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RRB Group D 2025-26 25 August 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Group D 2025-26 on 25 August 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Economics, Static GK, Chemistry, Physics, Biology.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 25 August 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (17) · Economics (1) · Static GK (1) · Chemistry (7) · Physics (10) · Biology (7) · Geography (1)

Current Affairs (17)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q1. On which occasion did India officially join the Pax Silica coalition in 2026?

  1. (a) On the fifth day of the India AI Impact Summit 2026
  2. (b) At the G20 Summit 2026
  3. (c) During the 2025 Science and Tech Forum
  4. (d) On the first day of Digital India Week
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) On the fifth day of the India AI Impact Summit 2026

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – On the fifth day of the India AI Impact Summit 2026
Explanation:
India signed/joined thePax Silicadeclaration with the United States on the fifth day of theIndia AI Impact Summit 2026(held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, 16–20 February 2026), as confirmed by PIB and news reports ("India AI Impact Summit 2026 enters fifth day", 20 Feb 2026).
Important Facts:
• Pax Silica is a US-India strategic technology/semiconductor cooperation declaration.
• The India AI Impact Summit 2026 was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
• It focused on semiconductor supply chains and chip design cooperation.
Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q2. In March 2026, the Union Cabinet approved India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) for the period 2031-2035. What is the new target for reducing the emissions intensity of India’s GDP by 2035?

  1. (a) 45 percent from 2010 level
  2. (b) 47 percent from 2005 level
  3. (c) 35 percent from 2005 level
  4. (d) 60 percent from 2005 level
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 47 percent from 2005 level

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 47 percent from 2005 level
Explanation:
In March 2026, the Union Cabinet approved India's updated NDC (2031-2035), targeting a47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP by 2035 from the 2005 level, along with 60% non-fossil power capacity, as reported by PIB and Mongabay India ("India's updated climate plan targets 47% emissions cut... by 2035").
Important Facts:
• India's earlier (2015) NDC targeted 45% emissions intensity reduction from 2005 level by 2030.
• The new NDC (2031-2035) also targets ~60% non-fossil fuel based electric power capacity.
• NDCs are submitted under the UNFCCC/Paris Agreement framework.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q3. Where did the inaugural India International Disputes Week (IIDW) 2026 took place from March 7–11, 2026, under the theme “Where the World Meets to Resolve Disputes”?

  1. (a) Jaipur
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Chandigarh
  4. (d) Shimla
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chandigarh

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Chandigarh
Explanation:
The inaugural India International Disputes Week (IIDW) 2026 was held inChandigarhfrom 7–11 March 2026, under the theme "Where the World Meets to Resolve Disputes", and also saw the launch of the Chandigarh International Arbitration Centre (SCC Online, ILI, CII confirm Chandigarh as the venue).
Important Facts:
• IIDW 2026 saw the launch of the Chandigarh International Arbitration Centre (CIAC).
• It was organised with participation from International Law Institute and CII.
• It aimed to position India as a global hub for dispute resolution/arbitration.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q4. Why was the E-Prisons Module in the news in 2026?

  1. (a) It replaced the prison manual in all States.
  2. (b) The Supreme Court closed prison reform proceedings after its launch
  3. (c) It was introduced to monitor prison security through AI.
  4. (d) It was launched to conduct online court hearings.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Supreme Court closed prison reform proceedings after its launch

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – The Supreme Court closed prison reform proceedings after its launch
Explanation:
The National Informatics Centre (NIC) launched the E-Prisons Module (a software to process premature/early release of prisoners) in 2026, after which the Supreme Court closed the long-pending prison reform case, as reported by LiveLaw and The420.in ("Supreme Court Closes Case After NIC Launches Digital Module For Early Release Of Prisoners").
Important Facts:
• The module automates processing of premature release applications of prisoners.
• It was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC).
• The Supreme Court had been monitoring prison reform/remission issues in a suo motu case.
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q5. At the inaugural Indian Athletics Awards 2026 by the Athletic Federation of India, who was named the Best Female Athlete of the Year 2025?

  1. (a) Avinash Sable
  2. (b) Ancy Sojan
  3. (c) Jyothi Yarraji
  4. (d) Parul Chaudhary
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Parul Chaudhary

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Parul Chaudhary
Explanation:
At the inaugural Indian Athletics Awards 2026 (held 20 June 2026, New Delhi) by the Athletics Federation of India,Parul Chaudharywas named Best Female Athlete of the Year 2025, while Neeraj Chopra won Best Male Athlete (India TV News, Outlook India confirm).
Important Facts:
• Neeraj Chopra won the Best Male Athlete of the Year 2025 award.
• The event was the first-ever Indian Athletics Awards, organised by AFI.
• Parul Chaudhary is a distance runner known for steeplechase and 5000m events.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q6. In July 2026, who was reappointed as the Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) for an additional six-month term?

