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RRB Group D 2025-26 25 August 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 25 August 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Current Affairs, Static GK, Chemistry, Physics, Biology.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 25 August 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Geography (4) · Current Affairs (15) · Static GK (2) · Chemistry (7) · Physics (10) · Biology (7)

Geography (4)

India - States and Union Territories · State-wise geographical features

Q1. According to an announcement made in April 2026, the historic city of Dhar has been selected under the Centre's 'Safe Cities' project, aimed at strengthening safe infrastructure for women and urban safety. Dhar is located in which of the following Indian states?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Chhattisgarh
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
News reports from April 2026 confirm that Dhar, a historic city inMadhya Pradesh, was selected under the Centre's 'Safe Cities' project to boost women's safety infrastructure.
Important Facts:
• Dhar is known for the historic Mandu fort and monuments and is a district headquarters in Madhya Pradesh.
• The 'Safe Cities' project focuses on CCTV surveillance, street lighting, and women's helplines in urban areas.
• Madhya Pradesh's capital is Bhopal; Dhar district lies in the Malwa region of the state.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q2. The Paris Climate Agreement, from which the United States announced its withdrawal on 7 January 2026, was adopted under the framework of which international convention?

  1. (a) United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
  2. (b) Convention on Biological Diversity
  3. (c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
  4. (d) Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Explanation:
The Paris Agreement (2015) was adopted under the framework of theUnited Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The US had announced withdrawal from the Paris Agreement again under the Trump administration, effective around early 2026.
Important Facts:
• UNFCCC was adopted at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit; its Conference of Parties (COP) oversees agreements like the Paris Agreement.
• The Paris Agreement's core goal is to limit global warming to well below 2°C, pursuing 1.5°C.
• The Vienna Convention and Montreal Protocol deal with ozone layer protection, a separate framework.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q3. As of March 2026, India’s position as the fourth-largest global wind energy producer contributes to which of the following national priorities under SDG frameworks?

  1. (a) Promoting only rural electrification
  2. (b) Transitioning to a low-carbon economy
  3. (c) Focusing on urban infrastructure development
  4. (d) Enhancing agricultural exports
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Transitioning to a low-carbon economy

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Transitioning to a low-carbon economy
Explanation:
India's position as the world's fourth-largest wind energy producer, with rising installed capacity, directly supports India's national priority oftransitioning to a low-carbon economy, aligned with its SDG and climate commitments.
Important Facts:
• India's wind power capacity has crossed roughly 50 GW, with a target of 100 GW by 2030.
• This links to SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy) and SDG 13 (Climate Action).
• India ranks among the top four countries globally in installed wind energy capacity, after China, the US, and Germany.
Atmosphere and Climate · Planetary, seasonal and local winds

Q4. During a field study, students notice that air flows from the valley floor up to the slopes every noon. Which atmospheric condition causes this pattern?

  1. (a) Uneven heating of mountain slopes
  2. (b) Uniform heating of the valley floor
  3. (c) Sudden rainfall in the valley
  4. (d) Rotation of the Earth
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Uneven heating of mountain slopes

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Uneven heating of mountain slopes
Explanation:
This describes the formation of avalley breeze. During the day (especially around noon), the mountain slopes get heated more intensely and rapidly by the sun than the air over the valley floor (uneven heating due to differing exposure/angle to sunlight). The heated air over the slopes rises, creating lower pressure there, so cooler air from the valley floor flows upward along the slopes to replace it — producing a wind that blows from the valley towards the slopes.

Current Affairs (15)

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q5. In which Indian state was the multilateral military exercise 'Pragati' conducted for the first time by the Indian Army in 2026?

  1. (a) Meghalaya
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Meghalaya

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Meghalaya
Explanation:
Official PIB press releases confirm that the Multilateral ExercisePRAGATI 2026was held at Umroi,Meghalaya, with participation from multiple foreign nations.
Important Facts:
• Exercise PRAGATI 2026 was hosted by the Indian Army at Umroi military station in Meghalaya.
• The exercise involved militaries of around a dozen countries in the Indo-Pacific/BIMSTEC region.
• Meghalaya's capital is Shillong; the state shares a border with Bangladesh.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q6. In August 2025, in which district of Maharashtra did heavy rainfall and a cloudburst event cause deaths and large-scale flooding?

