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Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 10 January 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 18 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 on 10 January 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Polity, Chemistry, Static GK, Economics, Physics.

📚 18 questions🗓️ 10 January 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Medieval History (1) · Polity (2) · Chemistry (1) · Static GK (6) · Economics (5) · Physics (1) · Biology (1) · Modern History (1)

Medieval History (1)

South Indian Kingdoms · Chola art and temples

Q1. Which of the following Chola temples first used a massive monolithic shikhara (cupola) above the sanctum made of granite?

  1. (a) Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram
  2. (b) Brihadeshwara Temple, Thanjavur
  3. (c) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
  4. (d) Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Brihadeshwara Temple, Thanjavur

Brihadeshwara Temple, Thanjavur is correct. Built by Raja Raja Chola I (1003–1010 CE), it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and was the first Chola temple to feature a massive monolithic granite vimana (shikhara/cupola) above the sanctum, standing about 66 metres tall.
• Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram: A Pallava temple (8th century), not Chola; its shikhara is not a single monolithic granite piece.
• Meenakshi Temple, Madurai: A Madurai Nayak-era temple (17th century), not a Chola creation.
• Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal: A Chalukya temple (8th century), unrelated to the Chola dynasty.

Polity (2)

Judiciary · Landmark judgments

Q2. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the constitutional and legal framework dealing with atrocities against Scheduled Castes in India, especially in light of the Supreme Court's interpretation in Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra (2018) and subsequent legislative response?

  1. (a) The Supreme Court in 2018 upheld the automatic arrest provisions under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, declaring that procedural safeguards like preliminary inquiry or prior approval were unnecessary, as they dilute the object of the Act.
  2. (b) The 2018 Supreme Court judgment introduced procedural safeguards such as preliminary inquiry and prior approval before arrest under the SC/ST Act, citing the need to balance the protection of the innocent and prevent misuse.
  3. (c) Parliament responded to the 2018 judgment by accepting the suggested procedural safeguards and incorporating them via the SC/ST (Amendment) Act, 2018 to ensure checks and balances in the arrest procedure.
  4. (d) Article 15(4) and 17 together provide the constitutional basis for punishing atrocities, making the SC/ST Act enforceable as a part of Fundamental Rights and not merely statutory protections.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The 2018 Supreme Court judgment introduced procedural safeguards such as preliminary inquiry and prior approval before arrest under the SC/ST Act, citing the need to balance the protection of the innocent and prevent misuse.

Option b is correct . In the Subhash Kashinath Mahajan case (2018), the Supreme Court directed that a preliminary inquiry be conducted before registering an FIR, and prior approval of the appointing authority be taken before arresting a public servant under the SC/ST Act. This was done to prevent misuse while balancing the rights of the innocent.
• Option 1 is wrong: The Court actually introduced safeguards, not upheld automatic arrest.
• Option 3 is wrong: Parliament responded by passing the SC/ST (Amendment) Act, 2018, which overturned the Supreme Court's safeguards and restored the original automatic arrest provisions.
• Option 4 is wrong: While Articles 15(4) and 17 are constitutional provisions, the SC/ST Act is a statutory protection, not a Fundamental Right per se.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q3. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which of the following statements best illustrates the expanded definition of domestic relationship and domestic violence, thereby strengthening legal protection beyond conventional marriage norms?

  1. (a) The Act applies only to legally wedded wives and excludes women in live-in relationships or those related by consanguinity.
  2. (b) The Act defines 'domestic violence' strictly in terms of physical abuse occurring within the matrimonial home.
  3. (c) The Act includes emotional, verbal, economic, and sexual abuse, and extends protection to women in domestic relationships, including live-in relationships, enabling them to seek relief such as residence orders and protection orders.
  4. (d) The Act is applicable only when the abuse has been reported to a police officer within 24 hours of the incident.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Act includes emotional, verbal, economic, and sexual abuse, and extends protection to women in domestic relationships, including live-in relationships, enabling them to seek relief such as residence orders and protection orders.

Option c is correct . The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 defines 'domestic violence' broadly to include physical, sexual, verbal, emotional, and economic abuse. Crucially, it extends protection to women in live-in relationships (not just married women), and entitles them to seek relief such as protection orders, residence orders, and monetary reliefs.
• Option 1 is wrong: The Act explicitly covers women in live-in relationships and those related by consanguinity or adoption.
• Option 2 is wrong: The definition of domestic violence goes far beyond physical abuse and includes verbal, emotional, economic, and sexual abuse.
• Option 4 is wrong: There is no 24-hour reporting requirement under the Act.

Chemistry (1)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Natural acids and their sources

Q4. Which acid is responsible for the sour taste in curd?

