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RRB Group D 2025-26 25 August 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 25 August 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Static GK, Geography, Biology, Chemistry.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 25 August 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (18) · Economics (1) · Static GK (1) · Geography (2) · Biology (6) · Chemistry (7) · Physics (10)

Current Affairs (18)

Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q1. In June 2026, which Indian cricketer became the first player in the world to appear in 200 T20 Internationals?

  1. (a) Ellyse Perry
  2. (b) Harmanpreet Kaur
  3. (c) Meg Lanning
  4. (d) Smriti Mandhana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harmanpreet Kaur

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Harmanpreet Kaur
Explanation:
In June 2026,Harmanpreet Kaurbecame the first cricketer (male or female) in the world to appear in 200 T20 International matches, reaching the milestone during India's series against South Africa.
Important Facts:
• Harmanpreet Kaur is India's ODI and T20I captain.
• The milestone came just ahead of the ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2026.
• Smriti Mandhana, Meg Lanning and Ellyse Perry are other senior batters but none had reached 200 T20Is at that time.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q2. In December 2025, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the NDMA approved a National Project worth over ₹500 crore. What is the primary objective of this project?

  1. (a) To integrate Disaster Risk Reduction into local governance through Panchayati Raj Institutions
  2. (b) To build 10,000 new cyclone shelters in coastal areas
  3. (c) To establish a national satellite system for weather forecasting
  4. (d) To provide disaster insurance to all farmers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To integrate Disaster Risk Reduction into local governance through Panchayati Raj Institutions

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – To integrate Disaster Risk Reduction into local governance through Panchayati Raj Institutions
Explanation:
In December 2025, a High-Level Committee chaired by Union Home Minister Amit Shah approved theNational Project for Strengthening Community Based Disaster Risk Reduction Initiatives in Panchayati Raj Institutions, worth ₹507.37 crore, jointly under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and NDMA, to embed DRR practices into local (Panchayat-level) governance.
Important Facts:
• The project covers 20 states.
• It aims to build disaster-resilient Gram Panchayats through training and community participation.
• It complements the National Disaster Management Plan framework.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q3. Which Malayalam novelist won the Kendra Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 for his novel "Maayamanushyar"?

  1. (a) N. Prabhakaran
  2. (b) Benyamin
  3. (c) M. T. Vasudevan Nair
  4. (d) K. R. Meera
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) N. Prabhakaran

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – N. Prabhakaran
Explanation:
N. Prabhakaranwon the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 in the Malayalam category for his novel"Maayaamanushyar", among the 24 language-category awards announced (results publicised around March 2026).
Important Facts:
• Navtej Sarna won the English-language Sahitya Akademi Award 2025; Mamta Kalia won for Hindi.
• The Sahitya Akademi Award covers 24 Indian languages annually.
• Benyamin and M.T. Vasudevan Nair are other well-known Malayalam authors but were not the 2025 winner.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q4. The North Tech Symposium 2026, organized under the theme “Raksha Triveni Sangam – Where Technology, Industry and Soldiering Converge,” was held in which of the following cities?

  1. (a) Prayagraj
  2. (b) Lucknow
  3. (c) Pune
  4. (d) Jaipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prayagraj

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Prayagraj
Explanation:
TheNorth Tech Symposium 2026, themed "Raksha Triveni Sangam – Where Technology, Industry and Soldiering Converge," was a 3-day event jointly organised by the Indian Army (Northern and Central Commands) and SIDM, inaugurated by the Raksha Mantri inPrayagraj.
Important Facts:
• SIDM stands for Society of Indian Defence Manufacturers.
• The symposium focused on indigenous defence technology and industry-military collaboration.
• A curtain-raiser event was held earlier at Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q5. Brij Lal Bhat, who was conferred the Padma Shri in 2026 for his contributions to social work, is primarily associated with which region of India?

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:
Brij Lal Bhat, a social worker fromJammu and Kashmir, was conferred the Padma Shri in 2026 for his wide-ranging social service, including strengthening spiritual institutions through yoga shivirs and Bhandara Seva.
Important Facts:
• Prof. Shafi Shauq, also from Jammu and Kashmir, received a Padma Shri around the same time.
• Padma Awards 2026 were announced on Republic Day (26 January 2026).
• Padma Shri is India's fourth-highest civilian award.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q6. Which novel by Karan Mahajan, published in 2026, explores India’s political transformations through a family saga?

  1. (a) The Association of Small Bombs
  2. (b) The Complex
  3. (c) Great Eastern Hotel
  4. (d) Family Planning
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Complex

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – The Complex
Explanation:
Karan Mahajan's 2026 novel"The Complex"is set in Delhi and uses a joint-family saga to trace India's political transformations, described by reviewers as turning a family drama into a sharp political novel.
Important Facts:
• Mahajan's earlier novels include "Family Planning" (2008) and "The Association of Small Bombs" (2016).
• "The Complex" was published by Penguin Random House in 2026.
• The novel spans multiple generations of a Delhi family against India's political backdrop.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q7. In May 2026, the DRDO successfully completed the final development trials of the ULPGM-V3 missile in which two operational modes?

