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RRB Group D 2025-26 21 August 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 21 August 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Physics, Chemistry, Biology.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 21 August 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (20) · Physics (9) · Chemistry (8) · Biology (8)

Current Affairs (20)

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q1. Which of the following organisations successfully flight-tested the indigenously developed third-generation fire-and-forget Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM) with top-attack capability in January 2026?

  1. (a) Department of Defence Production
  2. (b) Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
  3. (c) Defence Research and Development Organisation
  4. (d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Defence Research and Development Organisation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Defence Research and Development Organisation
Explanation:
DRDO successfully flight-tested the indigenously developed third-generation, fire-and-forget Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM) with top-attack capability against a moving target on12 January 2026in Hyderabad, as confirmed by PIB and multiple defence news reports.
Important Facts:
• MPATGM is a third-generation, fire-and-forget missile with top-attack mode, designed to defeat modern armoured vehicles.
• The test was conducted in Hyderabad and validated the missile's seeker performance against a moving target.
• MPATGM is intended to arm Indian Army infantry units, replacing older-generation anti-tank guided missiles.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q2. Which of the following mascots represents the United States for the FIFA 2026 World Cup?

  1. (a) Misha the Friendly Bear
  2. (b) Maple the Moose
  3. (c) Clutch the Bald Eagle
  4. (d) Zayu the Jaguar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Clutch the Bald Eagle

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Clutch the Bald Eagle
Explanation:
FIFA unveiled three mascots for the 2026 World Cup (hosted by USA, Mexico, Canada):Clutch(a bald eagle) represents the United States,Zayu(a jaguar) represents Mexico, andMaple(a moose) represents Canada, per FIFA.com and ESPN.
Important Facts:
• The 2026 FIFA World Cup is the first to be co-hosted by three countries: USA, Mexico, and Canada.
• Zayu the Jaguar represents Mexico; Maple the Moose represents Canada.
• This is the first World Cup with an expanded 48-team format.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q3. Which athlete won the gold medal in the Men’s 400 m Run T46/T47 event at the World Para Athletics Grand Prix 2026?

  1. (a) Mariyappan Thangavelu
  2. (b) Bhavikkumar Din Bharwad
  3. (c) Nishad Kumar
  4. (d) Devendra Jhajharia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bhavikkumar Din Bharwad

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Bhavikkumar Din Bharwad
Explanation:
At the World Para Athletics Grand Prix 2026 held in New Delhi,Bhavikkumar Din Bharwadwon gold in the Men's 400m T46/T47 event with a time of 49.89 seconds, with fellow Indian Jasbeer taking silver, as reported by official results (paralympicindia.com) and Akashvani/News on Air coverage of Day 2 of the event.
Important Facts:
• India dominated the New Delhi 2026 World Para Athletics Grand Prix, winning numerous gold medals.
• Sumit Antil won gold in Men's Javelin Throw (69.25m) at the same event.
• Other Indian gold medallists on Day 2 included Subodh Bhatt (400m T13), Manojkumar Sabapathi (400m T53/T54), and Praveen Kumar (T44 High Jump).
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q4. The novel “John of John”, published in May 2026 and selected as an Oprah’s Book Club Pick, is authored by which Booker Prize-winning writer?

  1. (a) Kazuo Ishiguro
  2. (b) Andrew O'Hagan
  3. (c) Douglas Stuart
  4. (d) Salman Rushdie
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Douglas Stuart

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Douglas Stuart
Explanation:
"John of John" is authored byDouglas Stuart(Booker Prize winner for 'Shuggain Bain'), and was selected as an Oprah's Book Club pick, as confirmed on Oprah.com and multiple bookseller listings.
Important Facts:
• Douglas Stuart won the Booker Prize in 2020 for his debut novel 'Shuggie Bain'.
• 'John of John' was published in May 2026 and picked for Oprah's Book Club.
• Stuart is a Scottish-American author known for depicting working-class Glasgow life.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q5. In May 2026, the Vice President of India released The Library Man of India: The Story of P.N. Panicker. Who authored this book?