  1. (a) Ravi Agrawal
  2. (b) Nitin Gupta
  3. (c) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
  4. (d) Sanjay Malhotra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ravi Agrawal

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Ravi Agrawal
Explanation:
In June/July 2026, the government (ACC) approved a six-month extension forRavi Agrawal, extending his tenure as CBDT Chairman till December 2026, as reported by Business Standard and Telangana Today.
Important Facts:
• CBDT = Central Board of Direct Taxes, under the Ministry of Finance.
• This was Ravi Agrawal's second extension as CBDT Chairman.
• Nitin Gupta was his predecessor as CBDT Chairman.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q7. In May 2026, the Supreme Court observed that the Election Commission of India's power to conduct a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is derived from which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 327
  2. (b) Article 324
  3. (c) Article 326
  4. (d) Article 325
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 324

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Article 324
Explanation:
In May 2026, the Supreme Court upheld the legality of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, holding that the ECI's power derives fromArticle 324of the Constitution (general superintendence, direction and control of elections), as reported by Organiser and Asian Mirror ("SIR verdict by SC boosts constitutional authority of ECI... Article 324").
Important Facts:
• Article 324 vests the Election Commission with powers of superintendence, direction and control of elections.
• SIR (Special Intensive Revision) is a deep cleaning/verification exercise for electoral rolls.
• The SC judgment came in May 2026 in petitions challenging the SIR exercise.
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q8. In April 2026, which initiative was launched by the Reserve Bank of India to strengthen the Urban Co-operative Banking sector?

  1. (a) Mission SURAKSHA
  2. (b) Mission SAKSHAM
  3. (c) Mission SAMARTH
  4. (d) Mission SAHYOG
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mission SAKSHAM

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Mission SAKSHAM
Explanation:
In April 2026, RBI Governor launchedMission SAKSHAM, a capacity-building/governance strengthening initiative for the Urban Co-operative Banking (UCB) sector, as confirmed by Business Standard ("RBI Governor launches 'Mission SAKSHAM' for Urban Co-operative Banks").
Important Facts:
• Mission SAKSHAM focuses on governance, capacity-building and risk management in UCBs.
• It was launched by the RBI Governor in April 2026.
• UCBs (Urban Co-operative Banks) fall under joint RBI-state regulation.
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q9. Against which of these countries did Pakistan declare open war in February 2026?

  1. (a) Iran
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) Afghanistan
  4. (d) Nepal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Afghanistan

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Afghanistan
Explanation:
In February 2026, Pakistan declared an "open war" againstAfghanistan(the Afghan Taliban), following cross-border clashes and airstrikes on Kabul and Kandahar, as widely reported by Al Jazeera, Bloomberg, and other outlets (27 February 2026).
Important Facts:
• The conflict followed prior cross-border skirmishes and airstrikes by Pakistan on Afghan territory.
• This event is referred to as the 2026 Afghanistan-Pakistan war.
• It escalated tensions along the Durand Line border region.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q10. At the end of the Ladakh leg of the 6th Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG) 2026, which of the following states/union territories topped the medal tally?

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Haryana
  3. (c) Uttarakhand
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Haryana

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Haryana
Explanation:
Haryanatopped the medal tally at the Ladakh leg of the 6th Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG) 2026, held at Leh, as reported by The Tribune and Ladakh administration ("Haryana remain on top").
Important Facts:
• KIWG 2026 was the 6th edition of the Khelo India Winter Games.
• It was held at NDS Stadium, Leh, Ladakh (started January 2026).
• Haryana's medals included figure skating golds.
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q11. Who was elected as the Prime Minister of Nepal following the elections held in March 2026?

  1. (a) Sher Bahadur Deuba
  2. (b) Lokendra Bahadur Chand
  3. (c) Pushpa Kamal Dahal
  4. (d) Balendra Shah
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Balendra Shah

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Balendra Shah
Explanation:
Following the March 2026 Nepalese general election,Balendra Shah(former Kathmandu mayor, an independent/RSP-aligned leader) was elected/sworn in as the 40th Prime Minister of Nepal, as confirmed by the Kathmandu Post ("Balendra Shah becomes 40th prime minister of Nepal") and NBC News.
Important Facts:
• Balendra Shah was previously the Mayor of Kathmandu Metropolitan City.
• His rise followed Gen-Z-led protests and a sweeping election win in 2026.
• He is also known as a rapper/musician before entering politics.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q12. In January 2026, the Padma Bhushan was awarded to which former Maharashtra governor?