  1. (a) Air-to-ground and air-to-air
  2. (b) Air-to-sea and sea-to-surface
  3. (c) Ground-to-ground and sea-to-air
  4. (d) Surface-to-surface and surface-to-air
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Air-to-ground and air-to-air

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Air-to-ground and air-to-air
Explanation:
In May 2026, DRDO completed the final development trials of theUAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM-V3)in bothAir-to-Ground and Air-to-Airmodes, clearing the way for mass production.
Important Facts:
• ULPGM-V3 is designed to be launched from unmanned aerial vehicles (drones).
• The development boosts India's Aatmanirbhar Bharat push in indigenous defence manufacturing.
• Earlier ULPGM trials had also been conducted in Andhra Pradesh.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q8. In February 2026, a third batch of cheetahs was translocated to India from which country, and where were they released?

  1. (a) South Africa; Nauradehi Tiger Reserve
  2. (b) Namibia; Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary
  3. (c) Kenya; Rani Durgavati Sanctuary
  4. (d) Botswana; Kuno National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Botswana; Kuno National Park

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Botswana; Kuno National Park
Explanation:
In February 2026, the third batch of African cheetahs was translocated to India fromBotswanaand released atKuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh, as part of the ongoing Project Cheetah reintroduction programme.
Important Facts:
• The first batch (2022) came from Namibia; the second batch (2023) came from South Africa.
• Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh is being developed as a second cheetah habitat site.
• The Botswana batch included six females and three males.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q9. Which badminton player won the Women’s Singles title at the Thailand Masters 2026 tournament conducted in Bangkok?

  1. (a) Supanida Katethong
  2. (b) Devika Sihag
  3. (c) Huang Yu-hsun
  4. (d) Goh Jin Wei
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Devika Sihag

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Devika Sihag
Explanation:
Indian shuttlerDevika Sihagwon the Women's Singles title at theBWF Thailand Masters 2026(Super 300) in Bangkok, defeating Malaysia's Goh Jin Wei in the final to claim her maiden BWF World Tour title.
Important Facts:
• Thailand Masters is a BWF World Tour Super 300-level event.
• The 2026 edition was held in January 2026.
• Goh Jin Wei (Malaysia) was the runner-up, retiring during the final.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. The Federation Cup, 2026, was hosted at the iconic Birsa Munda Stadium, located in which of the following cities?

  1. (a) Ranchi
  2. (b) Raipur
  3. (c) Patna
  4. (d) Bhubaneswar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ranchi

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Ranchi
Explanation:
The Federation Cup (2026 National Federation Cup Senior Athletics Championships) was held at theBirsa Munda Athletics StadiuminRanchi, Jharkhand, from late May 2026.
Important Facts:
• The event also served as trials for the Commonwealth Games 2026.
• Ranchi hosted the 29th National Senior Athletics Federation Competition 2026.
• Sprinter Animesh Kujur was among the notable qualifiers from this meet.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q11. In April 2026, the Ministry of Minority Affairs signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which institution under the PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan) Scheme to enhance employability and facilitate placement opportunities for minority youth?

  1. (a) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Guwahati
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kanpur
  3. (c) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Delhi
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Patna
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Patna

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Patna
Explanation:
In April 2026, the Ministry of Minority Affairs signed an MoU withIIT Patnaunder thePM VIKASscheme to enhance employability and skilling (including AI training) for minority youth.
Important Facts:
• Under the MoU, around 600 Bihar youth are to be trained as AI technocrats.
• PM VIKAS stands for Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan.
• The scheme focuses on skill development, education, health and livelihood for minority communities.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q12. Which Indian airport is ranked the 5th-busiest airport in the Asia Pacific (Apac) region in 2025 as per Apac aviation rankings released in February 2026?

  1. (a) Delhi aiport
  2. (b) Chennai airport
  3. (c) Mumbai airport
  4. (d) Kolkata airport
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Delhi aiport

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Delhi airport
Explanation:
As per Asia-Pacific (Apac) busiest-airport rankings for 2025 (released around February 2026),Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi, ranked 5th in the region, with about 46.2 million seats, narrowly trailing Beijing Capital Airport.
Important Facts:
• Delhi was highlighted as one of the fastest-rising airports in the Apac region.
• Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata airports ranked lower in the same list.
• India was cited as the world's 5th-biggest aviation market in 2024.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q13. Who became India's 95th Chess Grandmaster after securing the third and final Grandmaster norm at the Bangkok Chess Club Open 2026?