  1. (a) Vijay Goel
  2. (b) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
  3. (c) P. P. Sathyan
  4. (d) Shashi Tharoor
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) P. P. Sathyan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – P. P. Sathyan
Explanation:
Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan released 'The Library Man of India: The Story of P.N. Panicker' in May 2026 (22 May 2026). The book is authored byP.P. Sathyan, with inputs from N. Balagopal and Rajeev Nair, published by Rupa Publications, as confirmed by PIB press release and the publisher's listing.
Important Facts:
• P.N. Panicker is regarded as the father of the library movement in Kerala and India.
• The book release was accompanied by the Vice President's call for revival of reading culture.
• Rupa Publications published the book.
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q6. Which of the following teams won the Vijay Hazare Trophy 2025–26?

  1. (a) Saurashtra
  2. (b) Vidarbha
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Mumbai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vidarbha

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Vidarbha
Explanation:
Vidarbhawon their maiden Vijay Hazare Trophy title, defeating Saurashtra in the final on 18 January 2026, as confirmed by ESPNcricinfo, Drishti IAS, and the Vidarbha Cricket Association's official announcement.
Important Facts:
• Vidarbha beat Saurashtra in the 2025-26 Vijay Hazare Trophy final.
• This was Vidarbha's maiden (first-ever) Vijay Hazare Trophy title.
• The Vijay Hazare Trophy is India's premier domestic 50-over (List A) cricket tournament.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q7. In which Indian state were the 60th National Cross Country Championships hosted in January 2026?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Jharkhand
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jharkhand

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Jharkhand
Explanation:
The 60th National Cross Country Championships 2026 were hosted atRanchi, Jharkhandin January 2026, as confirmed by the Athletics Federation of India's official circular and results, and multiple news reports (Voice of Ladakh, AFI website).
Important Facts:
• The event was organized under the aegis of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• Ranchi has hosted several national-level athletics events.
• Cross country championships serve as a selection event for international cross-country competitions.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q8. The 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) held in March 2025, was chaired by the Prime Minister at which National Park?

  1. (a) Gir National Park
  2. (b) Jim Corbett National Park
  3. (c) Bandipur National Park
  4. (d) Kaziranga National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gir National Park

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Gir National Park
Explanation:
PM Modi chaired the 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) on3 March 2025atGir (Gir National Park), Gujarat, coinciding with World Wildlife Day, as confirmed by PIB and pmindia.gov.in.
Important Facts:
• The meeting coincided with World Wildlife Day (3 March).
• Gir National Park in Gujarat is the only natural habitat of the Asiatic Lion.
• NBWL is the apex statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for wildlife-related policy in India.
State News · State elections and results

Q9. Who was elected as the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu in May 2026?

  1. (a) C. Joseph Vijay
  2. (b) Udhayanidhi Stalin
  3. (c) Edappadi K. Palaniswami
  4. (d) M. K. Stalin
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) C. Joseph Vijay

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – C. Joseph Vijay
Explanation:
In the 2026 Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly election, the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK), led by actor-politicianC. Joseph Vijay, emerged as the single largest party (108/234 seats), ending decades of Dravidian party dominance; Vijay was sworn in as Chief Minister on 10 May 2026, per Wikipedia and Britannica coverage of the election.
Important Facts:
• TVK is a newly founded party led by actor Vijay (screen name 'Thalapathy Vijay').
• TVK formed a coalition government after falling short of a majority on its own.
• This marked the first time since the 1960s that a non-Dravidian party led the Tamil Nadu government.
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q10. The RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee, in its October 2025 meeting, kept the repo rate unchanged at:

  1. (a) 4.75%
  2. (b) 5.00%
  3. (c) 5.50%
  4. (d) 6.00%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5.50%

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – 5.50%
Explanation:
The RBI's Monetary Policy Committee in its October 2025 meeting kept the repo rate unchanged at5.50%, as reported by PIB, Mondaq, and multiple financial news sources.
Important Facts:
• The MPC cited a balanced growth-inflation outlook for holding rates steady.
• RBI had undertaken aggressive rate cuts earlier in 2025 before pausing in October.
• Inflation was reported at an 8-year low around this period.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q11. Which party won the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly elections with a clear majority?

  1. (a) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
  2. (b) Indian National Congress (INC)
  3. (c) Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)
  4. (d) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
Explanation:
TheBJPwon the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly elections with a decisive majority, ending AAP's decade-long rule, as confirmed by News on Air, Deccan Herald, and Wikipedia's election results page (results declared 8 February 2025).
Important Facts:
• This ended AAP's 10-year rule (since 2015) in Delhi.
• BJP's vote share rose significantly compared to the previous election.
• Rekha Gupta was subsequently sworn in as Delhi's Chief Minister from the BJP.
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q12. In May 2026, the Government of India launched the Country Strategic Opportunities Programme (COSOP) 2026–2033 in partnership with which international organisation to strengthen rural incomes, resilience, and sustainable livelihood opportunities?