  1. (a) S. C. Jamir
  2. (b) Vidyasagar Rao
  3. (c) C. P. Radhakrishnan
  4. (d) Bhagat Singh Koshyari
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bhagat Singh Koshyari

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Bhagat Singh Koshyari
Explanation:
In January 2026 (Republic Day/Padma Awards 2026), former Maharashtra GovernorBhagat Singh Koshyariwas conferred the Padma Bhushan, as reported by India TV News and Republic World, which also noted political controversy over the award given his role in the 2022 Maharashtra government change.
Important Facts:
• Koshyari also previously served as Chief Minister of Uttarakhand.
• Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day (26 January).
• Harmanpreet Kaur received the Padma Shri in the same 2026 awards list.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q13. Scientists from which institute developed the electrolyte additive BDIM to improve the performance of aqueous zinc-ion batteries, as announced in June 2026?

  1. (a) CSIR–National Chemical Laboratory (CSIR-NCL)
  2. (b) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
  3. (c) Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST)
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST)

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST)
Explanation:
Scientists at theInstitute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohalideveloped the BDIM electrolyte additive to improve the safety, lifespan and performance of aqueous zinc-ion batteries, as announced in June 2026 and reported by The Tribune ("INST Mohali scientists develop technology to manufacture safer, longer-lasting and cheaper rechargeable zinc batteries") and DD News.
Important Facts:
• INST Mohali functions under the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India.
• Aqueous zinc-ion batteries are seen as a safer, cheaper alternative to lithium-ion batteries.
• The additive aims to boost durability and affordability of such batteries.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q14. Which tennis player had won the 2026 Monte-Carlo Masters singles title after defeating Carlos Alcaraz in the final held on 12 April 2026?

  1. (a) Novak Djokovic
  2. (b) Daniil Medvedev
  3. (c) Alexander Zverev
  4. (d) Jannik Sinner
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jannik Sinner

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Jannik Sinner
Explanation:
Jannik Sinnerdefeated Carlos Alcaraz in the final to win the 2026 Monte-Carlo Masters singles title on 12 April 2026, reclaiming the world No. 1 ranking, as confirmed by Olympics.com and ATP Tour reports.
Important Facts:
• This was their first head-to-head meeting of the 2026 season.
• The Monte-Carlo Masters is an ATP Masters 1000 clay-court tournament held in Monaco.
• Sinner reclaimed the ATP world No. 1 ranking with this win.
State News · State schemes and events

Q15. The governance campaign “Sushasan Tihar 2026”, launched in May 2026, was associated with which Indian state?

  1. (a) Chhattisgarh
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Jharkhand
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Chhattisgarh
Explanation:
"Sushasan Tihar 2026" (Good Governance Festival), a statewide governance/grievance-redressal campaign running from 1 May to 10 June 2026, was launched by theChhattisgarhstate government under CM Vishnu Deo Sai, as confirmed by ANI News.
Important Facts:
• The campaign involved Jan Samadhan Camps for grievance redressal across the state.
• Vishnu Deo Sai is the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh.
• "Tihar" is a term used regionally in Chhattisgarh for a festival/celebration.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q16. Which of the following organizations published the 'Corruption Perceptions Index 2025' in February 2026?

  1. (a) United Nations
  2. (b) Transparency International
  3. (c) World Bank
  4. (d) International Monetary Fund
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Transparency International

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Transparency International
Explanation:
The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is published annually byTransparency International; the CPI 2025 edition was released in February 2026, consistent with the organisation's long-standing annual publication practice.
Important Facts:
• Transparency International is a Berlin-based global anti-corruption NGO.
• CPI ranks countries/territories by perceived public sector corruption on a 0-100 scale.
• Denmark and other Nordic countries typically rank among the least corrupt in the CPI.
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q17. At the 2026 London Marathon, which athlete became the first man in history to officially complete a marathon in under two hours in a competitive race?

  1. (a) Yomif Kejelcha
  2. (b) Jacob Kiplimo
  3. (c) Sabastian Sawe
  4. (d) Eliud Kipchoge
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sabastian Sawe

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sabastian Sawe
Explanation:
Kenya'sSabastian Saweran the first legal/official sub-two-hour marathon in a competitive race at the 2026 TCS London Marathon, setting a new marathon world record, as confirmed by Olympics.com and London Marathon Events ("Sawe smashes two-hour barrier to make sporting history at the 2026 TCS London Marathon").
Important Facts:
• This was distinct from Eliud Kipchoge's 2019 INEOS 1:59 Challenge, which was not an official record-eligible race.
• Sawe's run set a new official marathon world record.
• The London Marathon is one of the six World Marathon Majors.

Economics (1)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning terms

Q18. What key initiative was launched to structure India’s long-term development roadmap aligning with the SDGs?