  1. (a) Raunak Sadhwani
  2. (b) Nihal Sarin
  3. (c) Aronyak Ghosh
  4. (d) Aditya Mittal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aronyak Ghosh

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Aronyak Ghosh
Explanation:
Aronyak Ghoshbecame India's 95th Chess Grandmaster after securing his third and final GM norm at theBangkok Chess Club Open 2026, scoring 7.0/9 and tying for first place.
Important Facts:
• Aronyak Ghosh was born in 2003 and was 22 years old at the time.
• Raunak Sadhwani, Nihal Sarin and Aditya Mittal are other prominent young Indian GMs but were not the 95th.
• India has been rapidly growing its pool of chess Grandmasters in recent years.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q14. Under the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026, all posts in which senior CAPF ranks are required to be filled by Indian Police Service (IPS) officers on deputation?

  1. (a) Additional Director General and Inspector General
  2. (b) Inspector General and Deputy Inspector General
  3. (c) Director General and Special Director General
  4. (d) Commandant and Deputy Commandant
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Director General and Special Director General

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Director General and Special Director General
Explanation:
Under theCentral Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026,allposts in the ranks ofDirector General and Special Director Generalmust be filled by IPS officers on deputation, while Inspector General (50%) and Additional Director General (67%) posts have only partial IPS deputation quotas.
Important Facts:
• The Bill codifies the long-standing practice of IPS deputation in CAPFs like BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP and SSB.
• It was introduced and passed in the Rajya Sabha around March 2026.
• The Bill was a subject of debate over cadre management within CAPFs.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q15. Who won the 2026 Mark Lynton History Prize for the book 'The Golden Road: How Ancient India Transformed the World'?

  1. (a) Romila Thapar
  2. (b) Ramachandra Guha
  3. (c) William Dalrymple
  4. (d) Sunil Khilnani
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) William Dalrymple

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – William Dalrymple
Explanation:
William Dalrymplewon the2026 Mark Lynton History Prizefor his book"The Golden Road: How Ancient India Transformed the World."
Important Facts:
• The Mark Lynton History Prize is administered by Columbia Journalism School/Nieman Foundation for narrative history writing.
• The book explores ancient India's cultural, religious and scientific influence across Asia and beyond.
• Dalrymple is a Scottish-born historian known for several works on South Asian history.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q16. Which country was announced as the host of the World Environment Day 2026 by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?

  1. (a) Azerbaijan
  2. (b) Kazakhstan
  3. (c) Georgia
  4. (d) Türkiye
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Azerbaijan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Azerbaijan
Explanation:
TheUnited Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)announced theRepublic of Azerbaijanas the host country forWorld Environment Day 2026.
Important Facts:
• World Environment Day is observed globally every year on 5 June.
• The Republic of Korea hosted World Environment Day in 2025.
• Each year's host country leads the global celebrations and sets the theme focus.
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q17. In early 2026, the Joint Military Exercise ‘Dharma Guardian’ took place between the Indian Army and which organisation of Japan?

  1. (a) Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force
  2. (b) Japan Air Self-Defense Force
  3. (c) Japan Ground Self-Defense Force
  4. (d) Japan Strategic Defense Force
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Japan Ground Self-Defense Force

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Japan Ground Self-Defense Force
Explanation:
The 7th edition of the joint military exercise'Dharma Guardian 2026'was conducted between theIndian Armyand theJapan Ground Self-Defense Force (JGSDF)at Chaubattia, Uttarakhand, commencing in February 2026 (early 2026).
Important Facts:
• Dharma Guardian is an annual bilateral Army-level exercise between India and Japan.
• It focuses on counter-terrorism and joint tactical drills in mountainous/jungle terrain.
• The exercise reflects growing India-Japan defence cooperation.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q18. Which political party emerged as the leading party in the Kerala Assembly Election 2026?

  1. (a) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
  2. (b) Bharatiya Janata Party
  3. (c) Indian Union Muslim League
  4. (d) Indian National Congress
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian National Congress

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Indian National Congress
Explanation:
In the2026 Kerala Legislative Assembly Election, the Congress-led UDF swept to power with 102 seats; theIndian National Congressalone won 63 seats, emerging as the single largest party and ending a decade of LDF rule.
Important Facts:
• LDF (CPI(M)-led) won 35 seats, while NDA won 3 seats — its best-ever tally in Kerala.
• V. D. Satheesan was named Chief Minister after the UDF's victory.
• Results were declared around May 2026.

Economics (1)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q19. What is the total corpus allocated for the newly proposed SME Growth Fund introduced in the Union Budget 2026–27 to support high-potential enterprises?

