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RRB Group D 2025-26 21 August 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 21 August 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Current Affairs, Biology, Physics, Chemistry.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 21 August 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Economics (1) · Current Affairs (18) · Biology (10) · Physics (8) · Chemistry (7)

Economics (1)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q1. Which country officially adopted the euro as its national currency on 1 January 2026, becoming the 21st member of the Eurozone?

  1. (a) Romania
  2. (b) Hungary
  3. (c) Croatia
  4. (d) Bulgaria
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bulgaria

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Bulgaria
Explanation:
Bulgaria officially adopted the euro as its national currency on1 January 2026, becoming the21st member state of the Eurozone, confirmed by the European Central Bank, the Council of the EU, and multiple news reports (Euronews, GreekReporter, PIB/newsonair).
Important Facts:
• Bulgaria's currency before the euro was the Bulgarian Lev (BGN), pegged to the euro since 1999.
• Croatia was the 20th Eurozone member (adopted euro on 1 January 2023).
• Bulgaria's capital is Sofia; PM at the time was Rosen Zhelyazkov.

Current Affairs (18)

Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q2. Where was the Thirty-Seventh Meeting of the Parties to the Montreal Protocol (MOP37) held in November 2025?

  1. (a) Vienna, Austria
  2. (b) Nairobi, Kenya
  3. (c) Geneva, Switzerland
  4. (d) Bangkok, Thailand
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nairobi, Kenya

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Nairobi, Kenya
Explanation:
The Thirty-Seventh Meeting of the Parties to the Montreal Protocol (MOP37) was held from3–7 November 2025 in Nairobi, Kenya, confirmed by the UNEP Ozone Secretariat and the IISD Earth Negotiations Bulletin summary report.
Important Facts:
• The Montreal Protocol (1987) is an international treaty to protect the ozone layer by phasing out ozone-depleting substances.
• The Ozone Secretariat, which organizes MOP meetings, is administered by UNEP and headquartered in Nairobi.
• The Kigali Amendment to the Protocol addresses the phase-down of HFCs.

Q3. Which of the following books, published in May 2026, provides a detailed account of Shivraj Singh Chouhan’s 35-year association with Prime Minister Narendra Modi, highlighting organisational strategy and nation-building?

  1. (a) Leadership Unveiled
  2. (b) Apnapan
  3. (c) Journey of Governance
  4. (d) Sankalp Se Siddhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Apnapan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Apnapan
Explanation:
Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan's book'Apnapan', based on his 35-year association with PM Narendra Modi, was released on26 May 2026in New Delhi, confirmed by PIB and multiple news reports (ANI, Global Agriculture, DD India).
Important Facts:
• Shivraj Singh Chouhan is currently the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, and former Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.
• The book highlights organisational strategy and nation-building themes drawn from his decades-long association with PM Modi.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q4. On the occasion of which event did the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah address the ‘Janjati Sanskritik Samagam’ organised in New Delhi as the Chief Guest in May 2026?

  1. (a) 75th anniversary of the Constitution of India
  2. (b) 150th birth anniversary year of Bhagwan Birsa Munda
  3. (c) World Tribal Day celebrations
  4. (d) Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 150th birth anniversary year of Bhagwan Birsa Munda

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 150th birth anniversary year of Bhagwan Birsa Munda
Explanation:
The 'Janjati Sanskritik Samagam' was held on24 May 2026at the Red Fort Grounds, New Delhi, with Amit Shah as Chief Guest, explicitly held on the occasion of the'150th birth anniversary year of the great national hero Bhagwan Birsa Munda', per Organiser.org coverage.
Important Facts:
• Birsa Munda (born 15 November 1875) is revered as 'Bhagwan Birsa Munda' and led tribal resistance against British colonial rule.
• 15 November is observed as Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas (Tribal Pride Day) in his honour.
• The event brought together representatives of over 500 tribal communities across India.

Q5. Which mission, notified by the Government of India on 11 May 2026, aimed to strengthen rural employment and livelihood opportunities while replacing the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee programme?