  1. (a) Viksit Bharat @ 2047 Vision
  2. (b) Data for Development Coordination Forum
  3. (c) SDG Coordination Centres
  4. (d) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Viksit Bharat @ 2047 Vision

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Viksit Bharat @ 2047 Vision
Explanation:
TheViksit Bharat @2047vision is India's flagship long-term development roadmap, aiming to make India a fully developed nation by 2047, structured to align with and mainstream the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) into national planning.
Important Facts:
• Viksit Bharat @2047 marks 100 years of India's independence as the target year.
• It covers pillars like economy, infrastructure, social sectors, and governance.
• NITI Aayog coordinates SDG localisation and monitoring in India.

Static GK (1)

Important Days and Themes · International days

Q19. The theme of World Water Day 2026 is “Water and Gender”. The observance is celebrated annually on:

  1. (a) 8 March
  2. (b) 22 March
  3. (c) 10 March
  4. (d) 21 March
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 22 March

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – 22 March
Explanation:
World Water Day is observed annually on22 March, as designated by the United Nations since 1993; this is a fixed date and does not change year to year, including for 2026's theme.
Important Facts:
• World Water Day was established by the UN General Assembly in 1993.
• It is coordinated by UN-Water in collaboration with governments and organisations.
• Each year's observance has a distinct theme highlighting a specific water-related issue.

Chemistry (7)

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q20. Which of the following statements about the solubility of solids and gases in liquids is generally CORRECT?

  1. (a) Solubility of both solids and gases in liquids decreases with increase in temperature.
  2. (b) Solubility of solids in liquids increases, while that of gases in liquids decreases with an increase in temperature.
  3. (c) Solubility of both solids and gases in liquids increases with increase in temperature.
  4. (d) Solubility of solids in liquids decreases, while that of gases in liquids increases with an increase in temperature.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Solubility of solids in liquids increases, while that of gases in liquids decreases with an increase in temperature.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Solubility of solids in liquids increases, while that of gases in liquids decreases with an increase in temperature.
Explanation:
Dissolving most solids in a liquid is an endothermic process, so raising temperature generally increases solid solubility. Gas solubility, however, depends on the gas molecules staying trapped in the liquid; higher temperature gives gas molecules more kinetic energy to escape, so gas solubility generally decreases with rising temperature.
Important Facts:
• Warm water holds less dissolved oxygen than cold water, which is why fish are stressed in warm water.
• Sugar and salt dissolve faster and more in hot water than cold water.
• This is a general trend; a few exceptions exist (e.g., some sulphate salts), but it holds for most solids and gases.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q21. Which of the following observations would violate the law of constant proportions?

  1. (a) A sample of sodium chloride with sodium and chlorine in a 23:35.5 mass ratio.
  2. (b) A sample of water containing hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:8 mass ratio.
  3. (c) A sample of magnesium sulphide containing magnesium and sulphur in a 4:3 mass ratio.
  4. (d) A sample of ammonia containing nitrogen and hydrogen in a 14:3 mass ratio.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A sample of magnesium sulphide containing magnesium and sulphur in a 4:3 mass ratio.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – A sample of magnesium sulphide containing magnesium and sulphur in a 4:3 mass ratio.
Explanation:
The Law of Constant Proportions states that a chemical compound always contains the same elements combined in a fixed mass ratio, regardless of source. Checking each option: NaCl (Na=23, Cl=35.5) gives 23:35.5 — correct actual ratio. Water (H2=2, O=16) gives 1:8 — correct ratio. Ammonia (N=14, H3=3) gives 14:3 — correct ratio. But MgS (Mg=24, S=32) has an actual mass ratio of 24:32 = 3:4, not 4:3, so a sample showing 4:3 would violate the law.
Important Facts:
• Law of Constant Proportions was given by Joseph Proust.
• It applies regardless of the source or method of preparation of the compound.
• It underlies the concept of a fixed chemical formula for every compound.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q22. Which method is commonly used to extract sodium from its compound?

  1. (a) Distillation
  2. (b) Thermal decomposition
  3. (c) Electrolytic reduction
  4. (d) Heating with carbon
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Electrolytic reduction

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Electrolytic reduction
Explanation:
Sodium is a highly reactive metal, and reactive metals are extracted via electrolytic reduction of their molten salts. Sodium is obtained by electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (Down's process).
Important Facts:
• Reactivity series metals like Na, K, Ca, Mg, Al are extracted by electrolytic reduction.
• Less reactive metals (e.g., Zn, Fe) are extracted by reduction with carbon.
• Very reactive metals cannot be reduced by carbon or other chemical reducing agents alone.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q23. How are acids and bases similar in terms of their effect on skin?