  1. (a) ₹5,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹10,000 crore
  3. (c) ₹2,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹15,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹10,000 crore

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – ₹10,000 crore
Explanation:
TheUnion Budget 2026-27introduced a newSME Growth Fundwith a total corpus of₹10,000 croreto support high-potential small and medium enterprises.
Important Facts:
• The fund aims to boost jobs, manufacturing and exports for the MSME sector.
• It forms part of a broader package of liquidity and credit support measures for MSMEs in Budget 2026.
• The Budget was presented on 1 February 2026.

Static GK (1)

Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q20. The Kumbhalgarh Fort located in which state got recognized as the second largest continuous wall by UNESCO in May 2026?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajasthan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Rajasthan
Explanation:
Kumbhalgarh Fort, located inRajasthan, was recognized in reports around May 2026 as having the world'ssecond-longest continuous wall, after the Great Wall of China.
Important Facts:
• Kumbhalgarh is part of the 'Hill Forts of Rajasthan' UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The fort was built by Rana Kumbha in the 15th century.
• Its perimeter wall stretches over 36 km.

Geography (2)

Atmosphere and Climate · Insolation and heat budget

Q21. A physical geographer compares two coastal cities: one at the equator and one near the poles. Both receive the same duration of sunlight in a day. The reason the equatorial city remains warmer is:

  1. (a) Sunlight at the equator is more direct, concentrating energy
  2. (b) Surface reflection is higher at the equator, keeping it warmer
  3. (c) Both cities have similar temperatures due to equal sunlight duration
  4. (d) The polar city absorbs less sunlight due to water proximity
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sunlight at the equator is more direct, concentrating energy

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Sunlight at the equator is more direct, concentrating energy
Explanation:
At the equator, sunlight strikes the surface at a nearly90° angle, so its energy is concentrated over a small area. Near the poles, the same amount of sunlight is spread over a much larger area because it strikes at a low, slanting angle. Even with equal duration of sunlight, the equatorial region receives more concentrated (intense) energy per unit area, making it warmer.
Important Facts:
• Angle of incidence, not just duration, determines intensity of solar heating.
• This is why polar regions remain cold despite long summer days.
• Curvature of the Earth causes this variation in angle of incidence with latitude.
Atmosphere and Climate · Planetary, seasonal and local winds

Q22. An ecologist analyzes wind patterns and concludes they originate from the equator toward the poles. The underlying principle for this observation is:

  1. (a) Ocean salinity differences push air masses north and south
  2. (b) Earth’s magnetic field directs winds from equator to poles
  3. (c) Temperature gradients caused by uneven solar heating drive winds
  4. (d) Tidal forces move atmospheric currents globally
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Temperature gradients caused by uneven solar heating drive winds

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Temperature gradients caused by uneven solar heating drive winds
Explanation:
The equator receives more direct and intense solar heating than the poles, creating atemperature (and pressure) gradient. Warm air at the equator rises and low pressure forms, while cooler, denser air at the poles sinks creating high pressure. Air moves from high pressure to low pressure, generating large-scale wind patterns flowing from the poles toward the equator at the surface (and the reverse aloft), driven fundamentally by uneven solar heating.
Important Facts:
• This uneven heating is the basis of global atmospheric circulation cells (Hadley, Ferrel, Polar cells).
• Ocean salinity and Earth's magnetic field do not drive large-scale wind patterns.
• The Coriolis effect (due to Earth's rotation) further deflects these winds.

Biology (6)

Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q23. Which of the following practices can reduce the volume of non-biodegradable waste?

  1. (a) Dump all waste in water bodies
  2. (b) Use reusable and recyclable products
  3. (c) Use disposable plates and cups
  4. (d) Mix non-biodegradable waste with soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Use reusable and recyclable products

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Use reusable and recyclable products
Explanation:
Non-biodegradable waste (plastics, metals, glass) does not decompose naturally. Usingreusable and recyclable productsreduces the amount of fresh non-biodegradable material generated and diverts existing waste back into use, cutting down the overall volume of waste needing disposal.
Important Facts:
• Dumping in water bodies or mixing with soil causes pollution, not reduction.
• Disposable plates/cups increase non-biodegradable waste generation.
• The 3 R's — Reduce, Reuse, Recycle — are the standard waste management principles.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Transport in plants (xylem, phloem)

Q24. Transport of water in plants occurs through ___________.

  1. (a) Xylem
  2. (b) Vacuole
  3. (c) Phloem
  4. (d) Cambium
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Xylem

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Xylem
Explanation:
Xylemis the vascular tissue responsible for transporting water and dissolved minerals from the roots upward to the stem and leaves. It consists of tracheids and vessels that form continuous conducting channels.
Important Facts:
• Phloem transports food (prepared by photosynthesis) from leaves to other parts of the plant.
• Water movement in xylem occurs due to transpiration pull, root pressure, and capillary action.
• Cambium is the meristematic tissue that produces new xylem and phloem.
Tissues · Nervous tissue

Q25. Which of the given statements about nervous tissue are correct?(i) Nervous tissues are made up of neurons.(ii) Neurons have one axon and many dendrites.(iii) Nerve impulses are signals that pass through a nerve fibre.