  1. (a) Asian Development Bank
  2. (b) Food and Agriculture Organization
  3. (c) International Fund for Agricultural Development
  4. (d) World Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) International Fund for Agricultural Development

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – International Fund for Agricultural Development
Explanation:
In May 2026, the Government of India andIFAD (International Fund for Agricultural Development)launched the eight-year Country Strategic Opportunities Programme (COSOP) 2026-2033 to strengthen rural incomes, resilience, and sustainable livelihoods, per PIB and Vision IAS current affairs coverage.
Important Facts:
• COSOP 2026-2033 aims to benefit around 3 million rural households.
• The programme emphasizes climate resilience and women's empowerment in rural areas.
• IFAD is a specialized UN agency and international financial institution focused on rural development.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q13. Which internationally acclaimed author, best known for 'The Fault in Our Stars', will make his adult fiction debut with the novel 'Hollywood, Ending' in September 2026?

  1. (a) David Levithan
  2. (b) Angie Thomas
  3. (c) Rainbow Rowell
  4. (d) John Green
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) John Green

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – John Green
Explanation:
John Green, best known for 'The Fault in Our Stars', announced his adult fiction debut novel titled 'Hollywood, Ending', set for release around September 2026, as reported by Parade, Time Out, and Wikipedia.
Important Facts:
• This is John Green's first novel written specifically for an adult audience.
• It comes after roughly 9 years since his last YA novel.
• John Green is also known for 'Looking for Alaska' and 'Turtles All the Way Down'.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q14. Which purpose was associated with JANANI (Journey of Antenatal, Natal and Neonatal Integrated Care), the service-oriented digital platform launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2026?

  1. (a) Facilitating direct benefit cash transfers to eligible pregnant women under institutional delivery schemes
  2. (b) Seamless tracking and monitoring of maternal and child health services
  3. (c) Managing nationwide cold-chain logistics and real-time inventory of infant vaccines across districts
  4. (d) Providing automated virtual consultation and telemedicine services to elderly citizens in rural areas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Seamless tracking and monitoring of maternal and child health services

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Seamless tracking and monitoring of maternal and child health services
Explanation:
JANANI (Journey of Antenatal, Natal and Neonatal Integrated Care), launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is a digital platform forreal-time tracking and monitoring of maternal and child health services, providing continuous digital health records, QR-based health cards, and automated alerts for high-risk pregnancies, per GKToday and Manorama Yearbook coverage.
Important Facts:
• JANANI integrates with national immunization and nutrition programmes for coordinated care.
• It provides real-time dashboards for health officials to monitor maternal/child health data.
• It was highlighted around Mother's Day 2026 (launched circa May 2026).
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q15. Which organisation collaborated with DRDO to successfully conduct the launch of the Agni-Prime missile in September 2025?

  1. (a) Indian Army Artillery Corps
  2. (b) Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
  3. (c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  4. (d) Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Strategic Forces Command (SFC)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
Explanation:
DRDO, in collaboration with theStrategic Forces Command (SFC), successfully launched the Intermediate Range Agni-Prime Missile from a rail-based mobile launcher system on 24 September 2025, as explicitly stated in the PIB press release.
Important Facts:
• This was a novel rail-based mobile launch platform for the Agni-Prime missile.
• Agni-Prime is a new-generation, canisterised intermediate-range ballistic missile.
• SFC is the custodian of India's nuclear-capable strategic missile forces.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q16. Who was appointed as the new Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog in April 2026?

  1. (a) Shashi Shekhar Vempati
  2. (b) Ashok Kumar Lahiri
  3. (c) Sanjay Kumar
  4. (d) Vir Vikram Yadav
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ashok Kumar Lahiri

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Ashok Kumar Lahiri
Explanation:
Ashok Kumar Lahiri, an economist, was appointed as the Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog, notified on 24 April 2026 along with new full-time members, as confirmed by NITI Aayog's official social media announcement and News on Air.
Important Facts:
• Rajiv Gauba and Prof. K.V. Raju were among the full-time members appointed alongside him.
• Lahiri previously served as Executive Director for India at the IMF and as Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission's advisory panel roles.
• This appointment reconstituted the NITI Aayog leadership team.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q17. In April 2026, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the NMBA 2.0 App to strengthen monitoring under which of the following campaigns?

