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RRB Group D 2025-26 14 August 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 14 August 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Physics, Biology, Chemistry.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 14 August 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (19) · Economics (1) · Physics (11) · Biology (6) · Chemistry (8)

Current Affairs (19)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q1. Which ISRO mission detected the effects of Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) on the Moon’s exosphere, marking a global first in 2025?

  1. (a) Chandrayaan-3
  2. (b) Chandrayaan-2
  3. (c) Chandrayaan-1
  4. (d) Aditya-L1
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chandrayaan-2

Answer: Option 2 – Chandrayaan-2.
•Chandrayaan-2detected the effect of CMEs on the Moon's exosphere (a global first, 2025).
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q2. The Market Access Support (MAS) Scheme, launched in December 2025, was introduced primarily to strengthen which area of economic activity?

  1. (a) Promote exports and support MSME exporters
  2. (b) Increase agricultural procurement for farmers
  3. (c) Provide urban housing subsidies for migrants
  4. (d) Expand universal rural health insurance
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Promote exports and support MSME exporters

Answer: Option 1 – Promote exports and support MSME exporters.
• The Market Access Support (MAS) Scheme (Dec 2025) aims toboost exports and support MSME exporters.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q3. In which state was the 24th National Junior Athletics Federation Competition held from April 24 to 26, 2026?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Karnataka

Answer: Option 3 – Karnataka.
• The 24th National Junior Athletics Federation Competition (April 2026) was held inKarnataka.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q4. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology had developed a comprehensive framework and guidelines for Space Cyber Security in collaboration with which organisation during the DefSat Conference & Expo 2026 held in New Delhi?

  1. (a) NewSpace India Limited
  2. (b) Antrix Corporation Limited
  3. (c) Satcom Industry Association-India
  4. (d) Indian Space Research Organisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Satcom Industry Association-India

Answer: Option 3 – Satcom Industry Association-India.
• CERT-In developed the Space Cyber Security framework with theSatcom Industry Association-Indiaat DefSat 2026.

Q5. Who had authored the book “Tides of Time: Bharat’s History through Murals in Parliament” unveiled by Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan in 2026?

  1. (a) Sudha Murty
  2. (b) Amish Tripathi
  3. (c) Devdutt Pattanaik
  4. (d) Shashi Tharoor
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sudha Murty

Answer: Option 1 – Sudha Murty.
•Sudha Murtyauthored 'Tides of Time: Bharat's History through Murals in Parliament'.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q6. As part of India’s Gaganyaan human spaceflight programme, which organisation conducted crew module recovery trials in the Bay of Bengal in 2026?

  1. (a) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  2. (b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
  3. (c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  4. (d) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

Answer: Option 3 – ISRO.
•ISROconducted the Gaganyaan crew-module recovery trials in the Bay of Bengal (2026).
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q7. Which cricket team defeated Haryana in the final to claim their maiden Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy title in 2025?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Jharkhand
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jharkhand

Answer: Option 3 – Jharkhand.
•Jharkhandbeat Haryana to win their maiden Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy (2025).
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q8. Who had won the silver medal in women’s singles at the Baoji China Masters Super 100 badminton event held at Baoji City Gymnasium in May 2026?

  1. (a) Shriyanshi Valishetty
  2. (b) An Qi Yuan
  3. (c) Unnati Hooda
  4. (d) Malvika Bansod
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shriyanshi Valishetty

Answer: Option 1 – Shriyanshi Valishetty.
•Shriyanshi Valishettywon silver in women's singles at the Baoji China Masters Super 100 (May 2026).

Q9. Who is the author of the book 'General Brasstacks: The Sundarji story' published in January 2026?

  1. (a) Arjun Subramaniam
  2. (b) Srinath Raghavan
  3. (c) Probal Dasgupta
  4. (d) Shiv Kunal Verma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Probal Dasgupta

Answer: Option 3 – Probal Dasgupta.
•Probal Dasguptaauthored 'General Brasstacks: The Sundarji Story' (Jan 2026).
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q10. India renewed the Memorandum of Understanding on Environmental Cooperation in March 2026 for collaboration on pollution control, waste management, circular economy, and climate action with which country?