  1. (a) National Rural Livelihood and Employment Mission
  2. (b) Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin)
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Rozgar Abhiyan
  4. (d) Gramin Kaushal Evam Rozgar Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin)
Explanation:
The Government of India notified theViksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB-G RAM G] Act, 2025, replacing MGNREGA, with the mission notified around11 May 2026, confirmed by PIB, Vision IAS, and Wikipedia.
Important Facts:
• President Droupadi Murmu gave assent to the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025.
• The Act guarantees an enhanced wage employment provision (100 to 125 days per year).
• The scheme was piloted to replace MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005).
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q6. Which team was defeated by India in the final of the 2026 ICC Under-19 Men’s Cricket World Cup to secure a record sixth title?

  1. (a) New Zealand
  2. (b) South Africa
  3. (c) Australia
  4. (d) England
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) England

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – England
Explanation:
India defeatedEnglandin the final of the 2026 ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup (held in Harare, Zimbabwe/Africa region) to win a recordsixth title, confirmed by ICC, BCCI, and Outlook India ('India Beat England By 100 Runs To Become 6-Time Champions').
Important Facts:
• India is the most successful team in U-19 World Cup history with 6 titles (2000, 2008, 2012, 2018, 2022, 2026).
• The tournament is organised by the ICC for players under 19 years of age.
State News · State elections and results

Q7. Who took oath as the Chief Minister of Kerala after the 2026 Kerala Legislative Assembly elections?

  1. (a) Pinarayi Vijayan
  2. (b) K. Sudhakaran
  3. (c) Shashi Tharoor
  4. (d) V. D. Satheesan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) V. D. Satheesan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – V. D. Satheesan
Explanation:
Following the2026 Kerala Legislative Assembly election, the UDF (Congress-led) returned to power ending a decade of LDF rule, andV. D. Satheesanwas sworn in as Chief Minister of Kerala (mid-May 2026), confirmed by ANI and Wikipedia ('Satheesan ministry').
Important Facts:
• Pinarayi Vijayan (CPI(M)) was the outgoing LDF Chief Minister who had led Kerala for two consecutive terms (2016-2026).
• V. D. Satheesan was the Leader of Opposition in the 15th Kerala Assembly prior to becoming CM.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q8. Who recorded a new World Record in the 50m Rifle 3 Positions event in February 2026?

  1. (a) Niraj Kumar
  2. (b) Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar
  3. (c) Gagan Narang
  4. (d) Abhinav Bindra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar
Explanation:
Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomarset a new World Record in the 50m Rifle 3 Positions event while winning gold at theAsian Shooting Championships 2026(February 2026), confirmed by Olympics.com, The Bridge, and Outlook India.
Important Facts:
• India achieved a clean sweep of medals in the men's 50m rifle 3 positions event at that championship.
• Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar also won a bronze medal at the 2024 Paris Olympics in the same event.

Q9. According to the provisions highlighted in the 2026 Budget, which key feature was included in the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB-GRAM G] Act, 2025, for rural households?

  1. (a) Statutory enhancement of guaranteed wage employment from 100 days to 125 days per financial year
  2. (b) Universal pension coverage for all rural workers above 60 years of age
  3. (c) Mandatory crop insurance coverage for every rural household
  4. (d) Provision of interest-free agricultural loans to all rural households
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statutory enhancement of guaranteed wage employment from 100 days to 125 days per financial year

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Statutory enhancement of guaranteed wage employment from 100 days to 125 days per financial year
Explanation:
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, guaranteed rural wage employment was raised from100 days to 125 daysper household per financial year, confirmed by a Ministry-linked newsonair headline: 'Viksit Bharat G-RAM-G Act guarantees 125 days of wage employment per rural household' (Union Minister Jitendra Singh).
Important Facts:
• The Act also mandates timely wage payment with interest for delays, per Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
• The scheme replaced the erstwhile MGNREGA, which guaranteed 100 days of employment.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q10. Which institution had developed the nano-enabled innovation for rapid removal of toxic plastic pollutants from water, an initiative aligned with Namami Gange, Swachh Bharat, Jal Jeevan Mission, and the UN Sustainable Development Goals in January 2026?