  1. (a) Fit India Movement
  2. (b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
  3. (c) Poshan Abhiyaan
  4. (d) Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
Explanation:
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched theNasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA) 2.0 Appin April 2026 to strengthen monitoring and institutional coordination under the National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR), as confirmed by the PIB press release.
Important Facts:
• The SMILE app for beggary rehabilitation was launched alongside NMBA 2.0.
• NAPDDR is the umbrella national plan for drug demand reduction in India.
• NMBA aims to create a drug-free India through awareness, treatment, and rehabilitation.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q18. Who was the BJP leader who defeated AAP's Manoj Tyagi in the Karawal Nagar constituency in the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly elections?

  1. (a) Kapil Mishra
  2. (b) Pankaj Kumar Singh
  3. (c) Ravinder Indraj Singh
  4. (d) Ashish Sood
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kapil Mishra

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Kapil Mishra
Explanation:
Kapil Mishra (BJP)defeated AAP's Manoj Tyagi in the Karawal Nagar constituency in the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly elections, winning with 107,367 votes (53.39%) against Tyagi's 84,012 votes, a margin of over 23,000 votes, per Wikipedia's constituency results page.
Important Facts:
• This was a BJP seat retention ('hold') with a positive vote-share swing.
• Kapil Mishra is a former AAP leader who later joined the BJP.
• Karawal Nagar is located in North East Delhi.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q19. Which DRDO-developed indigenous system successfully completed maiden flight trials in May 2026 and can enable conventional aerial bombs to function as precision-guided glide weapons?

  1. (a) Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation (TARA) system
  2. (b) Terminal Aviation Reconnaissance Assembly (TARA-II) system
  3. (c) Strategic Air Defence Rocket Application (SADRA) system
  4. (d) Indigenous Naval Strike Augmentation (INSA) system
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation (TARA) system

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation (TARA) system
Explanation:
DRDO and the IAF successfully conducted the maiden flight-trial of theTactical Advanced Range Augmentation (TARA)weapon off the coast of Odisha on 7 May 2026. TARA is India's first indigenous modular glide kit that converts unguided ('dumb') bombs into precision-guided glide weapons, as confirmed by DRDO's official announcement and multiple defence news outlets.
Important Facts:
• TARA is a modular range-extension kit developed jointly by DRDO and research partners.
• The trial was conducted off the coast of Odisha, a common DRDO missile/weapon test site.
• It enhances the standoff range and precision of conventional aerial bombs.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q20. The achievement of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by India in 2025, as highlighted by the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas, primarily supports which national objective?

  1. (a) Reducing agricultural output
  2. (b) Expanding coal-based power generation
  3. (c) Increasing crude oil imports
  4. (d) Promoting clean and renewable energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Promoting clean and renewable energy

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Promoting clean and renewable energy
Explanation:
India achieved 20% ethanol blending in petrol in 2025, five years ahead of its original 2030 target, as highlighted by Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri. This supports India's push towardsclean and renewable energy, energy security, and reduced crude oil imports, per PIB and Tribune India coverage.
Important Facts:
• India saved an estimated USD 19.3 billion in forex due to reduced crude oil import needs from ethanol blending.
• The ethanol blending programme uses sugarcane and grain-based feedstocks.
• The government has also set future targets like 100 GW nuclear capacity by 2047 as part of the broader clean energy roadmap.

Physics (9)

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Atmospheric refraction (twinkling of stars, advance sunrise)

Q21. During sunrise or sunset, why does the Sun’s disc appear flattened when observed from Earth?

  1. (a) Because of scattering of sunlight in the atmosphere
  2. (b) Due to gravitational lensing by Earth
  3. (c) Because of absorption of sunlight by air
  4. (d) Due to atmospheric refraction bending light unevenly across the Sun’s disc
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Due to atmospheric refraction bending light unevenly across the Sun’s disc

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Due to atmospheric refraction bending light unevenly across the Sun's disc
Explanation:
Near the horizon, sunlight travels through a much thicker layer of atmosphere. Refraction bends light from the lower edge (limb) of the Sun's disc more than light from the upper edge, since the lower limb's rays pass through denser air at a lower altitude. This unequal bending compresses the vertical dimension of the Sun's disc, making it look flattened (oval) at sunrise and sunset.
Important Facts:
• Atmospheric refraction also makes the Sun visible for a few minutes before actual sunrise and after actual sunset.
• Scattering explains the reddish colour of the Sun near the horizon, not its flattened shape.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q22. Which of the following quantities does the slope of a velocity-time graph represent for an object in motion?