  1. (a) Pune
  2. (b) Nanded
  3. (c) Nagpur
  4. (d) Nashik
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nanded

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Nanded
Explanation:
Multiple news reports from August 2025 confirm a cloudburst-triggered flash flood inNandeddistrict, Maharashtra, which killed several people and led to large-scale evacuations.
Important Facts:
• Nanded lies in the Marathwada region of Maharashtra, on the banks of the Godavari river.
• Reports cited around 3–7 deaths and hundreds evacuated due to the flash floods in Nanded.
• Neighbouring Latur district also faced flood-like conditions around the same period.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q7. Who among the following was awarded the Padma Bhushan in January 2026 for contribution in the field of sports?

  1. (a) Ashok Khade
  2. (b) Arvind Vaidya
  3. (c) Piyush Pandey
  4. (d) Vijay Amritraj
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Vijay Amritraj

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Vijay Amritraj
Explanation:
The Padma Awards 2026 (announced around Republic Day, January 2026) conferred thePadma Bhushanon tennis legendVijay Amritrajfor his contribution to sports.
Important Facts:
• Vijay Amritraj is a former World No. 16 tennis player and later a sports commentator/administrator.
• The Padma Awards 2026 sports list also included Padma Shri honours for cricketers Rohit Sharma and Harmanpreet Kaur.
• Padma Bhushan is India's third-highest civilian award, after Bharat Ratna and Padma Vibhushan.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q8. At the New Balance Indoor Grand Prix held in Boston in January 2026, which athlete broke the men's indoor 800m world record, ending a record that had stood since 1997?

  1. (a) Bryce Hoppel
  2. (b) Josh Hoey
  3. (c) Donavan Brazier
  4. (d) Eliott Crestan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Josh Hoey

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Josh Hoey (Josh Hoey)
Explanation:
At the January 2026 New Balance Indoor Grand Prix in Boston, American runnerJosh Hoeybroke the men's indoor 800m world record, clocking 1:42.50, surpassing the mark set by Wilson Kipketer in 1997.
Important Facts:
• Wilson Kipketer's 1997 indoor 800m world record of 1:42.67 stood for nearly three decades before being broken.
• The same Boston meet also saw Hobbs Kessler set a world record in another event.
• Josh Hoey is a US middle-distance runner who has also excelled outdoors.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q9. In March 2026, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) organized an open house discussion on children's access to social media. Which concern was specifically highlighted as a major social challenge?

  1. (a) Cyberbullying, data privacy misuse, sexual harassment, and cyber fraud
  2. (b) Rural illiteracy, school absenteeism, malnutrition, and child labour
  3. (c) Urban migration, housing shortage, water scarcity, and air pollution
  4. (d) Exam pressure, tuition costs, textbook piracy, and coaching fraud
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cyberbullying, data privacy misuse, sexual harassment, and cyber fraud

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Cyberbullying, data privacy misuse, sexual harassment, and cyber fraud
Explanation:
The NHRC's Open House Discussion on 'Access to Social Media by Children' (March 2026) focused on child online-safety risks such ascyberbullying, misuse of data privacy, sexual exploitation/harassment, and cyber fraudas major challenges facing children online.
Important Facts:
• NHRC is a statutory body constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• The discussion was held in hybrid mode at NHRC's premises in New Delhi.
• NHRC has separately taken up concerns about child-safety practices on platforms like Facebook and Instagram.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q10. What is the main goal of the Semiconductor Investors Support Portal launched in India in May 2026?

  1. (a) To support and encourage investment in chip manufacturing
  2. (b) To make online shopping easier for consumers
  3. (c) To promote social media content creation
  4. (d) To monitor internet usage across the country
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To support and encourage investment in chip manufacturing

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – To support and encourage investment in chip manufacturing
Explanation:
In May 2026, theIndia Semiconductor Missionlaunched the 'Investors Support' portal to ease and encourage investments in the semiconductor (chip manufacturing) ecosystem.
Important Facts:
• The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• The portal aims to streamline approvals and provide investor handholding for semiconductor fabs and units.
• India has been pushing incentive schemes to build domestic chip fabrication and assembly/testing capacity.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q11. In July 2026, the Union Cabinet approved the expanded Khelo India scheme and increased assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSF). What was its objective?