  1. (a) Sweden
  2. (b) Norway
  3. (c) Finland
  4. (d) Denmark
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Finland

Answer: Option 3 – Finland.
• India renewed the environmental-cooperation MoU withFinland(March 2026).

Q11. On May 11, 2026, the Government of India notified the rollout of the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 from July 1, 2026. It replaced which earlier rural employment law?

  1. (a) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
  2. (b) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
  3. (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
  4. (d) National Rural Livelihood Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005

Answer: Option 3 – MGNREGA, 2005.
• The VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 (from 1 July 2026) replaced theMahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q12. Which landmark achievement in hypersonic technology did the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) announce in May 2026?

  1. (a) The successful long-duration ground test of an actively cooled scramjet combustor
  2. (b) The induction of a hypersonic variant of the BrahMos missile
  3. (c) The launch of the first operational hypersonic cruise missile
  4. (d) The signing of a technology transfer deal with the US for hypersonic engines
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The successful long-duration ground test of an actively cooled scramjet combustor

Answer: Option 1 – Long-duration ground test of an actively cooled scramjet combustor.
• DRDO announced a successfullong-duration ground test of an actively cooled scramjet combustor(May 2026).
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q13. Which institution was honored with the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar 2026 in the Institutional Category for exceptional work in disaster management?

  1. (a) Sikkim State Disaster Management Authority
  2. (b) National Disaster Response Force
  3. (c) Indian Red Cross Society
  4. (d) National Institute of Disaster Management
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sikkim State Disaster Management Authority

Answer: Option 1 – Sikkim State Disaster Management Authority.
• TheSikkim SDMAwon the institutional-category Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar 2026.
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q14. Which theme was adopted for the World Governments Summit, 2026, that brought together governments, international organizations, thought leaders, and private sector leaders to identify innovative solutions for future challenges?

  1. (a) Shaping Future Governments
  2. (b) Empowering Modern Governments
  3. (c) Strengthening Sustainable Governments
  4. (d) Reinventing Digital Governments
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shaping Future Governments

Answer: Option 1 – Shaping Future Governments.
• The World Governments Summit 2026 theme was'Shaping Future Governments'.
Defence and Security - Current · Security operations

Q15. What triggered the 2025 India–Pakistan crisis?

  1. (a) Diplomatic expulsion of ambassadors
  2. (b) Terrorist attack in Pahalgam, Kashmir
  3. (c) Suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty
  4. (d) Cross-border artillery fire
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Terrorist attack in Pahalgam, Kashmir

Answer: Option 2 – Terrorist attack in Pahalgam, Kashmir.
• The 2025 India–Pakistan crisis was triggered by thePahalgam terror attack.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q16. Which weightlifter had won the gold medal in the men’s 65-kilogram category at the Commonwealth Youth Weightlifting Championships conducted in Samoa during April 2026?

  1. (a) Abhinob Gogoi
  2. (b) Harjinder Kaur
  3. (c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga
  4. (d) Sunil Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sunil Singh

Answer: Option 4 – Sunil Singh.
•Sunil Singhwon gold in the men's 65 kg at the Commonwealth Youth Weightlifting Championships (Samoa, April 2026).
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q17. According to the Global Terrorism Index 2026 published by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), which country had ranked first following a rise in terrorism-related fatalities?

  1. (a) Pakistan
  2. (b) Iraq
  3. (c) Afghanistan
  4. (d) India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pakistan

Answer: Option 1 – Pakistan.
•Pakistanranked first in the Global Terrorism Index 2026.
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q18. Where was Exercise Vayushakti-26 conducted in February 2026?

  1. (a) Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir
  2. (b) Kachchh, Gujarat
  3. (c) Leh, Ladakh
  4. (d) Pokhran Field Firing Range, Jaisalmer
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pokhran Field Firing Range, Jaisalmer

Answer: Option 4 – Pokhran Field Firing Range, Jaisalmer.
• Exercise Vayushakti-26 (Feb 2026) was conducted at thePokhran Range, Jaisalmer.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q19. According to the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI), 2025, published by Transparency International, what was India’s rank among 182 countries?