  1. (a) They both can cause irritation or burns
  2. (b) They both clean the skin without harm
  3. (c) They both soothe the skin
  4. (d) They both act as moisturizers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They both can cause irritation or burns

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – They both can cause irritation or burns
Explanation:
Strong acids and strong bases are both corrosive and can damage skin tissue, causing irritation, burns, or chemical damage on contact, though through different chemical mechanisms.
Important Facts:
• Strong acids (e.g., sulphuric acid) cause acid burns.
• Strong bases (e.g., sodium hydroxide) cause alkali burns, often felt as a slippery, soapy sensation.
• This is why safety precautions like gloves are needed when handling either acids or bases.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q24. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?Statement I: Atoms of different elements combine in definite proportions to form compounds.Statement II: In a pure chemical compound, elements are always present in a definite proportion by mass.

  1. (a) Both statements I and II are correct
  2. (b) Only Statement II is correct
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are incorrect
  4. (d) Only Statement I is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both statements I and II are correct

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both statements I and II are correct
Explanation:
Both statements are restatements of the Law of Constant (Definite) Proportions: elements in a compound always combine in a fixed, definite mass ratio, irrespective of the source or method of preparation of the compound.
Important Facts:
• This law was proposed by Joseph Proust.
• It applies to pure compounds, not mixtures.
• It is one of the foundational laws of chemical combination, alongside the Law of Conservation of Mass.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Decomposition reactions (thermal, electrolytic, photolytic)

Q25. A chemist keeps calcium carbonate, silver chloride, and lead nitrate exposed to sunlight. Which compound/s show/s a visible change?

  1. (a) Only lead nitrate
  2. (b) Only silver chloride
  3. (c) Only calcium carbonate
  4. (d) All three compounds
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only silver chloride

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only silver chloride
Explanation:
Silver chloride is photosensitive — it decomposes on exposure to sunlight, turning grey due to formation of metallic silver (2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl2), a photochemical decomposition reaction. Calcium carbonate and lead nitrate do not show this visible change from sunlight exposure alone (lead nitrate needs heating to decompose).
Important Facts:
• This photodecomposition of silver salts is the basis of old black-and-white photographic film.
• Lead nitrate decomposes on heating (thermal decomposition), releasing brown NO2 fumes, not simply from sunlight.
• Calcium carbonate is thermally stable and unaffected by sunlight.
Carbon and its Compounds · Soaps and detergents

Q26. What happens to soap molecules when they are added to water?

  1. (a) Hydrocarbon tails remain in water while ionic heads project outward.
  2. (b) Soap molecules dissolve randomly without forming any arrangement.
  3. (c) Ionic heads remain in water while hydrocarbon tails project outward.
  4. (d) Both ionic heads and tails remain completely inside the water.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ionic heads remain in water while hydrocarbon tails project outward.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Ionic heads remain in water while hydrocarbon tails project outward.
Explanation:
A soap molecule has a hydrophilic (water-loving) ionic head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) hydrocarbon tail. When added to water, the ionic head stays dissolved in the water while the hydrocarbon tail sticks out of the water surface, since it is not attracted to water molecules.
Important Facts:
• When mixed with oily dirt, soap molecules form micelles, with hydrocarbon tails pointing towards the oil/grease and ionic heads pointing outward towards water.
• This dual nature (amphiphilic structure) is what makes soap an effective cleaning agent.

Physics (10)

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Power of accommodation, near point and far point

Q27. A student is experiencing difficulty seeing objects clearly both at a distance and up close. After an examination, it is found that the eye muscles are not able to adjust the focal length of the lens properly. Which part of the human eye is most likely responsible for this issue?

  1. (a) Retina
  2. (b) Iris
  3. (c) Cornea
  4. (d) Ciliary muscles
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ciliary muscles

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Ciliary muscles
Explanation:
The ciliary muscles control the curvature (and hence focal length) of the eye lens, a process called accommodation, allowing the eye to focus on both near and distant objects. If these muscles cannot adjust properly, the person cannot see clearly at both distances — this describes defects like presbyopia.
Important Facts:
• Retina is the light-sensitive screen where the image forms.
• Iris controls the size of the pupil, regulating light entry.
• Cornea is the transparent front part responsible for most of the eye's refraction, but its curvature is fixed, unlike the lens.
Sound and Waves · Applications of ultrasound and SONAR

Q28. Which of the following statements best describes how ultrasound is utilized in medical imaging?