  1. (a) To reaffirm the government's commitment to harnessing the power of sports for youth development and nation-building
  2. (b) To establish a National Sports University and accreditation units in every state and Union Territory
  3. (c) To set up a National Centre of Excellence for every Olympic sport in every state and make sports education compulsory in all schools
  4. (d) To promote sports tourism by developing world-class sports complexes in major metros and provide subsidies for hosting international championships
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To reaffirm the government's commitment to harnessing the power of sports for youth development and nation-building

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – To reaffirm the government's commitment to harnessing the power of sports for youth development and nation-building
Explanation:
In late July 2026, the Union Cabinet approved the revamped Khelo India Scheme along with enhanced Assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSFs), with an outlay of about Rs 36,441 crore, described by government sources as reaffirming the goal ofharnessing the power of sports for youth development and nation-building.
Important Facts:
• Khelo India is the Sports Ministry's flagship scheme for grassroots-to-elite sports development in India.
• The revamped scheme extends coverage roughly till 2031 with a significantly increased financial outlay.
• ANSF assistance supports National Sports Federations for coaching, competitions, and athlete development.
Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q12. In March 2026, Bank of Baroda operationalized a digital credit micro-lending facility by launching an overdraft (OD) facility on a credit line through UPI. Who are the primary beneficiaries targeted under this specific initiative?

  1. (a) Retail traders registered under the MSME digital platform
  2. (b) Verified members of Women Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
  3. (c) Individual salaried employees holding corporate accounts
  4. (d) Individual marginal farmers under the PM-KISAN scheme
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Verified members of Women Self-Help Groups (SHGs)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Verified members of Women Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
Explanation:
In March 2026, Bank of Baroda became the first bank to launch a UPI-linked credit line/overdraft (OD) facility (of around ₹5,000) specifically targeted atverified members of women Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
Important Facts:
• The facility allows micro-credit disbursal directly through UPI rails, easing access for SHG members.
• Bank of Baroda is a major public sector bank headquartered in Vadodara, Gujarat.
• SHG-linked micro-lending supports the wider financial inclusion and women's economic empowerment agenda.
State News · State firsts

Q13. In January 2026, who secured first position in the merit list under the benchmark disability category in the Kerala Judicial Service Examination?

  1. (a) Sreelakshmi S.
  2. (b) Ananya R. Nair
  3. (c) Meera K. Menon
  4. (d) Thanya Nathan C.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Thanya Nathan C.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Thanya Nathan C.
Explanation:
News reports (Jan–Feb 2026) confirm thatThanya Nathan C., a visually challenged candidate, topped the merit list under the benchmark disability category in the Kerala Judicial Service Examination, set to become Kerala's first fully visually impaired civil judge.
Important Facts:
• This is reported as a first-of-its-kind milestone for disability inclusion in the Indian judiciary.
• Thanya Nathan is 24 years old and will become a Civil Judge in Kerala.
• Benchmark disability reservation is provided under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q14. Who among the following was awarded the Laureus World Sportsperson of the Year with a Disability in 2026 for outstanding achievements in international para-swimming?

  1. (a) Markus Rehm
  2. (b) Gabriel Araújo
  3. (c) Marcel Hug
  4. (d) Diede de Groot
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gabriel Araújo

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Gabriel Araújo
Explanation:
Brazilian para-swimmerGabriel Araújowon the Laureus World Sportsperson of the Year with a Disability award in 2026, as confirmed by Laureus and Paralympic media coverage.
Important Facts:
• The Laureus World Sports Awards are widely regarded as the 'Oscars of sport'.
• Para-swimming had a strong showing in the 2026 Laureus nominations, with three athletes nominated.
• Markus Rehm (long jump) and Marcel Hug (wheelchair racing) are past winners in this category.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q15. The Indian Microgravity Experiments–2026 (iMEx-2026) programme is a national initiative of which organisation?

  1. (a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  2. (b) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  3. (c) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
  4. (d) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Explanation:
The Indian Microgravity Experiments–2026 (iMEx-2026) is an initiative ofISRO, run through its Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC), inviting proposals from academia, start-ups, and industry for microgravity research.
Important Facts:
• iMEx-2026 covers domains like materials science, biology, pharmacology, fluid physics, and in-space manufacturing.
• ISRO's Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC) supports India's Gaganyaan and related microgravity research programmes.
• The initiative is aimed at demonstrating scientific feasibility of experiments for future space missions.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q16. In March 2026, which organization released the second edition of the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2026 to assess the fiscal performance of Indian states?