  1. (a) 96th
  2. (b) 102nd
  3. (c) 91st
  4. (d) 84th
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 91st

Answer: Option 3 – 91st.
• India ranked91stin the Corruption Perceptions Index 2025 (Transparency International).

Economics (1)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q20. As per the Union Budget 2025-26 announcement, in which state is a greenfield airport to be established?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bihar

Answer: Option 1 – Bihar.
• Union Budget 2025-26 announced a greenfield airport inBihar.

Physics (11)

Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q21. On a velocity-time graph, what does a horizontal straight line above the time axis indicate about the motion of the object?

  1. (a) Constant velocity
  2. (b) Increasing velocity
  3. (c) Constant acceleration
  4. (d) Changing direction
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Constant velocity

Answer: Option 1 – Constant velocity.
• A horizontal line on a velocity–time graph means velocity does not change ⇒constant velocity.
Sound and Waves · Range of hearing, infrasonic and ultrasonic sound

Q22. Why can humans NOT hear the sound produced by a bat?

  1. (a) The frequency of bat sounds is above 20,000 Hz.
  2. (b) The frequency of bat sounds is below 20 Hz.
  3. (c) The sound travels only in water.
  4. (d) The sound is too loud for humans.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The frequency of bat sounds is above 20,000 Hz.

Answer: Option 1 – The frequency of bat sounds is above 20,000 Hz.
• Bats produceultrasonic sound (> 20,000 Hz), beyond the human hearing range (20–20,000 Hz).
Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q23. Which of the following changes will most likely reduce the clarity of an echo in a large room?

  1. (a) Painting the walls a light colour
  2. (b) Adding thick curtains to the walls
  3. (c) Installing smooth ceramic tiles
  4. (d) Making the room larger
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Adding thick curtains to the walls

Answer: Option 2 – Adding thick curtains to the walls.
• Soft, thick curtainsabsorb sound, reducing reflection and hence the echo.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Convex lens - image formation and uses

Q24. When an object is placed at 2F₁ of a convex lens, where is the image formed?

  1. (a) At infinity
  2. (b) At F₂
  3. (c) At 2F₂
  4. (d) Between F₂ and 2F₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) At 2F₂

Answer: Option 3 – At 2F₂.
• For a convex lens with object at 2F₁, the image forms at2F₂(real, inverted, same size).
Work, Energy and Power · Conservation and transformation of energy

Q25. What form of energy does a glowing bulb emit?

  1. (a) Sound energy
  2. (b) Light energy
  3. (c) Chemical energy
  4. (d) Gravitational energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Light energy

Answer: Option 2 – Light energy.
• A glowing bulb chiefly emitslight energy(and some heat).
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Optical instruments (microscope, telescope, camera)

Q26. The measure of an image's clarity is called _________, whereas _________ is the brightness difference between object parts.

  1. (a) contrast, resolution
  2. (b) illumination, magnification
  3. (c) magnification, illumination
  4. (d) resolution, contrast
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) resolution, contrast

Answer: Option 4 – resolution, contrast.
• Image clarity =resolution; brightness difference between parts =contrast.
Work, Energy and Power · Conservation and transformation of energy

Q27. A diver jumps off a diving board into a pool. At the moment just before entering the water, which statement best applies according to the law of conservation of energy?

  1. (a) The diver’s loss in potential energy equals the gain in kinetic energy
  2. (b) The diver’s total energy increases during the fall
  3. (c) The diver loses energy during the fall to the surroundings
  4. (d) The diver’s potential energy stays the same throughout
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The diver’s loss in potential energy equals the gain in kinetic energy

Answer: Option 1 – The diver's loss in PE equals the gain in KE.
• By conservation of energy,PE lost = KE gained(ignoring losses).
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q28. In a tug-of-war, Team A pulls Team B with a force of 300 N. According to Newton's Third Law, what force does Team B exert on Team A?