  1. (a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
  2. (b) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (c) (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (d) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) (i), (ii) & (iii)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – (i), (ii) & (iii)
Explanation:
All three statements are correct: (i) Nervous tissue is made up of specialized cells calledneurons. (ii) A typical neuron hasone long axon(to send signals) andmultiple short dendrites(to receive signals). (iii)Nerve impulsesare electrochemical signals that travel through nerve fibres (axons) to transmit information across the body.
Important Facts:
• Neurons are the structural and functional units of the nervous system.
• A neuron has three main parts: cell body (soma), dendrites, and axon.
• Nerve impulses travel via changes in electrical potential across the neuron's membrane.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Drug and alcohol abuse

Q26. A long-term smoker develops a chronic cough and frequent respiratory infections. Which physiological change in the respiratory tract primarily contributes to this increased susceptibility?

  1. (a) Narrowing of bronchi
  2. (b) Increased mucus production
  3. (c) Destruction of cilia in the upper respiratory tract
  4. (d) Thickening of bronchial walls
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Destruction of cilia in the upper respiratory tract

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Destruction of cilia in the upper respiratory tract
Explanation:
Cilia lining the respiratory tract normally trap and sweep out dust, microbes, and mucus, keeping the airways clean. Chronic smokingdestroys/paralyzes these cilia, impairing this natural cleaning (mucociliary clearance) mechanism. This allows mucus, pathogens, and irritants to accumulate, leading to chronic cough ('smoker's cough') and recurrent respiratory infections.
Important Facts:
• Cilia damage is a hallmark of chronic bronchitis seen in long-term smokers.
• Increased mucus production also occurs but the loss of cilia's clearing function is the primary reason for recurrent infections.
• This ciliary damage can be partially reversible if smoking is stopped early.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q27. Which of the following processes in plants are responsible for fulfilling the energy and carbon requirements?

  1. (a) Respiration
  2. (b) Translocation
  3. (c) Photosynthesis
  4. (d) Transpiration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Photosynthesis

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Photosynthesis
Explanation:
Photosynthesisis the process by which green plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to synthesize glucose (food), fulfilling both theirenergyrequirements (glucose is later broken down via respiration to release energy) and theircarbonrequirements (carbon is incorporated into organic compounds like carbohydrates).
Important Facts:
• Respiration releases energy from food but does not fix carbon — it releases CO2.
• Translocation moves food (from photosynthesis) via phloem; transpiration is loss of water vapor.
• The overall photosynthesis equation: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 (using light energy).
Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q28. Which of the following is correct about growth pattern in plants and animal cells?

  1. (a) Animal cells growth is due to meristematic tissues.
  2. (b) Plant cell growth is more uniform in comparison to animal cells.
  3. (c) Plants have a specific growth region containing dividing tissues.
  4. (d) Both follow same growth pattern.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Plants have a specific growth region containing dividing tissues.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Plants have a specific growth region containing dividing tissues.
Explanation:
Unlike animals, plants havelocalized regions of growth(calledmeristematic tissue) at the tips of roots and shoots, where active cell division occurs throughout the plant's life. In contrast, animal growth occurs relatively uniformly across the body and stops after a certain stage, without such fixed dividing regions.
Important Facts:
• Meristematic tissue is exclusive to plants, not animals.
• Plant growth is often described as 'indeterminate' (continues throughout life) at these meristems.
• Animal cell growth involves cell division throughout the body during development, not confined to specific zones.

Chemistry (7)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q29. Which substance would best help neutralize the burning sensation caused by a bee sting containing methanoic acid?

  1. (a) Mild vinegar solution
  2. (b) Tamarind solution
  3. (c) Lemon juice
  4. (d) Mild baking soda solution
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mild baking soda solution

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Mild baking soda solution
Explanation:
A bee sting injectsmethanoic acid (formic acid), which causes the burning/painful sensation. To neutralize an acid, a mild base is needed.Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate)is a mild base and reacts with the acid, neutralizing it and relieving the pain.
Important Facts:
• Vinegar, tamarind, and lemon juice are all acidic and would worsen the burning sensation.
• Ant bites also inject formic acid and are treated the same way.
• Neutralization: acid + base → salt + water.
Metals and Non-metals · Physical properties of metals and non-metals

Q30. Consider the following statements about non-metals and select the correct option.Statement I: A solid substance that is dull, brittle, and does not conduct electricity in the solid state is most likely a non-metal.Statement II: All non-metals are dull, brittle solids and do not conduct electricity in the solid state.