  1. (a) Displacement
  2. (b) Force
  3. (c) Acceleration
  4. (d) Speed
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Acceleration

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Acceleration
Explanation:
On a velocity-time graph, slope = change in velocity / change in time = acceleration. The area under the curve, not the slope, gives displacement.
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q23. Which statement best describes the direction of velocity in uniform circular motion?

  1. (a) It is always along the radius away from the center
  2. (b) It is always tangent to the circle at any point
  3. (c) It is always perpendicular to the plane of the circle
  4. (d) It is always directed towards the center
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is always tangent to the circle at any point

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – It is always tangent to the circle at any point
Explanation:
In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector at any instant is directed along the tangent to the circular path at that point, perpendicular to the radius. It is the centripetal acceleration (and net force) that is directed towards the centre, not the velocity.
Sound and Waves · Range of hearing, infrasonic and ultrasonic sound

Q24. A sound wave with a frequency of 15 Hz would be best categorized as which type?

  1. (a) Ultrasonic sound
  2. (b) Infrasonic sound
  3. (c) Audible sound
  4. (d) Hypersonic sound
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Infrasonic sound

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Infrasonic sound
Explanation:
The audible range for humans is about 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. A frequency of 15 Hz lies below this range, so it is classified as infrasonic sound.
Work, Energy and Power · Simple machines and levers

Q25. An ideal inclined plane is 20 m long and raises a load through a vertical height of 4 m. Compared to lifting the load straight up, the effort required to move the load up the plane is ________.

  1. (a) Equal to the load
  2. (b) One-fourth of the load
  3. (c) One-fifth of the load
  4. (d) One-half of the load
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) One-fifth of the load

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – One-fifth of the load
Explanation:
For an ideal (frictionless) inclined plane, mechanical advantage = length of incline / height = 20 m / 4 m = 5. Since MA = Load/Effort, Effort = Load/5, i.e., one-fifth of the load.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Solenoid and electromagnet

Q26. Why does one end of a solenoid behave as a north pole and the other as a south pole?

  1. (a) The current creates a similar magnetic effect to a bar magnet
  2. (b) There is no current in the solenoid
  3. (c) The insulation creates the poles
  4. (d) The solenoid is naturally magnetic
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The current creates a similar magnetic effect to a bar magnet

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The current creates a similar magnetic effect to a bar magnet
Explanation:
When current flows through a solenoid, the magnetic fields of its individual turns add up to produce a field pattern outside and inside the coil identical to that of a bar magnet, with one end behaving as a north pole and the other as a south pole (direction given by the right-hand thumb rule).
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q27. Which of the following is NOT a correct unit of work done?

  1. (a) pascal
  2. (b) watt-second
  3. (c) joule
  4. (d) newton-meter
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) pascal

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – pascal
Explanation:
Pascal (Pa = N/m²) is the SI unit of pressure, not work. Joule, watt-second, and newton-metre are all valid, equivalent units of work/energy (1 J = 1 N·m = 1 W·s).
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q28. A student observes that the compass needle deflection decreases as it moves farther from a current-carrying straight conductor. What is the most likely reason for this observation?

  1. (a) The electric current in the conductor decreases with distance
  2. (b) The shape of the wire affects field strength only at close distances
  3. (c) The magnetic field strength decreases as the distance from the conductor increases
  4. (d) The Earth's magnetic field becomes stronger with distance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The magnetic field strength decreases as the distance from the conductor increases

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The magnetic field strength decreases as the distance from the conductor increases
Explanation:
The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor weakens with increasing distance from it (B is inversely proportional to distance, per the Biot-Savart/Oersted relation). As the compass moves farther away, the weaker field produces a smaller deflection of the needle.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Mirror formula and magnification

Q29. A student observes an image that is inverted and smaller than the object when using a mirror. What type of magnification is being observed?