  1. (a) 150 N in the same direction
  2. (b) 300 N in the opposite direction
  3. (c) 600 N in the opposite direction
  4. (d) 300 N in the same direction
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 300 N in the opposite direction

Answer: Option 2 – 300 N in the opposite direction.
• Newton's third law: reaction is equal and opposite ⇒300 N opposite.
Electricity · Ohm's law

Q29. Which of the following graphs best represents Ohm’s Law for a resistor at constant temperature?

  1. (a) A straight line graph passing through the origin when current is plotted against voltage
  2. (b) A straight line graph not passing through the origin when current is plotted against voltage
  3. (c) A horizontal line graph when current is plotted against voltage
  4. (d) A curved line graph passing through the origin when current is plotted against voltage
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A straight line graph passing through the origin when current is plotted against voltage

Answer: Option 1 – A straight line through the origin (current vs voltage).
• Ohm's law (V = IR) gives astraight line through the originfor I vs V at constant temperature.
Physics Miscellaneous · Scientific instruments and their uses

Q30. Complete the analogy.Light Microscope: Visible Light:: Electron Microscope: ________.

  1. (a) Laser Light
  2. (b) Electron Beam
  3. (c) X rays
  4. (d) Ultraviolet Light
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Electron Beam

Answer: Option 2 – Electron Beam.
• A light microscope uses visible light; anelectron microscope uses an electron beam.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q31. A technician reverses the direction of current in a conductor placed in a magnetic field. According to Fleming's Left Hand Rule, what will happen to the direction of force on the conductor?

  1. (a) The force direction will remain unchanged
  2. (b) The force direction will reverse
  3. (c) The force will always increase
  4. (d) The force will disappear
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The force direction will reverse

Answer: Option 2 – The force direction will reverse.
• By Fleming's left-hand rule, reversing the currentreverses the forcedirection.

Biology (6)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Drug and alcohol abuse

Q32. Which of the following organs is most commonly affected by smoking tobacco products?

  1. (a) Pancreas
  2. (b) Intestine
  3. (c) Lungs
  4. (d) Brain
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lungs

Answer: Option 3 – Lungs.
• Smoking tobacco most commonly damages thelungs.
Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q33. What does the fact that movement in a plant occurs away from the point of touch suggest about plant coordination?

  1. (a) Photosynthesis
  2. (b) Growth stimulation
  3. (c) Water absorption
  4. (d) Signal transmission
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Signal transmission

Answer: Option 4 – Signal transmission.
• Movement away from touch shows the planttransmits a signal(stimulus response) between cells.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Plant kingdom groups (Thallophyta to Angiosperms)

Q34. A student observes green mats growing on rocks in a damp forest. They have rhizoid-like structures but lack true roots. Which class do these plants most likely represent?

  1. (a) Thallophyta
  2. (b) Gymnosperm
  3. (c) Bryophyta
  4. (d) Pteridophyta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bryophyta

Answer: Option 3 – Bryophyta.
• Green mats with rhizoid-like structures but no true roots arebryophytes(e.g. mosses).
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q35. What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?

  1. (a) Break down dead remains of organisms
  2. (b) Convert light energy into chemical energy
  3. (c) Synthesize organic substances from inorganic substances
  4. (d) Bring about the death of plants
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Break down dead remains of organisms

Answer: Option 1 – Break down dead remains of organisms.
• Decomposersbreak down dead organisms, recycling nutrients.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Basis and hierarchy of classification

Q36. A student classifies animals in a diagram by both activity time (day/night) and visible characteristics. Which statement best shows what combining these criteria demonstrates about scientific classification?

  1. (a) It creates unique groups
  2. (b) It eliminates overlaps
  3. (c) It allows for multiple perspectives
  4. (d) It always focuses on genetics
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It allows for multiple perspectives

Answer: Option 3 – It allows for multiple perspectives.
• Using more than one criterion shows classification can reflectmultiple perspectives.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Transport in plants (xylem, phloem)

Q37. What is the primary reason water moves into the phloem tissue after sucrose is actively loaded into it in plants?