  1. (a) Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Science Bengaluru
  3. (c) Indian Institute of Technology Delhi
  4. (d) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee
Explanation:
IIT Roorkeescientists developed a nano-enabled innovation for rapid removal of toxic plastic pollutants from water (announced ~13 January 2026), explicitly stated to align with Namami Gange, Swachh Bharat, Jal Jeevan Mission and UN SDGs, per Business News This Week and Careers360 coverage.
Important Facts:
• The innovation uses a nano-enabled bioremediation-type method for microplastic/pollutant removal from water bodies.
• Namami Gange is India's flagship programme for conservation of the River Ganga.
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q11. The Quad foreign ministers' meeting was held in which of the following cities of India on May 26, 2026?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Kolkata
  4. (d) Jaipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) New Delhi

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – New Delhi
Explanation:
The2026 Quad Foreign Ministers' Meetingwas held inNew Delhi(around 26 May 2026), confirmed by the US Department of State and the Australian Foreign Minister's office ('2026 Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting in New Delhi').
Important Facts:
• The Quad grouping comprises India, the United States, Japan, and Australia.
• A Joint Statement from the meeting was released covering critical minerals and Indo-Pacific cooperation.
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q12. What was the venue of the final match of the 2026 ICC Men’s T20 World Cup, where India defeated New Zealand to win the title?

  1. (a) M. Chinnaswamy Stadium, Bengaluru
  2. (b) Eden Gardens, Kolkata
  3. (c) Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai
  4. (d) Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad
Explanation:
India defeated New Zealand in the final of the2026 ICC Men's T20 World Cup, held at theNarendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad(early March 2026), confirmed by newsonair.gov.in reports ahead of and on the final.
Important Facts:
• This was reported as India's title win in the T20 World Cup (India also won the 2007 and 2024 editions).
• Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad is the world's largest cricket stadium by seating capacity.
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q13. What decision did the RBI take in its Monetary Policy Report released in October 2025?

  1. (a) Repo rate cut; accommodative stance
  2. (b) Repo rate unchanged at 6.00%; dovish stance
  3. (c) Repo rate hike; tightening stance
  4. (d) Repo rate unchanged at 5.50%; neutral stance
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Repo rate unchanged at 5.50%; neutral stance

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Repo rate unchanged at 5.50%; neutral stance
Explanation:
In its October 2025 policy review, RBI's Monetary Policy Committee kept therepo rate unchanged at 5.50%and maintained a'neutral' stance, confirmed by multiple sources (Taxmann, Sahi.com, PIB press release on GDP outlook).
Important Facts:
• RBI Governor at the time was Sanjay Malhotra.
• RBI subsequently cut the repo rate in December 2025 (to around 5.25%) as inflation eased to multi-year lows.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q14. The theme for National Voters' Day 2026 was “My India, My Vote” with which of the following taglines?

  1. (a) Every Vote Builds the Nation’s Future
  2. (b) Strengthening Democracy Through Participation
  3. (c) Citizen at the Heart of Indian Democracy
  4. (d) Empowering Citizens for Electoral Integrity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Citizen at the Heart of Indian Democracy

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Citizen at the Heart of Indian Democracy
Explanation:
National Voters' Day 2026 (16th edition, observed 25 January 2026) had the theme'My India, My Vote'with the tagline'Citizen at the Heart of Indian Democracy', confirmed via gktoday.in and testbook.com summaries of the official ECI theme.
Important Facts:
• National Voters' Day is observed annually on 25 January, the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (established 1950).
• President Droupadi Murmu presided over the main function in New Delhi.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q15. The Federation Cup 2026 saw a major upset in the Men’s Shot Put. Which athlete defeated the two-time Asian Games champion to secure a Commonwealth Games berth?

  1. (a) Praveen Chithravel
  2. (b) Tajinderpal Singh Toor
  3. (c) Karanveer Singh
  4. (d) Samardeep Singh Gill
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Samardeep Singh Gill

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Samardeep Singh Gill
Explanation:
At theFederation Cup 2026,Samardeep Singh Gillupset two-time Asian Games championTajinderpal Singh Toorto win gold in Men's Shot Put and secure a Commonwealth Games berth, confirmed by Asianet Newsable ('Federation Cup: Samardeep Gill upsets Tajinderpal Toor for gold').
Important Facts:
• Tajinderpal Singh Toor is a two-time Asian Games gold medallist (2018, 2022) in shot put.
• The Federation Cup also serves as a trials event for selection to the Commonwealth Games.
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q16. Rob Jetten, who was sworn in as Prime Minister in February 2026, became the youngest and first openly gay person to hold the office in which European country?