  1. (a) Both statements are correct
  2. (b) Both statements are incorrect
  3. (c) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
  4. (d) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement Iis correct: dull, brittle, non-conducting solids are typically non-metals — this is a valid general indicator.Statement IIis incorrect because it is an absolute (over)generalization: there are exceptions among non-metals — e.g.,iodineis lustrous (shiny),graphite(a form of carbon, a non-metal) conducts electricity, and some non-metals (like bromine) are liquid, not solid, at room temperature.
Important Facts:
• Graphite is a well-known exception: a non-metal that conducts electricity due to delocalized electrons.
• Iodine is a non-metal that has a metallic lustre.
• Non-metals exist in all three states of matter — solid, liquid (bromine), and gas.
Carbon and its Compounds · Allotropes of carbon

Q31. Why does diamond not conduct electricity while graphite does?

  1. (a) All electrons in diamond are involved in bonding
  2. (b) Amorphous carbon contains delocalized electrons
  3. (c) Diamond has layers that slide and conduct
  4. (d) Fullerenes have mobile electrons in cages
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) All electrons in diamond are involved in bonding

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – All electrons in diamond are involved in bonding
Explanation:
In diamond, each carbon atom formsfour strong covalent bondswith neighboring carbon atoms in a rigid 3D tetrahedral structure, using up all its valence electrons in bonding. With no free/delocalized electrons available, diamond does not conduct electricity. In graphite, each carbon forms onlythreecovalent bonds (in a planar hexagonal layered structure), leaving one electron per atomdelocalized, which is free to move and conduct electricity.
Important Facts:
• Graphite's layered structure with weak forces between layers also makes it slippery/soft, used as a lubricant.
• Diamond is the hardest natural substance due to its rigid 3D covalent network.
• Both diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q32. Which of the following is a characteristic of a true solution?

  1. (a) The solute particles settle rapidly at the bottom.
  2. (b) The solute particles are easily separated by filtration.
  3. (c) The solute particles can be seen with the naked eye.
  4. (d) The solute particles are evenly distributed in the solution.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The solute particles are evenly distributed in the solution.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The solute particles are evenly distributed in the solution.
Explanation:
Atrue solutionis a homogeneous mixture where the solute particles are so small (less than 1 nm) that they areevenly and uniformly distributedthroughout the solvent at the molecular level. They do not settle over time, cannot be seen with the naked eye, and cannot be separated by ordinary filtration.
Important Facts:
• A true solution is optically clear/transparent and does not scatter light (no Tyndall effect).
• Suspensions, by contrast, have visible, settling particles that can be filtered out.
• Colloids are intermediate — particles too small to settle but large enough to scatter light (Tyndall effect).
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Dalton's atomic theory

Q33. What does Dalton’s atomic theory suggest about atoms of different elements?

  1. (a) They have different sizes but identical masses.
  2. (b) They have different masses and properties.
  3. (c) They have identical masses but different shapes.
  4. (d) They are the same in every aspect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They have different masses and properties.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – They have different masses and properties.
Explanation:
According toDalton's atomic theory, atoms of the same element are identical in mass and properties, whereasatoms of different elements have different masses and different chemical properties. This was one of the foundational postulates that explained why elements combine in fixed proportions.
Important Facts:
• Dalton proposed atoms are indivisible and indestructible (later modified with discovery of subatomic particles).
• Atoms of the same element are alike in all respects, per Dalton's theory.
• Atoms combine in simple whole-number ratios to form compounds.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Nature of salts (acidic, basic, neutral)

Q34. A salt solution has a pH of 9. Which type of salt is it most likely to be?

  1. (a) Formed from a strong base and weak acid
  2. (b) Formed from a strong acid and weak base
  3. (c) Formed from a strong acid and strong base
  4. (d) Formed from a weak acid and weak base
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Formed from a strong base and weak acid

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Formed from a strong base and weak acid
Explanation:
A salt solution withpH 9is basic in nature (pH > 7). Salts formed from astrong base and a weak acidhydrolyze in water to give a basic solution (e.g., sodium acetate, sodium carbonate), consistent with a pH of 9.
Important Facts:
• Salts of strong acid + weak base give acidic solutions (pH < 7), e.g., ammonium chloride.
• Salts of strong acid + strong base are neutral (pH = 7), e.g., sodium chloride.
• Salts of weak acid + weak base give solutions near neutral, depending on relative strengths.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q35. Which of the following elements has molecules with the highest number of atoms?