  1. (a) Ultrasound waves ionize tissues to produce visible images.
  2. (b) Ultrasound waves reflect off tissues to create internal images.
  3. (c) Ultrasound waves pass through blood without interaction to form images.
  4. (d) Ultrasound waves are absorbed by bones to visualize soft tissue.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ultrasound waves reflect off tissues to create internal images.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Ultrasound waves reflect off tissues to create internal images.
Explanation:
In ultrasound imaging (sonography), high-frequency sound waves are sent into the body and reflect differently off tissues and organs of different densities. These reflected echoes are captured and processed to construct an image of internal structures, without ionizing radiation.
Important Facts:
• Ultrasound frequency is above 20 kHz, beyond human hearing range.
• Used commonly for imaging organs, foetal scanning, and detecting kidney stones/gallstones.
• Unlike X-rays, ultrasound does not ionize tissue.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q29. An object moving with kinetic energy 800 J experiences a net work of −600 J. What happens to the object?

  1. (a) It moves with half speed
  2. (b) It stops moving
  3. (c) It doubles its speed
  4. (d) It continues with same speed
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It moves with half speed

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – It moves with half speed
Explanation:
Final KE = 800 + (−600) = 200 J. Since KE ∝ v², the ratio of final to initial KE is 200/800 = 1/4, so v_final/v_initial = √(1/4) = 1/2. The object continues moving but at half its original speed.
Important Facts:
• Work-energy theorem: Work done = change in kinetic energy.
• Negative work means energy is being removed from the object (e.g., by friction or an opposing force).
• KE is proportional to the square of speed, not speed directly.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q30. A student observes a speed-time graph for a car that moves with constant speed for 10 seconds, then accelerates for 5 seconds. How can the student use the graph to calculate the total distance travelled during these 15 seconds?

  1. (a) By using only the area under the acceleration section
  2. (b) By calculating the area under the speed-time graph for each section and adding them
  3. (c) By multiplying the total time by the average speed shown on the graph
  4. (d) By reading the final speed at 15 seconds and multiplying by 15
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) By calculating the area under the speed-time graph for each section and adding them

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – By calculating the area under the speed-time graph for each section and adding them
Explanation:
The area under a speed-time graph gives distance travelled. Since the motion has two distinct sections (constant speed, then acceleration), the student should compute the area of each section separately (a rectangle for constant speed, a trapezoid for the accelerating part) and sum them to get total distance.
Important Facts:
• Area under a v-t graph = displacement/distance.
• For uniform motion the area is a rectangle; for uniform acceleration it is a trapezoid or triangle plus rectangle.
• Reading just the final speed or using only one section's area gives incorrect (incomplete) total distance.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Concave mirror - image formation and uses

Q31. A converging mirror has a radius of curvature of 30 cm. If an object is placed on the principal axis at 60 cm from the pole, what is the nature of the image formed?

  1. (a) The image is real and upright on the opposite side
  2. (b) The image is virtual and upright on the same side as the object
  3. (c) The image is at the same position as the object
  4. (d) The image is real and inverted on the same side as the object
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The image is real and inverted on the same side as the object

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – The image is real and inverted on the same side as the object
Explanation:
A converging (concave) mirror has focal length f = R/2 = 15 cm, so the centre of curvature C is at 30 cm. The object is placed at 60 cm, which is beyond C (u > 2f). For an object placed beyond C, a concave mirror forms a real, inverted, diminished image between F and C — and being a mirror, the real image forms in front of the mirror, on the same side as the object.
Important Facts:
• Concave mirrors always form real images in front of the mirror (same side as the object), unlike converging lenses where real images form on the opposite side.
• Object beyond C → image between F and C, real, inverted, diminished.
• Object at C → image at C, same size, real, inverted.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q32. A constant force acts on an object and does 250 J of work while moving it through a distance of 25 m in the direction of the force. What is the magnitude of the force?

  1. (a) 25 N
  2. (b) 20 N
  3. (c) 15 N
  4. (d) 10 N
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 10 N

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – 10 N
Explanation:
Work done, W = F × d. Given W = 250 J and d = 25 m, so F = W/d = 250/25 = 10 N.
Important Facts:
• This formula applies when the force acts in the same direction as the displacement.
• SI unit of work is the joule (J), and of force is the newton (N).
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q33. What happens to the magnitude of action and reaction forces in Newton’s third law pairs?

  1. (a) They are always equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
  2. (b) They combine to make a stronger force
  3. (c) They cancel each other completely
  4. (d) They depend on which object is heavier
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They are always equal in magnitude and opposite in direction

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – They are always equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
Explanation:
Newton's Third Law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction — the two forces in an action-reaction pair are always equal in magnitude and act in opposite directions, on two different bodies, regardless of the masses of the objects involved.
Important Facts:
• Action and reaction forces act on different objects, so they never cancel each other on the same body.
• This law holds regardless of which object is heavier — heavier objects show smaller acceleration for the same force, per Newton's second law.
Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q34. Why does coal have a higher carbon content compared to the original plant material?