  1. (a) Denmark
  2. (b) The Netherlands
  3. (c) Belgium
  4. (d) Sweden
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Netherlands

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – The Netherlands
Explanation:
Rob Jetten(D66 leader) was sworn in as Prime Minister ofthe Netherlandson 23 February 2026, becoming the country's youngest-ever and first openly gay Prime Minister, confirmed by RTE, Courthouse News Service, and Wikipedia.
Important Facts:
• Rob Jetten is the leader of the centrist D66 (Democrats 66) party.
• He took office at age 38, making him the youngest Dutch PM in history.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q17. In January 2026, DRDO successfully tested its full-scale scramjet engine at the Scramjet Connect Pipe Test (SCPT) facility in Hyderabad. What was the key result of this test?

  1. (a) Short supersonic flight using regular engines
  2. (b) Launch of a ready-to-use hypersonic missile
  3. (c) Development of a new guided missile system
  4. (d) Long hypersonic engine run for over twelve minutes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Long hypersonic engine run for over twelve minutes

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Long hypersonic engine run for over twelve minutes
Explanation:
DRDO conducted a successful ground test of a full-scale, actively-cooled, long-duration scramjet engine/combustor at its facility in Hyderabad around 9-10 January 2026, running for roughly 1000-1200 seconds (about 17-20 minutes) — i.e., well over twelve minutes — a milestone for India's hypersonic missile programme, confirmed by PIB, ANI, and multiple defence-news outlets (Quwa, Organiser, newsonair).
Important Facts:
• This test is part of DRDO's hypersonic missile development programme.
• A follow-on longer-duration scramjet combustor test (~1200 seconds) was also reported around May 2026.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q18. In the Bihar state election 2025, which party won the largest seats?

  1. (a) Rashtriya Janata Dal - RJD
  2. (b) Janata Dal (United) - JD(U)
  3. (c) Bharatiya Janata Party - BJP
  4. (d) Indian National Congress - INC
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Janata Party - BJP

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Bharatiya Janata Party - BJP
Explanation:
In the2025 Bihar Legislative Assembly election(NDA won a landslide of 202/243 seats), theBJP emerged as the single largest party with 89 seats, ahead of JD(U), confirmed by WION and thedailyjagran.com ('BJP Emerges As Single-Largest Party In Bihar, Wins 89 Seats').
Important Facts:
• NDA (BJP + JD(U) + allies) won a record 202 seats; the Mahagathbandhan (RJD-led) was reduced to about 35 seats.
• Nitish Kumar (JD(U)) continued as Chief Minister of Bihar despite BJP having more seats than JD(U).
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q19. What was the theme of the National Voters' Day 2026 observed across India to encourage youth participation and strengthen democratic values?

  1. (a) Democracy Through Participation
  2. (b) One Nation, One Election
  3. (c) My India, My Vote
  4. (d) Power of Every Vote
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) My India, My Vote

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – My India, My Vote
Explanation:
National Voters' Day 2026 (25 January 2026, the 16th edition) had the official theme'My India, My Vote', confirmed by PIB and multiple newsonair.gov.in reports (e.g., 'Nagaland celebrates 16th National Voters' Day under theme My India, My Vote').
Important Facts:
• The day is observed annually on 25 January, marking the Election Commission of India's foundation day (1950).
• The 2026 theme's tagline was 'Citizen at the Heart of Indian Democracy'.

Biology (10)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q20. What was the name of the programme dedicated to the nation by Dr. Jitendra Singh in May 2026 to promote early intervention and affordable healthcare for rare genetic disorders and genome-based precision medicine?