  1. (a) Pressure equalizes between phloem and xylem tissues
  2. (b) The increase in osmotic pressure draws water into the phloem
  3. (c) Increased ATP usage raises the temperature in the phloem
  4. (d) Water moves to phloem due to root pressure buildup
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The increase in osmotic pressure draws water into the phloem

Answer: Option 2 – The increase in osmotic pressure draws water into the phloem.
• Loading sucrose raises the phloem'sosmotic pressure, so water enters by osmosis (pressure-flow).

Chemistry (8)

Carbon and its Compounds · Homologous series

Q38. What do methane, ethane and propane represent in the study of carbon compounds?

  1. (a) Chains containing single carbon atom
  2. (b) Chains containing aromatic carbon atoms
  3. (c) Chains containing increasing carbon atoms
  4. (d) Chains containing mixed metal atoms
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chains containing increasing carbon atoms

Answer: Option 3 – Chains containing increasing carbon atoms.
• Methane (1C), ethane (2C), propane (3C) form ahomologous series with increasing carbon atoms.
Periodic Classification of Elements · Element facts (names, symbols, atomic numbers)

Q39. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Fe – Fluorine
  2. (b) Ag – Argon
  3. (c) Au – Aluminum
  4. (d) Pb – Lead
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pb – Lead

Answer: Option 4 – Pb – Lead.
•Pbis the symbol forLead(Latin *plumbum*). The others are mismatched.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q40. A student accidentally spills a small amount of dilute sulfuric acid on the laboratory table. The teacher suggests adding sodium bicarbonate powder to neutralize the acid.Which product confirms that a neutralization reaction has occurred?

  1. (a) Formation of oxygen gas
  2. (b) Formation of carbon dioxide and salt
  3. (c) Formation of hydrogen gas
  4. (d) Formation of metal oxide
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Formation of carbon dioxide and salt

Answer: Option 2 – Formation of carbon dioxide and salt.
• Acid + sodium bicarbonate → salt + water +CO₂, confirming neutralisation (effervescence).
Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q41. A chemist is designing a synthetic route for a new medicine and must select a carbon compound as the starting material. Which property of carbon allows it to form a wide variety of organic molecules suitable for this task?

  1. (a) Carbon's ability to lose electrons easily
  2. (b) Carbon's ability to attract electrons strongly
  3. (c) Carbon's ability to form double bonds with oxygen
  4. (d) Carbon's ability to form four strong covalent bonds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Carbon's ability to form four strong covalent bonds

Answer: Option 4 – Carbon's ability to form four strong covalent bonds.
• Carbon'stetravalency and catenation(four strong covalent bonds) let it form countless organic molecules.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q42. Identify the correct statement regarding the reaction of sodium carbonate and dilute HCl.

  1. (a) Hydrogen is released.
  2. (b) Carbon dioxide is released.
  3. (c) Chlorine is released.
  4. (d) Carbon monoxide is released.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Carbon dioxide is released.

Answer: Option 2 – Carbon dioxide is released.
• Na₂CO₃ + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H₂O +CO₂.
Structure of Atom · Bohr's model

Q43. Which of the following phenomena is explained by Bohr’s model?

  1. (a) Diffraction of neutron
  2. (b) Hydrogen line spectrum
  3. (c) Diffraction of proton
  4. (d) Rutherford scattering
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hydrogen line spectrum

Answer: Option 2 – Hydrogen line spectrum.
• Bohr's model successfully explained thehydrogen line (emission) spectrum.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q44. When a metal reacts with a dilute acid, hydrogen gas is released. What is the compound formed along with hydrogen gas called?

  1. (a) Water
  2. (b) Oxide
  3. (c) Base
  4. (d) Salt
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Salt

Answer: Option 4 – Salt.
• Metal + acid →salt+ hydrogen gas.
Chemistry Miscellaneous · Chemists and their discoveries

Q45. Who was the first scientist to use the term 'element'?

  1. (a) Robert Boyle
  2. (b) Antoine Lavoisier
  3. (c) John Dalton
  4. (d) JJ Thomson
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Robert Boyle

Answer: Option 1 – Robert Boyle.
•Robert Boylefirst used the term 'element'.
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