; test for HIV — ELISA.
• Condoms give protection against STDs; surgical methods of contraception do not.
Do not mix these up
• HIV vs AIDS — HIV is the virus; AIDS is the disease stage when the immune system has broken down.
Also asked from this topic: the first successful drug for syphilis (Salvarsan, by Paul Ehrlich); a limitation of surgical contraception regarding STDs (it does not prevent infections).

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