  1. (a) SAKSHAM
  2. (b) UMMID
  3. (c) AYUSH
  4. (d) UMANG
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) UMMID

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – UMMID
Explanation:
Union MinisterDr Jitendra Singh dedicated the UMMID programmeto the nation in May 2026, aimed at early intervention, affordable healthcare for rare genetic disorders, and genome-based precision medicine, confirmed by PIB and Daily Excelsior.
Important Facts:
• UMMID stands for Unique Methods of Management and treatment of Inherited Disorders.
• Dr Jitendra Singh is the Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology and MoS PMO.

Q21. What are the end products formed during anaerobic respiration in yeast cells?

  1. (a) Water and oxygen
  2. (b) Glucose and oxygen
  3. (c) Lactic acid and water
  4. (d) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ethanol and carbon dioxide

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Ethanol and carbon dioxide
Explanation:
In yeast, anaerobic respiration (fermentation) converts glucose intoethanol and carbon dioxide, releasing a small amount of energy.
Important Facts:
• In muscle cells during vigorous exercise (anaerobic respiration), the end product is lactic acid instead.
• Aerobic respiration produces CO2 and water as end products.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Respiration and excretion in other organisms

Q22. A field ecologist studies fish in a high-altitude lake with low oxygen. Which structural adaptation in the gills would most likely be observed?

  1. (a) Thicker gill membranes
  2. (b) Fewer capillaries in gill tissue
  3. (c) Reduced blood flow in gills
  4. (d) Greater surface area for gas exchange
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Greater surface area for gas exchange

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Greater surface area for gas exchange
Explanation:
In low-oxygen (high-altitude) water, fish gills adapt by increasing thesurface areaavailable for gas exchange (more/larger gill lamellae), maximizing oxygen uptake from scarce dissolved oxygen.
Important Facts:
• Thinner gill membranes (not thicker) and greater blood flow/capillary density also aid gas exchange, opposite of the incorrect options given.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Dialysis and other excretory organs

Q23. Match the excretory product in Column A with the organ that removes it in Column B.
[TABLE]
Column A (Excretory Product) | Column B (Organ)
(a) Urea | (i) Liver
(b) Carbon dioxide | (ii) Lungs
(c) Excess salts | (iii) Skin
(d) Bile salts | (iv) Kidney
[/TABLE]

  1. (a) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii
  2. (b) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i
  3. (c) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
  4. (d) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i
Explanation:
Matching each excretory product with the organ that removes it:
• a. Urea → iv. Kidney
• b. Carbon dioxide → ii. Lungs
• c. Excess salts → iii. Skin (via sweat)
• d. Bile salts → i. Liver (bile is produced/processed by the liver)
Important Facts:
• Kidneys remove nitrogenous waste (urea) by filtering blood.
• Skin removes excess water and salts through sweat.
Cell - Structure and Function · Cytoskeleton, cell death and cancer cells

Q24. Name the process of selective cell destruction that helps in the formation of separate fingers during embryonic development.

  1. (a) Meiosis
  2. (b) Programmed cell death
  3. (c) Plasmolysis
  4. (d) Mitosis
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Programmed cell death

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Programmed cell death
Explanation:
Programmed cell death (apoptosis)selectively destroys the cells present between developing digits (fingers/toes), separating them during embryonic development.
Important Facts:
• Apoptosis is a normal, genetically controlled process essential for development, distinct from accidental cell death (necrosis).
• Meiosis and mitosis are cell division processes, not cell destruction.
Ecology and Environment · Food chains and food webs

Q25. If all the snakes in a food chain disappear, what will be the immediate effect on the food chain?

  1. (a) Tree population will decrease
  2. (b) Frog population will increase
  3. (c) Grass population will decrease
  4. (d) Tiger population will increase
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Frog population will increase

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Frog population will increase
Explanation:
In a typical food chain (grass → insects → frogs → snakes → eagles), snakes are predators of frogs. If snakes disappear, predation pressure on frogs is removed, so thefrog population will increaseimmediately.
Important Facts:
• Removing a predator from a food chain typically causes its prey population to rise (at least in the short term).

Q26. A clinical investigation identifies a unicellular, motile, eukaryotic organism that ingests bacteria for food. Which is the best position for this organism in the five kingdom system?