  1. (a) Minerals are added to plant remains in the soil
  2. (b) Gas from the atmosphere is absorbed by the plants
  3. (c) Sunlight increases the carbon in buried plants
  4. (d) Water and volatile substances are lost during coal formation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Water and volatile substances are lost during coal formation

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – Water and volatile substances are lost during coal formation
Explanation:
Coal forms over millions of years from buried plant material under heat and pressure (a process called coalification). During this process, water and volatile compounds (like methane and other gases) are progressively driven off, leaving behind a residue increasingly concentrated in carbon.
Important Facts:
• The coalification sequence (increasing carbon content) is: peat → lignite → bituminous coal → anthracite.
• Coal is a fossil fuel formed from decayed plant matter (largely from the Carboniferous period).
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electric generator and Fleming's right-hand rule

Q35. If the direction of the magnetic field is north to south and the conductor moves upward, using Fleming's Right Hand Rule, what is the direction of the induced current?

  1. (a) Towards East
  2. (b) Towards West
  3. (c) Towards the observer
  4. (d) Away from the observer
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Towards East

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Towards East
Explanation:
By Fleming's Right Hand Rule: thumb = direction of motion, forefinger = direction of magnetic field, middle finger = direction of induced current. Here, motion is upward and the field points from north to south. Applying the rule (equivalent to the physical relation, current direction ∝ velocity × field), the induced current direction works out to be towards the East.
Important Facts:
• Fleming's Right Hand Rule is used for generators/induced current (motional EMF); the Left Hand Rule is used for motors/force on a current-carrying conductor.
• The three directions (motion, field, current) are always mutually perpendicular.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q36. A student uses Fleming's Left Hand Rule to determine the direction of force on a conductor. If the forefinger points north, and the middle finger points east, in which direction will the force act?

  1. (a) Upwards
  2. (b) Westwards
  3. (c) Downwards
  4. (d) Southwards
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Upwards

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Upwards
Explanation:
By Fleming's Left Hand Rule: forefinger = direction of magnetic field, middle finger = direction of current, thumb = direction of force (motion) on the conductor. Here, the forefinger (field) points north and the middle finger (current) points east. Working out the mutually perpendicular directions, the thumb (force) points upward.
Important Facts:
• Fleming's Left Hand Rule applies to the motor effect — the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
• The three directions (field, current, force) are always mutually perpendicular to one another.

Biology (7)

Reproduction · Asexual reproduction (fission, budding, fragmentation, spores)

Q37. Amoeba, yeast, and hydra can reproduce even when only one parent organism is present. Which conclusion does this suggest about asexual reproduction?

  1. (a) It produces only multicellular organisms.
  2. (b) It requires seeds for reproduction.
  3. (c) Two parents are always necessary.
  4. (d) It occurs without fusion of gametes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It occurs without fusion of gametes.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – It occurs without fusion of gametes.
Explanation:
Amoeba (binary fission), yeast (budding), and hydra (budding) all reproduce asexually using a single parent, without formation or fusion of male and female gametes. This is the defining feature of asexual reproduction.
Important Facts:
• Asexual reproduction can occur in both unicellular and multicellular organisms (e.g., hydra is multicellular).
• Offspring produced asexually are genetically identical (clones) to the parent.
• Common modes include fission, budding, fragmentation, and spore formation.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Monera, Protista and Fungi

Q38. What characteristic is shared by both bacteria and cyanobacteria?

  1. (a) Both reproduce by forming seeds
  2. (b) Both are single-celled prokaryotes
  3. (c) Both possess well defined nucleus
  4. (d) Both live in the gut of ruminants
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Both are single-celled prokaryotes

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Both are single-celled prokaryotes
Explanation:
Bacteria and cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) are both prokaryotic, single-celled organisms lacking a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
Important Facts:
• Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic prokaryotes, sometimes called blue-green algae.
• Prokaryotic cells lack a well-defined (membrane-bound) nucleus, unlike eukaryotic cells.
• Neither bacteria nor cyanobacteria reproduce by seeds; that is a feature of some plants.
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q39. Which of the following is considered as a nonbiodegradable substance?

  1. (a) Banana leaves
  2. (b) Plastic bags
  3. (c) Cotton dresses
  4. (d) Wooden plates
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Plastic bags

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Plastic bags
Explanation:
Plastic is a synthetic polymer that is not broken down by natural biological processes (microorganisms), making it nonbiodegradable. Banana leaves, cotton, and wooden plates are all natural, organic materials that decompose through microbial action and are biodegradable.
Important Facts:
• Nonbiodegradable waste persists in the environment for a very long time, causing pollution.
• Cotton is a natural plant fibre and readily biodegradable.
• Reducing plastic use and promoting biodegradable alternatives is a common environmental measure.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Drug and alcohol abuse

Q40. Smoking increases the risk of which disease related to blood vessels?