  1. (a) Oxygen
  2. (b) Nitrogen
  3. (c) Sulphur
  4. (d) Chlorine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sulphur

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sulphur
Explanation:
Among the given options,Sulphurexists as anS₈molecule (a ring of 8 sulphur atoms), which has the highest number of atoms per molecule. Oxygen (O₂) and Nitrogen (N₂) are diatomic, and Chlorine (Cl₂) is also diatomic — all having only 2 atoms per molecule.
Important Facts:
• Phosphorus also forms polyatomic molecules (P₄), but Sulphur's S₈ has more atoms.
• Ozone (O₃), an allotrope of oxygen, has 3 atoms, still fewer than S₈.
• Molecularity here refers to atomicity — the number of atoms constituting one molecule of the element.

Physics (10)

Force and Laws of Motion · Conservation of momentum and recoil

Q36. Why does a gun recoil backward when it is fired?

  1. (a) The trigger causes the gun to move backward
  2. (b) The gun is heavy and naturally moves backward
  3. (c) The air resistance pushes the gun backward
  4. (d) The bullet pushes forward, and the gun experiences an equal and opposite backward force
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The bullet pushes forward, and the gun experiences an equal and opposite backward force

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The bullet pushes forward, and the gun experiences an equal and opposite backward force
Explanation:
This is a direct application ofNewton's Third Law of Motion: for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. As the gun exerts a forward force on the bullet (action), the bullet exerts an equal and opposite backward force on the gun (reaction), causing the recoil.
Important Facts:
• Recoil is also explained by conservation of momentum — total momentum before firing is zero, so bullet and gun get equal and opposite momenta.
• The gun's recoil velocity is much smaller than the bullet's due to its much larger mass.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Scattering of light (blue sky, red sunset, Tyndall effect)

Q37. A scientist wants to demonstrate why the sky appears blue during the day and reddish at sunset using a glass tank of water, a flashlight, and a small amount of milk. Which setup best demonstrates light scattering similar to that observed in the atmosphere?

  1. (a) Adding a large amount of milk to the water and shining the flashlight through the mixture from above.
  2. (b) Shining the flashlight from above onto clear water and observing the illuminated region.
  3. (c) Shining the flashlight through clear water and observing the transmitted light from the opposite side.
  4. (d) Mixing a small amount of milk into the water and shining the flashlight through the tank from the side to observe scattered light.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mixing a small amount of milk into the water and shining the flashlight through the tank from the side to observe scattered light.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Mixing a small amount of milk into the water and shining the flashlight through the tank from the side to observe scattered light
Explanation:
This setup replicates theTyndall effect, which is analogous to scattering of sunlight by atmospheric particles. A small amount of milk creates fine suspended particles similar in scale to air molecules/dust. Viewing scattered light from theside(perpendicular to the light beam) shows the bluish scattered light (like the sky) while light seen straight through (transmitted) appears reddish (like sunset).
Important Facts:
• Too much milk would scatter almost all light and not properly model the atmosphere.
• Rayleigh scattering explains why shorter (blue) wavelengths scatter more than longer (red) wavelengths.
• This is why the sky is blue during the day and the sun appears reddish at sunrise/sunset.
Work, Energy and Power · Work and its sign

Q38. A force of 20 N acts opposite to the displacement of 5 m. What is the work done by the force?

  1. (a) –100 J
  2. (b) +25 J
  3. (c) 0 J
  4. (d) +100 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) –100 J

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – –100 J
Explanation:
Work done, W = F × d × cos(θ). Here the force actsopposite
to displacement, so θ = 180°, and cos(180°) = –1. W = 20 N × 5 m × (–1) =–100 J. The negative sign indicates the force does negative work (it opposes the motion, e.g., friction or retarding force).
Important Facts:
• Work is positive when force and displacement are in the same direction.
• Work is zero when force is perpendicular to displacement.
• Work is negative when force opposes displacement, as in this case.
Work, Energy and Power · Kinetic energy

Q39. A bullet and a ball have the same kinetic energy, but the bullet has much less mass than the ball. Which statement about their speeds is correct?

  1. (a) The ball moves much faster than the bullet
  2. (b) Both move at the same speed
  3. (c) Both bullet and ball stay at rest
  4. (d) The bullet moves much faster than the ball
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The bullet moves much faster than the ball

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The bullet moves much faster than the ball
Explanation:
Kinetic energy, KE = ½mv². For the same KE, if mass (m) is much smaller (as with the bullet), the velocity (v) must be much larger to compensate, since v ∝ 1/√m for a fixed KE. Thus the light bullet must travel at a much higher speed than the heavier ball to have the same kinetic energy.
Important Facts:
• This is why bullets, despite tiny mass, are extremely fast and destructive.
• KE depends on the square of velocity, making speed the dominant factor for low-mass objects.
Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q40. Which condition is most necessary for petroleum formation from dead marine organisms?