  1. (a) NITI Aayog
  2. (b) National Statistical Office
  3. (c) Finance Commission
  4. (d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) NITI Aayog

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – NITI Aayog
Explanation:
NITI Aayogreleased the second annual edition of the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2026 in March 2026, ranking Indian states on fiscal performance and sustainability.
Important Facts:
• The Fiscal Health Index assesses states on parameters such as quality of expenditure, revenue mobilisation, fiscal prudence, debt index, and debt sustainability.
• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the government's premier policy think tank.
• The first edition of the FHI was released in the preceding year, making 2026 its second edition.
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q17. Exercise Dweep Shakti 2026 was successfully conducted by which of the following military commands of India?

  1. (a) Eastern Naval Command
  2. (b) Andaman and Nicobar Command
  3. (c) Northern Command
  4. (d) Strategic Forces Command
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Andaman and Nicobar Command

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Andaman and Nicobar Command
Explanation:
ExerciseDweep Shakti 2026was a large-scale joint tri-services military exercise conducted by theAndaman and Nicobar Command (ANC)— India's only tri-service theatre command.
Important Facts:
• The exercise showcased India's multi-domain joint warfighting and rapid response capability for island and maritime security.
• Andaman and Nicobar Command is headquartered at Port Blair.
• 'Dweep' means 'island' in Hindi, referencing the archipelago's strategic maritime location.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q18. In 2026, which superstar of Malayalam cinema was honoured with the Padma Bhushan?

  1. (a) Prithviraj Sukumaran, for achievements in direction and multilingual acting
  2. (b) Dulquer Salmaan, for promoting regional cinema among Indian audiences
  3. (c) Fahadh Faasil, for experimental and realistic cinematic performances
  4. (d) Mammootty, for his contribution to Indian and Malayalam cinema
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mammootty, for his contribution to Indian and Malayalam cinema

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Mammootty, for his contribution to Indian and Malayalam cinema
Explanation:
Malayalam cinema legendMammoottywas awarded the Padma Bhushan in the 2026 Padma Awards, recognizing his contribution across a five-decade career in Indian and Malayalam cinema.
Important Facts:
• Mammootty has acted in over 400 films across multiple Indian languages.
• He has previously received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award and multiple National Film Awards for Best Actor.
• The Padma Awards 2026 also gave posthumous Padma Vibhushan to Dharmendra and V.S. Achuthanandan.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q19. Which two authors were awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 for English and Hindi, respectively?

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh and Uday Prakash
  2. (b) Chetan Bhagat and Chitra Mudgal
  3. (c) Navtej Sarna and Mamta Kalia
  4. (d) Vikram Seth and Mridula Garg
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Navtej Sarna and Mamta Kalia

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Navtej Sarna and Mamta Kalia
Explanation:
Among the 24 winners of the Sahitya Akademi Awards 2025,Navtej Sarnawas honoured for English andMamta Kaliafor Hindi.
Important Facts:
• Navtej Sarna is a former diplomat (ex-Ambassador to the US) and noted author.
• Mamta Kalia is a well-known Hindi novelist, short-story writer, and poet.
• The Sahitya Akademi Awards recognize literary excellence across 24 Indian languages annually.

Static GK (2)

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q20. When is 'National Technology Day' celebrated every year in India to recognize the country's scientific and technological achievements?

  1. (a) 21 June
  2. (b) 5 May
  3. (c) 11 May
  4. (d) 15 May
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 11 May

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – 11 May
Explanation:
National Technology Day is observed every year on11 May, commemorating the 1998 Pokhran-II nuclear tests (Operation Shakti).
Important Facts:
• The day also marks related milestones such as the first flight test of the Trishul missile in 1998.
• It is observed under the aegis of the Technology Development Board, Ministry of Science and Technology.
• 21 June is International Yoga Day, unrelated to this observance.
Awards and Honours · Film awards (Dadasaheb Phalke, National Film Awards)

Q21. In February 2026, the 79th BAFTA Awards honoured achievements mainly associated with which field?