  1. (a) Anaemia
  2. (b) Cardiovascular disease
  3. (c) Diabetes
  4. (d) Goitre
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cardiovascular disease

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 2 – Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:
Smoking damages blood vessels, raises blood pressure, promotes plaque buildup (atherosclerosis), and reduces oxygen supply to the heart, significantly increasing the risk of cardiovascular (heart and blood vessel) diseases such as heart attacks and strokes.
Important Facts:
• Nicotine and carbon monoxide in tobacco smoke are major contributors to vascular damage.
• Smoking is also a major risk factor for lung cancer and chronic respiratory diseases.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Excretory system - kidney and nephron

Q41. What determines how much water is re-absorbed during urine formation?

  1. (a) Excess water
  2. (b) Glucose
  3. (c) Protein
  4. (d) Oxygen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Excess water

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – Excess water
Explanation:
During urine formation, the amount of water reabsorbed back into the blood in the kidney tubules depends on how much excess water is present in the body and how much dissolved waste needs to be excreted — this regulates whether urine is more dilute or more concentrated.
Important Facts:
• This process occurs mainly in the nephron, especially in the loop of Henle and collecting duct.
• Hormones like ADH (antidiuretic hormone) help regulate water reabsorption based on body hydration status.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q42. In a desert plant, carbon dioxide is taken in at night and stored as an intermediate, which is later used during the day for carbohydrate synthesis. What advantage does this adaptation provide to the plant in its environment?

  1. (a) It eliminates the need for chlorophyll
  2. (b) It allows carbohydrate synthesis only at night
  3. (c) It increases the rate of photosynthesis during the day
  4. (d) It reduces water loss by stomatal opening to cooler night hours
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It reduces water loss by stomatal opening to cooler night hours

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 4 – It reduces water loss by stomatal opening to cooler night hours
Explanation:
This describes CAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism) photosynthesis, common in desert plants like cacti. Stomata open at night (when temperatures are cooler and humidity higher) to take in CO2 and store it as an organic acid; during the hot day, stomata stay closed (minimizing water loss through transpiration) while the stored CO2 is used for carbohydrate synthesis using light energy.
Important Facts:
• This adaptation conserves water in arid, hot environments where daytime stomatal opening would cause excessive water loss.
• Chlorophyll and light-dependent reactions are still required during the day; the adaptation does not eliminate the need for chlorophyll.
Cell - Structure and Function · Plant cell and animal cell

Q43. A botanist observes two cell types under a microscope. The first type has thick cell walls and large vacuoles, while the second type lacks cell walls and has small vacuoles. What can be inferred?

  1. (a) The first sample is plant tissue, and the second is animal tissue.
  2. (b) Both samples are plant tissues.
  3. (c) Both samples are animal tissues.
  4. (d) The first sample is animal tissue, and the second is plant tissue.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The first sample is plant tissue, and the second is animal tissue.

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 1 – The first sample is plant tissue, and the second is animal tissue.
Explanation:
Plant cells have a rigid cell wall (made of cellulose) and typically a large central vacuole, matching the first description. Animal cells lack a cell wall and have small or no prominent vacuoles, matching the second description.
Important Facts:
• Cell wall is a defining structural feature distinguishing plant cells from animal cells.
• The large central vacuole in plant cells helps maintain turgor pressure and stores water/nutrients.

Geography (1)

Atmosphere and Climate · Planetary, seasonal and local winds

Q44. A climate scientist puts sensors on the valley floor and on the slopes. During the day, the sensors on the slopes show higher temperatures and more wind blowing up from the valley. Which phenomenon does this indicate?

  1. (a) Land breeze from nearby plains
  2. (b) Nighttime mountain breeze after cooling
  3. (c) Daytime valley breeze due to slope heating
  4. (d) Sea breeze from distant water bodies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Daytime valley breeze due to slope heating

Correct Answer:
Correct Answer: Option 3 – Daytime valley breeze due to slope heating
Explanation:
During the day, mountain slopes heat up faster than the valley floor, warming the air near the slopes. This warm air rises along the slope, drawing air upward from the valley — this upslope wind is called a valley breeze (anabatic wind), and it occurs during the day, matching the scenario described.
Important Facts:
• At night, the reverse happens: slopes cool faster, and cold, dense air flows down into the valley — this is called a mountain breeze (katabatic wind).
• Land and sea breezes are a different phenomenon related to coastal areas, not mountain-valley systems.
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