  1. (a) The magnification is greater than one and positive
  2. (b) The magnification is equal to one and positive
  3. (c) The magnification is less than one and negative
  4. (d) The magnification is greater than one and negative
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The magnification is less than one and negative

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – The magnification is less than one and negative
Explanation:
An image that is inverted (real) is assigned a negative magnification by sign convention, and since the image is smaller than the object, the magnitude of magnification is less than one. Hence m is negative and |m| < 1, as with a concave mirror when the object is placed beyond the centre of curvature.

Chemistry (8)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q30. A student adds hydrochloric acid to sodium hydrogen carbonate. Which observation confirms neutralization?

  1. (a) Effervescence
  2. (b) Precipitate forms
  3. (c) Color turns red
  4. (d) Temperature drops
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Effervescence

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Effervescence
Explanation:
NaHCO₃ + HCl → NaCl + H₂O + CO₂. The reaction between the acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate releases carbon dioxide gas, seen as brisk bubbling (effervescence). This gas evolution is the observable confirmation that the acid has reacted completely with the base/salt.
Important Facts:
• No precipitate forms since both NaCl and the by-products are soluble.
• The reaction is mildly exothermic but does not produce a dramatic colour change.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of bases and alkalis

Q31. When carbon dioxide (CO₂) reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH), the salt formed is:

  1. (a) sodium chloride
  2. (b) sodium sulphate
  3. (c) sodium carbonate
  4. (d) sodium nitrate
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) sodium carbonate

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – sodium carbonate
Explanation:
CO₂ + 2NaOH → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O. Carbon dioxide, being an acidic oxide, reacts with the base sodium hydroxide to form sodium carbonate and water.
Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q32. Anodizing is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of which of the following metals through an electrolytic process?

  1. (a) iron
  2. (b) aluminium
  3. (c) zinc
  4. (d) copper
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) aluminium

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – aluminium
Explanation:
Anodizing is an electrolytic passivation process used mainly on aluminium, where the metal forms the anode and a thick, durable, corrosion-resistant layer of aluminium oxide is deposited on its surface.
Structure of Atom · Discovery of electron, proton and neutron

Q33. Which of the following elements do not possess neutrons inside their nucleus?

  1. (a) hydrogen
  2. (b) helium
  3. (c) neon
  4. (d) argon
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) hydrogen

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – hydrogen
Explanation:
The most common isotope of hydrogen, protium (¹H), has a nucleus containing only one proton and no neutrons — making it the only common element whose most abundant isotope lacks neutrons entirely. Helium, neon, and argon nuclei all contain neutrons.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q34. Which of the following is true about suspensions?

  1. (a) The solute particles settle down on standing
  2. (b) They do not scatter light
  3. (c) The solute dissolves completely
  4. (d) They are transparent
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The solute particles settle down on standing

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The solute particles settle down on standing
Explanation:
A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture in which relatively large, undissolved solid particles are dispersed in a liquid. These particles are visible and settle at the bottom on standing. Suspensions also scatter light (Tyndall effect) and are not transparent.
Chemistry Miscellaneous · Branches of chemistry

Q35. Which branch of chemistry is most concerned with reactions taking place within living cells?

  1. (a) Physical chemistry
  2. (b) Inorganic chemistry
  3. (c) Biochemistry
  4. (d) Analytical chemistry
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Biochemistry

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Biochemistry
Explanation:
Biochemistry is the branch of chemistry that studies the chemical processes and substances (proteins, enzymes, metabolism, etc.) occurring within and related to living organisms/cells.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q36. What does the formula unit mass of a substance represent?

  1. (a) Ratio of atomic masses of metal and nonmetal atoms
  2. (b) Difference between molecular and atomic masses
  3. (c) Product of atomic numbers of all atoms in a molecule
  4. (d) Sum of atomic masses of all atoms in a formula unit
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sum of atomic masses of all atoms in a formula unit

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Sum of atomic masses of all atoms in a formula unit
Explanation:
For ionic compounds (which exist as formula units rather than discrete molecules, e.g., NaCl), the formula unit mass is calculated the same way as molecular mass — by adding up the atomic masses of all atoms present in one formula unit.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Separation techniques (distillation, chromatography, centrifugation, crystallisation)

Q37. In an industrial process, a mixture of products is obtained when a hydrocarbon undergoes halogenation. Which method can be used to separate the monosubstituted product?