  1. (a) Exposure to sunlight and fresh oxygen
  2. (b) High pressure and absence of air for long periods
  3. (c) Low temperature and presence of open air
  4. (d) Direct contact with surface water and wind
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) High pressure and absence of air for long periods

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – High pressure and absence of air for long periods
Explanation:
Petroleum forms from dead marine organisms (plankton, algae) that get buried under layers of sediment on the sea floor. Over millions of years, subjected tohigh pressure, high temperature, and absence of oxygen/air (anaerobic conditions), their remains slowly transform into petroleum and natural gas.
Important Facts:
• Petroleum and natural gas are called fossil fuels because they form from fossilized remains of ancient organisms.
• This is a very slow process taking millions of years, which is why fossil fuels are non-renewable.
• Presence of oxygen/air would cause decomposition rather than fossilization into petroleum.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q41. A rectangular coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the direction of the current is reversed, what is the effect on the force acting on each segment of the coil?

  1. (a) The magnitude of the force doubles
  2. (b) The force acts perpendicular to the plane of the coil
  3. (c) The magnitude of the force becomes zero
  4. (d) The direction of the force on each segment reverses
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The direction of the force on each segment reverses

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The direction of the force on each segment reverses
Explanation:
The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by F = IL × B (right-hand rule / left-hand rule for direction). If the direction of current (I) is reversed while the magnetic field (B) stays the same, the direction of the forcereverseson each arm of the coil (though its magnitude stays unchanged). This reversal of force direction is essential to the working principle of an electric motor's continued rotation via a split-ring commutator.
Important Facts:
• The magnitude of force F = BIL sinθ depends on current, field strength, and angle — not on current's direction.
• This principle underlies the working of an electric motor.
• Fleming's Left Hand Rule gives the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q42. A horse pulls a cart with a force of 500 N. The force experienced by the horse due to the cart is:

  1. (a) 0 N
  2. (b) 500 N equal and opposite to the motion
  3. (c) 250 N
  4. (d) 1000 N
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 500 N equal and opposite to the motion

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 500 N equal and opposite to the motion
Explanation:
ByNewton's Third Law, when the horse pulls the cart forward with a force of 500 N (action), the cart exerts an equal and opposite reaction force of500 Non the horse, directed backward (opposite to the direction of motion).
Important Facts:
• Action and reaction forces are always equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, and act on different bodies.
• The horse is still able to move the cart forward because of the additional frictional grip between its feet and the ground.
Electricity · Electric cells and batteries

Q43. What role does the chemical energy in a cell play in an electric circuit?

  1. (a) It changes the resistance of the circuit
  2. (b) It directly moves electrons along the wire
  3. (c) It creates and maintains the potential difference
  4. (d) It measures the flow of current
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It creates and maintains the potential difference

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – It creates and maintains the potential difference
Explanation:
A cell (battery) converts storedchemical energyinto electrical energy through internal chemical reactions. This process creates and maintains apotential difference (voltage)between its two terminals, which is what drives the flow of electrons (current) through the external circuit.
Important Facts:
• Potential difference is the 'push' that causes current to flow in a closed circuit.
• The cell does not directly move electrons through the wire; it is the electric field set up by the potential difference that does so.
• Current is measured by an ammeter, not created by chemical energy directly.
Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q44. Which of the following examples best illustrates a high pitch sound in everyday life?

  1. (a) The hum of a refrigerator
  2. (b) A child blowing a whistle
  3. (c) The ticking of a large wall clock
  4. (d) The beat of a large drum
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A child blowing a whistle

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – A child blowing a whistle
Explanation:
Pitchof a sound depends on itsfrequency— higher frequency means higher pitch. A whistle produces a sound of very high frequency, resulting in a shrill, high-pitched sound. In contrast, a refrigerator's hum, a clock's ticking, and a drum beat are all examples of low-pitched (low frequency) sounds.
Important Facts:
• Pitch should not be confused with loudness, which depends on amplitude.
• A large drum produces a low-frequency (bass), low-pitch sound due to its large vibrating surface.
• Human audible range is roughly 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Sound and Waves · Wave characteristics (frequency, wavelength, amplitude, time period)

Q45. If the frequency of a sound wave increases while its speed in air remains constant, what happens to its wavelength?

  1. (a) Its wavelength decreases
  2. (b) Its wavelength fluctuates randomly
  3. (c) Its wavelength increases
  4. (d) Its wavelength remains unchanged
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Its wavelength decreases

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Its wavelength decreases
Explanation:
The wave equation isv = f × λ(speed = frequency × wavelength). If the speed (v) in air remains constant and the frequency (f) increases, then the wavelength (λ) mustdecreaseproportionally to keep the product v constant (λ = v/f).
Important Facts:
• Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional for a given wave speed.
• Speed of sound in air depends mainly on the medium's properties (temperature, elasticity, density), not on frequency.
• This relationship applies to all wave types, including sound and light.
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