  1. (a) International theatre festivals
  2. (b) International sports events
  3. (c) International music concerts
  4. (d) International film productions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) International film productions

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – International film productions
Explanation:
TheBAFTA (British Academy Film Awards)are the UK's premier film awards, honouring achievements in international film productions. The 79th BAFTA Awards were held in February 2026.
Important Facts:
• BAFTA is awarded annually by the British Academy of Film and Television Arts.
• It covers categories like Best Film, Best Director, Best Actor/Actress, and technical film categories.
• BAFTA also separately runs television and games awards, but the flagship ceremony is for film.

Chemistry (7)

Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Combustion and flame

Q22. Which scenario best illustrates complete combustion of methane in a domestic gas burner?

  1. (a) An orange flame produces a strong gas odor in the kitchen
  2. (b) A yellow flame with black residue forms on the vessel
  3. (c) A blue, non-luminous flame is observed with no residue left behind
  4. (d) A weak, flickering flame is present with white ash
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A blue, non-luminous flame is observed with no residue left behind

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – A blue, non-luminous flame is observed with no residue left behind
Explanation:
Complete combustion of methane (a hydrocarbon fuel) occurs when it burns withsufficient oxygen supply, producing carbon dioxide and water vapour only: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. This reaction gives aclean blue, non-luminous flamewith no soot or residue. An orange/yellow flame with black residue (soot/carbon particles) indicates incomplete combustion due to insufficient oxygen.
Important Facts:
• Complete combustion → blue flame, produces CO₂ + H₂O.
• Incomplete combustion → yellow/orange flame, produces CO and soot (carbon).
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q23. Which of the following is NOT an example of a colloid?

  1. (a) Blood
  2. (b) Milk
  3. (c) Sugar solution
  4. (d) Ice cream
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sugar solution

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sugar solution
Explanation:
Blood, milk, and ice cream are allcolloids(blood is a colloidal suspension of cells/proteins in plasma; milk is an emulsion of fat globules in water; ice cream is a foam/emulsion colloid). Asugar solution, however, is a true (homogeneous) solution where sugar molecules are completely dissolved at the molecular level — it is not a colloid.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of bases and alkalis

Q24. Which of these statements best describes why non-metallic oxides react with bases?

  1. (a) They behave as acidic oxides and neutralize bases
  2. (b) They form acids and bases together
  3. (c) They are always basic and do not react with bases
  4. (d) They behave as basic oxides and neutralize acids
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They behave as acidic oxides and neutralize bases

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – They behave as acidic oxides and neutralize bases
Explanation:
Non-metallic oxides (e.g., CO₂, SO₂) are generallyacidic in nature. When they react with a base, they behave as acidic oxides and undergo neutralization, forming salt and water — analogous to how an acid reacts with a base. For example: CO₂ + Ca(OH)₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q25. Which substance is commonly used as a reducing agent to extract metals like zinc from their oxides?

  1. (a) Sulfur
  2. (b) Nitrogen
  3. (c) Oxygen
  4. (d) Carbon
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Carbon

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Carbon
Explanation:
Carbon (in the form of coke)is commonly used as a reducing agent in metallurgy to extract metals like zinc from their oxides. For example: ZnO + C → Zn + CO. Carbon removes oxygen from the metal oxide, reducing it to the free metal.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Ions and radicals

Q26. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Statement I: Sodium atom loses one electron to form a sodium ion.Statement II: Sodium ion has a negative charge.

  1. (a) Only Statement II is correct.
  2. (b) Both statements I and II are correct.
  3. (c) Only Statement I is correct.
  4. (d) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only Statement I is correct.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Only Statement I is correct.
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: A sodium atom (Na, atomic number 11, electronic configuration 2,8,1) loses its single valence electron to attain a stable octet configuration, forming a sodium ion (Na⁺).Statement II is incorrect: since sodium loses an electron, the resulting sodium ion carries apositive charge (Na⁺), not a negative charge.
Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q27. What is the main reason silver articles turn black when exposed to air for a long period?