  1. (a) Distillation
  2. (b) Combustion
  3. (c) Precipitation
  4. (d) Filtration
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Distillation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Distillation
Explanation:
Halogenation of a hydrocarbon typically produces a mixture of mono-, di-, and poly-substituted products along with unreacted hydrocarbon, each having different boiling points. Fractional distillation is used to separate these liquid components based on their boiling point differences, isolating the monosubstituted product.

Biology (8)

Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q38. A scientist discovers a single-celled eukaryotic organism. Which key feature distinguishes it from Monera in the five kingdom system?

  1. (a) Autotrophic mode of nutrition
  2. (b) Presence of a membrane-bound nucleus
  3. (c) Multicellular organization
  4. (d) Cell wall made of chitin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Presence of a membrane-bound nucleus

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Presence of a membrane-bound nucleus
Explanation:
In the five kingdom classification, Monera consists of prokaryotes lacking a true, membrane-bound nucleus. Any single-celled organism possessing a well-defined nucleus enclosed by a nuclear membrane is eukaryotic, distinguishing it from Monera.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases

Q39. Which of the following pairs is I̲N̲C̲O̲R̲R̲E̲C̲T̲?̲

  1. (a) Embryo — Uses programmed cell death for shaping
  2. (b) Malignant — Tissue invasion
  3. (c) Normal Cell — Definite lifespan
  4. (d) Cancer Cell — Controlled division
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cancer Cell — Controlled division

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Cancer Cell — Controlled division
Explanation:
Cancer cells are characterized byuncontrolled, unregulated cell division, not controlled division — making this pairing incorrect. Embryonic cells do use programmed cell death (apoptosis) to shape organs, malignant tumours do invade surrounding tissue, and normal cells do have a definite (limited) lifespan — so those three pairs are correct.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q40. In double circulation, which vessel delivers oxygenated blood to the heart?

  1. (a) Pulmonary vein
  2. (b) Pulmonary artery
  3. (c) Vena cava
  4. (d) Aorta
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pulmonary vein

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Pulmonary vein
Explanation:
The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart — the only vein in the body that carries oxygen-rich blood. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart to the lungs.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Five-kingdom classification (Whittaker) and other systems

Q41. During a field study, a student finds an organism that is multicellular, lacks cell walls, and depends on others for food. According to the five kingdom classification, to which kingdom should this organism belong?

  1. (a) Plantae
  2. (b) Fungi
  3. (c) Animalia
  4. (d) Monera
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Animalia

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Animalia
Explanation:
Organisms in Kingdom Animalia are multicellular, lack a cell wall, and are heterotrophic (depend on other organisms for food) — matching all the given features exactly.
Control and Coordination · Spinal cord and reflex action

Q42. Where are reflex arcs primarily formed in the human body?

  1. (a) Heart
  2. (b) Lungs
  3. (c) Brain
  4. (d) Spinal cord
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Spinal cord

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Spinal cord
Explanation:
Reflex arcs are the neural pathways that control reflex actions and are primarily formed in the spinal cord, enabling a rapid response without waiting for the signal to reach and be processed by the brain.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Tissue culture

Q43. Cell culture refers to the process of growing cells __________.

  1. (a) only in soil
  2. (b) inside the body
  3. (c) outside the body
  4. (d) without nutrients
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) outside the body

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – outside the body
Explanation:
Cell culture is a laboratory technique in which cells are grown under controlled conditions, generally outside their natural (in vivo) environment, i.e., outside the body, in a suitable nutrient medium.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood - components and functions

Q44. Oxygen is transported in human blood mainly by binding with the pigment __________.

  1. (a) Haemoglobin
  2. (b) Plasma
  3. (c) Myoglobin
  4. (d) Chlorophyll
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Haemoglobin

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Haemoglobin
Explanation:
Haemoglobin, the iron-containing pigment present in red blood cells, binds reversibly with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin, enabling efficient transport of oxygen from the lungs to body tissues.
Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q45. What is the term for the growth of plant roots downward in response to gravity?

  1. (a) Chemotropism
  2. (b) Phototropism
  3. (c) Hydrotropism
  4. (d) Geotropism
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Geotropism

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Geotropism
Explanation:
The directional growth of a plant part in response to gravity is called geotropism (gravitropism). Roots exhibit positive geotropism, growing downward in the direction of the gravitational pull.
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