  1. (a) Fungi
  2. (b) Protista
  3. (c) Animalia
  4. (d) Monera
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Protista

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Protista
Explanation:
A unicellular, motile, eukaryotic organism that ingests bacteria (e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium) belongs to the kingdomProtistain the five-kingdom classification system.
Important Facts:
• Monera comprises unicellular prokaryotes (bacteria), which lack a true nucleus — ruling that option out.
• Fungi and Animalia typically contain multicellular organisms (with some unicellular fungal exceptions like yeast, which don't ingest food this way).
Ecology and Environment · Biogeochemical cycles

Q27. Considering the versatility of carbon, which scenario most accurately represents its role in environmental science?

  1. (a) Use of calcium carbonate in bones
  2. (b) Formation of sodium carbonate in water
  3. (c) Formation of carbon dioxide in respiration
  4. (d) Formation of magnesium oxide in rocks
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Formation of carbon dioxide in respiration

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Formation of carbon dioxide in respiration
Explanation:
Carbon's versatility (catenation, tetravalency) allows it to form countless compounds. In environmental science, the most direct example of carbon's role is theformation of carbon dioxide during respiration, a key step of the carbon cycle. The other options primarily involve calcium, sodium, or magnesium compounds, not carbon's own versatility.
Important Facts:
• The carbon cycle (photosynthesis, respiration, combustion, decomposition) is central to environmental science and climate regulation.

Q28. The absence of a nucleus in mature RBCs provides more room for __________, which carries oxygen to the body.

  1. (a) Lysosomes
  2. (b) DNA
  3. (c) Chlorophyll
  4. (d) Hemoglobin
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hemoglobin

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Hemoglobin
Explanation:
Mature mammalian RBCs lack a nucleus, which creates more internal space to be packed withhemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying pigment, maximizing oxygen-carrying capacity.
Important Facts:
• The absence of a nucleus also gives RBCs their characteristic biconcave shape, increasing surface area for gas exchange.

Q29. Match Column A with Column B .
[TABLE]
| Column A | | Column B
(a) | Alveoli | (i) | Prevents food entry into the trachea
(b) | Haemoglobin | (ii) | Gas exchange
(c) | Diaphragm | (iii) | Oxygen transport
(d) | Epiglottis | (iv) | Helps in inhalation
[/TABLE]

  1. (a) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
  2. (b) a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i
  3. (c) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
  4. (d) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
Explanation:
Matching each structure with its function:
• a. Alveoli → ii. Gas exchange
• b. Haemoglobin → iii. Oxygen transport
• c. Diaphragm → iv. Helps in inhalation
• d. Epiglottis → i. Prevents food entry into the trachea
Important Facts:
• The diaphragm contracts and flattens during inhalation, increasing thoracic cavity volume.
• The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that covers the windpipe during swallowing.

Physics (8)

Motion · Numericals on motion

Q30. A cyclist travels 60 metres north and then 80 metres south in 20 seconds. What is the magnitude of his average velocity?

  1. (a) Five metres per second
  2. (b) One metre per second
  3. (c) Zero metres per second
  4. (d) Seven metres per second
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One metre per second

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – One metre per second
Explanation:
Displacement (net) = 80 m south − 60 m north =20 m(net direction south). Average velocity = displacement ÷ time = 20 m ÷ 20 s =1 m/s.
Important Facts:
• Average velocity is calculated using net displacement, not total distance travelled.
• Average speed here would instead use total distance (60+80=140 m), giving 7 m/s — a common distractor (Option 4).
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's first law and inertia

Q31. Seat belts in cars are provided to protect passengers during sudden braking or collision because of:

  1. (a) Inertia of direction
  2. (b) Inertia of motion
  3. (c) Friction
  4. (d) Inertia of rest
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Inertia of motion

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Inertia of motion
Explanation:
When a car brakes suddenly, the passenger's body tends to continue moving forward due toinertia of motion(Newton's first law). Seat belts restrain the body, preventing injury.
Important Facts:
• Inertia of rest refers to a resting body resisting a change to motion (e.g., a jerk forward when a stationary vehicle suddenly moves).
Work, Energy and Power · Kinetic energy

Q32. A student claims that a stationary object has kinetic energy because it has mass. Evaluate this statement.