  1. (a) Acetic acid
  2. (b) Lactic acid
  3. (c) Citric acid
  4. (d) Formic acid
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lactic acid

Lactic acid is correct. During the fermentation of milk into curd, bacteria (mainly Lactobacillus) convert lactose (milk sugar) into lactic acid. This lactic acid gives curd its characteristic sour taste and also causes the milk proteins to coagulate, forming the semi-solid texture.
• Acetic acid: Found in vinegar; responsible for vinegar's sourness, not curd's .
• Citric acid: Found in citrus fruits like lemons and oranges.
• Formic acid: Found in ant stings and some plants; not produced in curd.

Static GK (6)

Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q5. QUAD is often described as the 'Asian NATO' because of what?

  1. (a) It funds peacekeeping operations
  2. (b) It includes European powers
  3. (c) It is a formal military alliance
  4. (d) It seeks to ensure Indo-Pacific security through cooperation among four democracies
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It seeks to ensure Indo-Pacific security through cooperation among four democracies

Option d is correct . The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) comprising India, USA, Japan, and Australia is called the 'Asian NATO' because it aims to ensure a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific region through security cooperation, intelligence sharing, and joint naval exercises among these four democracies — similar in concept to how NATO ensures security in the North Atlantic.
• Option 1 is wrong: QUAD does not fund peacekeeping operations; that is a UN function.
• Option 2 is wrong: QUAD includes no European powers; it is entirely Indo-Pacific focused.
• Option 3 is wrong: QUAD is not a formal military alliance with mutual defense treaties; it is a strategic dialogue and cooperation framework.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q6. India's neighborhood policy aims to build strong bilateral relations with South Asian countries, but challenges like the China-Nepal Trans-Himalayan Corridor threaten India's regional primacy. Why is this corridor considered a strategic concern for India?

  1. (a) It diverts Ganga river flow
  2. (b) It enables direct Chinese access to Indian borders via infrastructure
  3. (c) It connects Nepal to Bhutan bypassing India
  4. (d) It allows Pakistan direct control of Kathmandu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It enables direct Chinese access to Indian borders via infrastructure

Option b is correct . The China-Nepal Trans-Himalayan Corridor (part of China's BRI) involves building roads, railways, and other infrastructure through Nepal connecting China to the Nepal-India border. This gives China direct logistical and strategic access to India's borders, enabling rapid military movement and reducing India's traditional geographic buffer zone.
• Option 1 is wrong: The corridor does not divert the Ganga river flow; it is a transport infrastructure project.
• Option 3 is wrong: The corridor connects Nepal to China, not Nepal to Bhutan bypassing India.
• Option 4 is wrong: Pakistan has no role in the China-Nepal corridor; it does not grant Pakistan control over Kathmandu.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Kajli Teej?

  1. (a) It is celebrated in Udaipur during September.
  2. (b) It marks the start of winter in Jodhpur.
  3. (c) It is observed in Bundi during July and August.
  4. (d) It is a harvest festival in Jaipur held in December.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is observed in Bundi during July and August.

Option c is correct . Kajli Teej (also called Budi Teej or Satudi Teej) is a festival primarily celebrated in Bundi, Rajasthan. It falls on the third day of the Krishna Paksha (dark fortnight) of Bhadrapada month (July–August) and is dedicated to Goddess Teej (Parvati). Bundi is especially famous for its grand Kajli Teej procession.
• Option 1 is wrong: Kajli Teej is not specifically associated with Udaipur, nor is it held in September.
• Option 2 is wrong: Kajli Teej does not mark the start of winter; it falls during the monsoon season.
• Option 4 is wrong: It is not a harvest festival, nor is it held in December.
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q8. Which literary award was conferred upon Chronicle of a Corpse Bearer, and in which year?

  1. (a) Sahitya Akademi Award - 2012
  2. (b) Tata Literature Live! First Book Award - 2013
  3. (c) DSC Prize for South Asian Literature - 2014
  4. (d) Jnanpith Award - 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) DSC Prize for South Asian Literature - 2014

DSC Prize for South Asian Literature - 2014 is correct. Chronicle of a Corpse Bearer, written by Cyrus Mistry (an Indian-Parsi author), won the DSC Prize for South Asian Literature in 2014. The novel depicts the life of a Parsi corpse bearer (khandhia) and explores themes of marginalization and faith.
• Sahitya Akademi Award - 2012: The novel was not awarded the Sahitya Akademi in 2012.
• Tata Literature Live! First Book Award - 2013: Not associated with Chronicle of a Corpse Bearer.
• Jnanpith Award - 2015: The Jnanpith is India's highest literary honour; this novel was not its recipient in 2015.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Contemporary and modern Indian artists

Q9. Which artist is renowned for creating large installations using everyday Indian kitchenware?