  1. (a) Formation of a silver sulphide coating
  2. (b) Accumulation of dust particles on the surface
  3. (c) Formation of silver chloride by reaction with chlorine in the air
  4. (d) Formation of silver oxide by reaction with oxygen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Formation of a silver sulphide coating

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Formation of a silver sulphide coating
Explanation:
Silver articles turn black on prolonged exposure to air because silver reacts slowly with trace amounts ofhydrogen sulphide (H₂S)gas present in the air (from pollution, organic matter decay, etc.), forming a thin black coating ofsilver sulphide (Ag₂S)on the surface. This is a classic example of tarnishing due to a chemical reaction.
Periodic Classification of Elements · Element facts (names, symbols, atomic numbers)

Q28. Which of the following is the correct symbol for the element Aluminium?

  1. (a) Alm
  2. (b) alm
  3. (c) AL
  4. (d) Al
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Al

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Al
Explanation:
The correct chemical symbol for the elementAluminiumis'Al'— with the first letter capitalized and the second letter in lowercase, following standard IUPAC convention for element symbols derived from a name (first letter uppercase, subsequent letter(s) lowercase). 'Alm', 'alm', and 'AL' are not valid element symbol formats.

Physics (10)

Work, Energy and Power · Power and its units (watt, horsepower)

Q29. If the power of an engine is doubled while the time remains constant, the work done:

  1. (a) becomes four times
  2. (b) becomes half
  3. (c) remains the same
  4. (d) becomes double
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) becomes double

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – becomes double
Explanation:
Power is defined as P = Work done / Time (P = W/t), so W = P × t. If time (t) is kept constant and power (P) is doubled, then Work done (W) also becomesdouble, since W is directly proportional to P at constant t.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Atmospheric refraction (twinkling of stars, advance sunrise)

Q30. A car driver notices that the road ahead appears to be wet during a hot sunny day, but upon reaching the spot, the road is dry. Which physical phenomenon best explains this observation?

  1. (a) Scattering of sunlight by dust particles
  2. (b) Total internal reflection of light within water droplets
  3. (c) Dispersion of sunlight by air molecules
  4. (d) Refraction of light due to varying air temperatures above the road
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Refraction of light due to varying air temperatures above the road

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Refraction of light due to varying air temperatures above the road
Explanation:
This is the classicmiragephenomenon. On a hot day, the air layer just above the road surface is much hotter (and hence less dense/lower refractive index) than the air above it. Light from the sky travelling through these layers of continuously varying density undergoesgradual refraction, bending upward, and eventually appears to reach the observer's eye as if reflected from a 'wet' patch on the road, creating the illusion of water. This is caused by refraction due to the temperature (and density) gradient in air, not scattering or dispersion.
Important Facts:
• Mirage is an example of atmospheric refraction combined with (apparent) total internal reflection at the boundary between hot and cooler air layers.
• It is not due to water droplets since the road is actually dry.
Motion · Speed and velocity

Q31. How does velocity differ from speed in the context of describing motion?

  1. (a) Velocity specifies both the magnitude (speed) and the definite direction of motion.
  2. (b) Velocity applies only to non-uniform motion, while speed applies only to uniform motion.
  3. (c) Velocity is calculated using average speed, while speed uses instantaneous speed.
  4. (d) Velocity specifies distance covered, while speed specifies displacement.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Velocity specifies both the magnitude (speed) and the definite direction of motion.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Velocity specifies both the magnitude (speed) and the definite direction of motion.
Explanation:
Speedis a scalar quantity — it tells only how fast an object moves (magnitude).Velocityis a vector quantity — it specifies both the speed (magnitude) and the direction of motion. This is the key conceptual difference between the two.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field and field lines

Q32. Which property of magnetic field lines explains the absence of magnetic monopoles in classical electromagnetism?

  1. (a) They are always circular
  2. (b) They form continuous closed curves
  3. (c) They are denser near poles
  4. (d) They never intersect
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They form continuous closed curves

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – They form continuous closed curves
Explanation:
Magnetic field lines always formcontinuous closed loops— they emerge from the North pole, travel through the space outside the magnet, enter at the South pole, and continue inside the magnet back to the North pole, forming an unbroken loop. This property directly indicates that isolated magnetic poles (monopoles) do not exist in classical electromagnetism — every field line that leaves a 'north' region must eventually return to a 'south' region, unlike electric field lines which can start/end on isolated charges.
Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q33. Why does the formation of coal and petroleum in nature take millions of years?