  1. (a) The statement is incorrect because kinetic energy requires motion
  2. (b) The statement is correct only for objects on Earth
  3. (c) The statement is incorrect because only energy in motion counts as potential energy
  4. (d) The statement is correct because all objects with mass have kinetic energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The statement is incorrect because kinetic energy requires motion

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The statement is incorrect because kinetic energy requires motion
Explanation:
Kinetic energy is given by KE = ½mv². For a stationary object, v = 0, so KE = 0 regardless of mass. Kinetic energy depends onmotion, not merely mass.
Important Facts:
• A stationary object at a height can possess potential energy, not kinetic energy.
Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q33. How does a stethoscope use the principle of reflection of sound?

  1. (a) By directing sound outward
  2. (b) By filtering sound by frequency
  3. (c) By absorbing sound waves
  4. (d) Through multiple reflections within its tube to transmit heartbeat sounds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Through multiple reflections within its tube to transmit heartbeat sounds

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Through multiple reflections within its tube to transmit heartbeat sounds
Explanation:
A stethoscope works on the principle ofmultiple reflection of sound. Sound produced by the heartbeat undergoes repeated reflections along the tube's walls, reaching the doctor's ears with negligible loss of energy/intensity.
Important Facts:
• This is a classic example of sound reflection used in NCERT Class 9/10 science.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q34. Which rule is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular current-carrying loop?

  1. (a) Right-hand thumb rule
  2. (b) Fleming’s left hand rule
  3. (c) Joule’s law of heating
  4. (d) Ohm’s law
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Right-hand thumb rule

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Right-hand thumb rule
Explanation:
Theright-hand thumb rule(curl the fingers in the direction of current, thumb points in the direction of the magnetic field) is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field, including at the centre of a current-carrying circular loop.
Important Facts:
• Fleming's left-hand rule instead gives the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field, not the field's direction itself.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q35. A technician wants to decrease the magnetic effect around a current-carrying wire without changing the wire's material or environment. Which method should be used?

  1. (a) Change the wire's path to a straight line
  2. (b) Reduce the amount of current flowing through the wire
  3. (c) Make the wire thinner without changing the current
  4. (d) Increase the length of the wire used
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Reduce the amount of current flowing through the wire

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Reduce the amount of current flowing through the wire
Explanation:
The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire is directly proportional to the current (B ∝ I). Without altering the wire's material, thickness, or path, the only way to decrease the magnetic effect is toreduce the currentflowing through it.
Important Facts:
• Changing the wire's thickness or path would alter its physical configuration/environment, which the question rules out.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q36. A real, inverted image is formed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a concave mirror when an object is placed 60 cm from the mirror. Which statement best describes the focal length of the mirror?

  1. (a) The focal length of the mirror is - 30 cm
  2. (b) The focal length of the mirror is + 10 cm
  3. (c) The focal length of the mirror is - 20 cm
  4. (d) The focal length of the mirror is + 15 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The focal length of the mirror is - 20 cm

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The focal length of the mirror is - 20 cm
Explanation:
Using the mirror formula 1/v + 1/u = 1/f with sign convention (u = −60 cm, v = −30 cm, both real/in front of mirror):
1/f = 1/(−30) + 1/(−60) = −2/60 − 1/60 = −3/60 = −1/20, sof = −20 cm.
Important Facts:
• For concave mirrors, focal length is taken as negative as per the Cartesian sign convention.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q37. A toy car of mass 0.5 kg moves with speed 2 m/s, Its kinetic energy is:

  1. (a) 1 J
  2. (b) 2 J
  3. (c) 2.5 J
  4. (d) 0.5 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 J

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1 J
Explanation:
KE = ½mv² = ½ × 0.5 kg × (2 m/s)² = ½ × 0.5 × 4 =1 J.
Important Facts:
• Kinetic energy increases with the square of velocity, so doubling speed quadruples KE.

Chemistry (7)

Carbon and its Compounds · Soaps and detergents

Q38. How do micelles enable soaps to function effectively in cleaning oily stains from clothes?