  1. (a) Subodh Gupta
  2. (b) Jitish Kallat
  3. (c) Jamini Roy
  4. (d) Neha Sharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Subodh Gupta

Subodh Gupta is correct. Subodh Gupta is a celebrated contemporary Indian artist known for his monumental installations made using stainless steel utensils (tiffin boxes, thalis, vessels) that are common in Indian kitchens. His works, such as 'Very Hungry God' and 'Line of Control', use ordinary kitchenware to explore themes of globalization, migration, and Indian identity.
• Jitish Kallat: A Mumbai-based contemporary artist known for large-scale works using bus tickets, bones, and light — not kitchenware.
• Jamini Roy: A celebrated modern Indian painter (1887–1972) known for his folk-art style paintings, not installations.
• Neha Sharma: Not a well-known artist in this context.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q10. The Asian Games 2023 took place in which city and country?

  1. (a) Hangzhou, China
  2. (b) Tokyo, Japan
  3. (c) Jakarta, Indonesia
  4. (d) Doha, Qatar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hangzhou, China

Hangzhou, China is correct. The 19th Asian Games were held in Hangzhou, China, from September 23 to October 8, 2023 (originally scheduled for 2022 but postponed due to COVID-19). India had a historic performance, winning 107 medals (28 gold, 38 silver, 41 bronze).
• Tokyo, Japan: Tokyo hosted the 2020 Summer Olympics (held in 2021); the Asian Games have not been held there.
• Jakarta, Indonesia: Jakarta (with Palembang) hosted the 18th Asian Games in 2018.
• Doha, Qatar: Doha hosted the 15th Asian Games in 2006; it was not the host for the 2023 Games.

Economics (5)

Money and Banking · Types of banks (RRB, co-operative, payments, small finance)

Q11. Which of the following targets at individuals and small businesses who lack access to conventional banking and related services?

  1. (a) Asset Finance Company
  2. (b) Investment Company
  3. (c) NBFC Micro Finance Institution
  4. (d) Infrastructure Finance Company
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) NBFC Micro Finance Institution

NBFC Micro Finance Institution (NBFC-MFI) is correct. NBFC-MFIs are Non-Banking Financial Companies that provide small loans and financial services specifically to low-income individuals and small businesses who lack access to conventional (formal) banking services. They are regulated by the RBI and play a critical role in financial inclusion.
• Asset Finance Company: Provides finance for physical assets like vehicles and machinery; not targeted at the financially excluded.
• Investment Company: Invests funds in securities and financial instruments; does not target unbanked individuals.
• Infrastructure Finance Company: Provides long-term finance for infrastructure projects; not designed for individual microfinance needs.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q12. What was a major criticism leveled against India's economic policies during the 1947–1990 period?

  1. (a) Lack of focus on agricultural development, leading to food shortages.
  2. (b) Excessive government control, red-tapism, and inefficiency in public sector enterprises.
  3. (c) Too much reliance on foreign investment and multinational corporations.
  4. (d) Neglecting social welfare programs and education.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Excessive government control, red-tapism, and inefficiency in public sector enterprises.

Option b is correct . The period 1947–1990 is often called the 'License Raj' era in India. The economy was characterized by heavy state intervention, industrial licensing, import substitution, and a dominant public sector. Critics pointed to excessive government control (License-Permit Raj), bureaucratic red-tapism, and chronic inefficiency in public sector enterprises as the major flaws.
• Option 1 is wrong: India actually focused heavily on agriculture during this period (Green Revolution, land reforms), and had relative food security by the 1970s.
• Option 3 is wrong: The opposite is true — India was highly protectionist and restricted foreign investment and MNCs during this period.
• Option 4 is wrong: India did invest in social welfare, education (IITs, IIMs), and public health during 1947–1990.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q13. Who was the Finance Minister of India who initiated the 1991 economic reforms?

  1. (a) P. Chidambaram
  2. (b) Yashwant Sinha
  3. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
  4. (d) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh

Dr. Manmohan Singh is correct. Dr. Manmohan Singh served as Finance Minister of India under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao from 1991 to 1996. He initiated the landmark 1991 economic liberalization reforms in response to India's severe balance of payments crisis. These reforms included devaluation of the rupee, dismantling the License Raj, opening the economy to foreign investment, and initiating privatization.
• P. Chidambaram: Served as Finance Minister in later years (1996–97, 2004–2008, 2008–2012); not the initiator of 1991 reforms.
• Yashwant Sinha: Served as Finance Minister under BJP governments (1990–91 briefly, and 1998–2002); not the 1991 liberalization reformer.
• Pranab Mukherjee: Served as Finance Minister during 1982–84 and 2009–2012; not the 1991 reformer.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q14. Ease of Doing Business is an index used to measure:

  1. (a) Democratic stability
  2. (b) Business regulatory environment
  3. (c) Health sector efficiency
  4. (d) Corruption control
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Business regulatory environment

Business regulatory environment is correct. The Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) Index, published annually by the World Bank (until 2021), measured the business regulatory environment of countries. It assessed parameters like starting a business, getting electricity, registering property, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency.
• Democratic stability: Measured by separate indices like Democracy Index (EIU) or Freedom House; not part of EoDB.
• Health sector efficiency: Measured by indices such as Bloomberg Health Efficiency Index; unrelated to EoDB.
• Corruption control: Measured by the Corruption Perceptions Index (Transparency International); not the focus of EoDB.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q15. Which central Indian scheme provides direct income support to small and marginal farmers as of July 2025?

  1. (a) PM KISAN
  2. (b) MGNREGA
  3. (c) PMAY-G
  4. (d) Fasal Bima Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) PM KISAN

PM KISAN is correct. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN), launched in February 2019, provides direct income support of ₹6,000 per year (in three instalments of ₹2,000) to small and marginal farmers across India through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
• MGNREGA: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural households; it is an employment scheme, not direct income support to farmers.
• PMAY-G: Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin) provides financial assistance for rural housing construction; it is a housing scheme, not farmer income support.
• Fasal Bima Yojana: Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana provides crop insurance to farmers against natural calamities; it is an insurance scheme, not direct income support.

Physics (1)

Motion · Projectile and relative motion

Q16. While sitting on a merry-go-round turning anti-clockwise, surrounding objects appear to move in which direction?

  1. (a) Clockwise
  2. (b) Anti-clockwise
  3. (c) Random
  4. (d) Not moving
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Clockwise

Clockwise is correct. This is due to the principle of relative motion. When you are sitting on a merry-go-round rotating anti-clockwise, your frame of reference is rotating anti-clockwise. Stationary surrounding objects, when observed from this rotating frame, appear to move in the opposite direction — i.e., clockwise.
• Anti-clockwise: Objects would appear anti-clockwise only if the merry-go-round itself were rotating clockwise.
• Random: Motion is not random; it follows a definite pattern based on the direction of rotation.
• Not moving: Objects would appear stationary only if the observer were also stationary (non-rotating).

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Theories of evolution (Lamarck, Darwin)

Q17. Which of the following statements best aligns with the concept of 'descent with modification' as described in Darwin's theory of evolution?

  1. (a) Traits acquired during an organism's lifetime are inherited by its offspring.
  2. (b) All species are fixed and do not change over time.
  3. (c) Populations change genetically over generations due to differential survival and reproduction.
  4. (d) Mutations alone are responsible for evolutionary change.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Populations change genetically over generations due to differential survival and reproduction.

Option c is correct . 'Descent with modification' is the core idea of Darwin's theory: populations of organisms change genetically over successive generations through the process of natural selection — individuals with traits better suited to their environment survive longer and reproduce more, passing on those advantageous traits.
• Option 1 is wrong: This describes Lamarckism (inheritance of acquired characteristics), which Darwin's theory replaced.
• Option 2 is wrong: This is the pre-Darwinian (creationist/fixist) view that species are immutable.
• Option 4 is wrong: While mutations are a source of genetic variation, Darwin's theory emphasizes natural selection acting on variation, not mutations alone driving evolution.

Modern History (1)

Towards Independence and Partition · Cabinet Mission

Q18. Which of the following accurately describes a key structural feature proposed by the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 for the future Indian Union?

  1. (a) It proposed the immediate creation of two independent states, India and Pakistan.
  2. (b) It advocated for a strong central government with extensive powers over provinces.
  3. (c) It included a provision for provincial groupings with a weak federal centre handling limited subjects .
  4. (d) It recommended that the Constituent Assembly be nominated by the Viceroy, without elections.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It included a provision for provincial groupings with a weak federal centre handling limited subjects .

Option c is correct . The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed a united India (rejecting Pakistan) with a three-tier federal structure: a weak Central Government (handling only foreign affairs, defence, and communications), provincial groupings (Group A, B, C), and individual provinces with autonomy over all remaining subjects. This was designed to balance Hindu-majority and Muslim-majority areas within one nation.
• Option 1 is wrong: The Cabinet Mission Plan explicitly rejected the partition of India into two separate states.
• Option 2 is wrong: It proposed a weak centre with limited powers, not a strong central government.
• Option 4 is wrong: The plan included provisions for an elected Constituent Assembly, not a nominated one.
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