  1. (a) Their formation happens quickly through the cooling of materials
  2. (b) They are produced from recurring flood events
  3. (c) Their formation happens through slow chemical and physical changes
  4. (d) They are formed as a result of rapid chemical reactions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Their formation happens through slow chemical and physical changes

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Their formation happens through slow chemical and physical changes
Explanation:
Coal and petroleum arefossil fuelsformed from the remains of dead plants and animals (organic matter) buried deep under the Earth's crust. Over millions of years, this organic matter undergoes extremelyslow chemical and physical transformations— subjected to high pressure, high temperature, and the absence of oxygen (anaerobic decomposition) — gradually converting it into coal (from plant matter) or petroleum (from marine organisms). This is why these are called non-renewable resources; they cannot be replenished quickly.
Force and Laws of Motion · Numericals on force and momentum

Q34. A constant force is applied to a 5 kg object for 4 seconds, causing its velocity to increase from 2 m/s to 10 m/s. What is the magnitude of this force?

  1. (a) 2 N
  2. (b) 10 N
  3. (c) 5 N
  4. (d) 20 N
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 10 N

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 10 N
Explanation:
Acceleration a = (v − u)/t = (10 − 2)/4 = 8/4 = 2 m/s². Using Newton's second law, Force F = m × a = 5 kg × 2 m/s² =10 N.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q35. A motor performs 1875 J of work in 3 seconds. What is its power output?

  1. (a) 210 W
  2. (b) 5625 W
  3. (c) 2810 W
  4. (d) 625 W
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 625 W

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – 625 W
Explanation:
Power = Work done / Time = 1875 J / 3 s =625 W.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q36. A small candle is placed 18 cm from a concave mirror with a focal length of 6 cm. What will be the nature and position of the image formed?

  1. (a) Real, 6 cm in front of the mirror
  2. (b) Virtual, 12 cm behind the mirror
  3. (c) Virtual, 9 cm behind the mirror
  4. (d) Real, 9 cm in front of the mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Real, 9 cm in front of the mirror

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Real, 9 cm in front of the mirror
Explanation:
Using the mirror formula 1/v + 1/u = 1/f with the sign convention (distances measured against the direction of incident light are negative): object distance u = −18 cm, focal length f = −6 cm (concave mirror).1/v = 1/f − 1/u = (−1/6) − (−1/18) = −3/18 + 1/18 = −2/18 = −1/9v = −9 cm.Since v is negative, the image formsin front of the mirror(on the same side as the object) — it isreal, located9 cm in front of the mirror.
Sound and Waves · Human ear and sound production

Q37. Which of the following situations best demonstrates that a vibrating object is necessary to produce sound?

  1. (a) Plucking a taut guitar string and hearing a tone
  2. (b) Holding a metal rod steady/still and hearing a hum
  3. (c) Shining a torch light on the wall in a dark room
  4. (d) Looking at a glass bottle placed on the table without disturbing it
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Plucking a taut guitar string and hearing a tone

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Plucking a taut guitar string and hearing a tone
Explanation:
Sound is produced when an objectvibrates. When a guitar string is plucked (displaced and released), it vibrates back and forth, and these vibrations are transmitted through the air as sound waves, producing an audible tone — directly demonstrating that vibration is necessary for sound production. Holding a metal rod steady (not letting it vibrate) would not naturally produce a hum; shining a torch and looking at an undisturbed bottle involve no vibration or sound at all (light, not sound, in one case; complete stillness in the other).
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q38. How does the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire change with distance from the wire?

  1. (a) It decreases as distance increases
  2. (b) It increases as distance increases
  3. (c) It fluctuates randomly with distance
  4. (d) It remains constant at all distances
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It decreases as distance increases

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – It decreases as distance increases
Explanation:
The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying straight wire is strongest close to the wire anddecreases as the distance from the wire increases. For a long straight conductor, the magnetic field strength B is inversely proportional to the perpendicular distance r from the wire (B ∝ 1/r), as given by Ampere's circuital law / Biot–Savart law.

Biology (7)

Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q39. What do scientists examine to determine whether an organism is a eukaryote or prokaryote?