  1. (a) They chemically break down oily molecules into polar fragments that can evaporate easily.
  2. (b) They coat the fabric surface with a hydrophobic layer that prevents water from sticking.
  3. (c) They surround and trap non-polar substances, making them soluble in water
  4. (d) They increase the pH of water so that oils form solid precipitates that can be washed away.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They surround and trap non-polar substances, making them soluble in water

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – They surround and trap non-polar substances, making them soluble in water
Explanation:
Soap molecules formmicellesin water: their hydrophobic (non-polar) tails point inward, trapping oil/dirt, while hydrophilic (polar) heads face outward toward water. This traps the oily dirt inside the micelle, allowing it to be washed away with water.
Important Facts:
• Soap molecules have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic (long hydrocarbon) tail.
• Micelle formation is a physical entrapment process, not a chemical breakdown of oil.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q39. Which of the following is a property of a suspension?

  1. (a) Particles do not settle down
  2. (b) Can be separated by filtration
  3. (c) Particles are smaller than 1 nm
  4. (d) Homogeneous mixture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Can be separated by filtration

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Can be separated by filtration
Explanation:
A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture with large, visible particles that settle down on standing andcan be separated by filtration— unlike a true solution.
Important Facts:
• Suspension particles are larger than 1000 nm (not smaller than 1 nm — that's a true solution).
• Suspensions are heterogeneous, not homogeneous, and their particles do settle down over time.
Structure of Atom · Electronic configuration and shells

Q40. Which arrangement correctly shows the distribution of electrons in the orbits of the element sodium (atomic number 11)?

  1. (a) 2,9
  2. (b) 1,8,2
  3. (c) 2,8,1
  4. (d) 3,9
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2,8,1

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – 2,8,1
Explanation:
Sodium (atomic number 11) has 11 electrons distributed as2, 8, 1across the K, L, and M shells respectively (2n² rule with max 8 in L shell).
Important Facts:
• Sodium has 1 valence electron in its outermost shell, making it highly reactive (Group 1 alkali metal).
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q41. Which of the following is NOT a use of bleaching powder?

  1. (a) Manufacturing chloroform
  2. (b) Bleaching cotton and linen
  3. (c) Removing hardness of water
  4. (d) Disinfecting drinking water
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Removing hardness of water

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Removing hardness of water
Explanation:
Bleaching powder is used for bleaching cotton/linen, disinfecting drinking water, and in the manufacture of chloroform.Removing hardness of wateris NOT its use — that is done using washing soda (sodium carbonate) or ion-exchange methods.
Important Facts:
• Bleaching powder, Ca(OCl)Cl, is also used as an oxidising agent in various chemical industries.
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q42. If two atoms of the same element have different mass numbers but the same number of protons, which subatomic particle is responsible for this difference?

  1. (a) Neutron
  2. (b) Positron
  3. (c) Electron
  4. (d) Proton
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Neutron

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Neutron
Explanation:
Atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different mass numbers areisotopes; the difference in mass number arises from a differing number ofneutrons.
Important Facts:
• Isotopes have identical chemical properties but differing physical properties (like density).
Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q43. Which products are always formed during a complete neutralization chemical reaction?

  1. (a) Acid and base
  2. (b) Metal and gas
  3. (c) Salt and water
  4. (d) Gas and salt
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Salt and water

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Salt and water
Explanation:
A complete neutralization reaction is: Acid + Base →Salt + Water. This is always the pattern regardless of the specific acid or base involved.
Important Facts:
• Example: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O.
Metals and Non-metals · Ionic compounds and their properties

Q44. Which property is most commonly observed in ionic compounds like sodium chloride?

  1. (a) High electrical conductivity in solid state
  2. (b) Poor electrical conductivity in molten state
  3. (c) High melting and boiling points
  4. (d) Low melting and boiling points
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High melting and boiling points

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – High melting and boiling points
Explanation:
Ionic compounds like sodium chloride have strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions, resulting inhigh melting and boiling points.
Important Facts:
• Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten/aqueous state (due to free ions) but not in the solid state (ions are fixed in a lattice).
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