  1. (a) General feeding behavior and diet
  2. (b) Ecological role within the environment
  3. (c) Cell structure and presence of nucleus
  4. (d) Method of reproduction and offspring
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cell structure and presence of nucleus

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Cell structure and presence of nucleus
Explanation:
The fundamental distinction between eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms lies in theircell structure, specifically whether they possess amembrane-bound (true) nucleusand other membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotes have a well-defined nucleus and organelles (e.g., mitochondria), while prokaryotes lack a true nucleus (their genetic material lies free in the cytoplasm as a nucleoid).
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q40. Which of the following explains why epithelial tissue cells are tightly packed with very little space between them?

  1. (a) To form a continuous barrier and regulate permeability
  2. (b) To enhance secretion functions of the tissue
  3. (c) To allow rapid cell division in the tissue
  4. (d) To increase the overall strength of the tissue
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To form a continuous barrier and regulate permeability

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – To form a continuous barrier and regulate permeability
Explanation:
Epithelial tissue cells are packed tightly with almost no intercellular space between them because their main function is tocover and protectbody surfaces and line cavities/organs, forming a continuous, unbroken sheet/barrier. This tight packing allows the tissue toregulate what passes through it(selective permeability) — for example, protecting underlying tissues from pathogens, injury, and desiccation while controlling absorption and secretion at specific sites.
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q41. A horticulturist wants to breed aquatic plants that are better able to float. Which tissue modification should they focus on enhancing?

  1. (a) Increasing chlorophyll in collenchyma
  2. (b) Irregular thickening in collenchyma
  3. (c) Reducing intercellular spaces in parenchyma
  4. (d) Aerenchyma formation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Aerenchyma formation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Aerenchyma formation
Explanation:
Aerenchymais a specialized parenchyma tissue found in aquatic plants that contains large air-filled cavities/spaces. These air spaces reduce the plant's overall density and provide buoyancy, allowing the plant tofloaton water, while also facilitating gas exchange for submerged parts. To breed better-floating aquatic plants, a horticulturist should focus on enhancing aerenchyma formation.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q42. Which of the following best describes systolic pressure?

  1. (a) Blood pressure in veins during contraction
  2. (b) Blood pressure in artery during ventricular contraction
  3. (c) Blood pressure in veins during relaxation
  4. (d) Blood pressure in artery during ventricular relaxation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Blood pressure in artery during ventricular contraction

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Blood pressure in artery during ventricular contraction
Explanation:
Systolic pressureis the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of the arteries when the ventricles of the heartcontract(systole) and pump blood out. It is the higher of the two blood pressure readings (the lower one, diastolic pressure, occurs during ventricular relaxation).
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Lymphatic system

Q43. Which statement CORRECTLY compares the protein content of lymph and blood plasma?

  1. (a) Lymph contains equal protein to plasma
  2. (b) Lymph contains more protein than plasma
  3. (c) Lymph contains less protein than plasma
  4. (d) Lymph contains no protein
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lymph contains less protein than plasma

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Lymph contains less protein than plasma
Explanation:
Lymph is formed from blood plasma that filters out of capillaries into the tissue spaces. During this filtration, large plasma proteins are largelyretained in the blood(they cannot easily cross capillary walls), solymph contains a much lower protein concentration than blood plasma, along with similar composition otherwise (water, glucose, salts, WBCs).
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q44. Which of the following is an example of an artificial ecosystem?

  1. (a) Forest
  2. (b) Crop-field
  3. (c) Lake
  4. (d) Pond
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Crop-field

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Crop-field
Explanation:
Anartificial (man-made) ecosystemis one created and maintained by human effort, such as a crop-field, garden, or aquarium. Acrop-fieldis created, planted, and managed entirely by humans. Forests, lakes, and ponds arenatural ecosystemsthat exist and sustain themselves without direct human creation.
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q45. Which of the following best defines an ecosystem?

  1. (a) A habitat containing animals only
  2. (b) A system formed by the interaction of biotic and abiotic components
  3. (c) A group of plants only
  4. (d) A community without physical factors
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A system formed by the interaction of biotic and abiotic components

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – A system formed by the interaction of biotic and abiotic components
Explanation:
Anecosystemis defined as a functional unit of nature comprising all the living organisms (biotic components — plants, animals, microorganisms) in a given area, interacting with each other and with the non-living (abiotic) components of their environment (such as air, water, soil, temperature, sunlight), forming a self-regulating system with flow of energy and cycling of matter.
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