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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 6 March 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 6 March 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Polity, Geography, Modern History, Static GK, Economics.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 6 March 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (4) · Polity (1) · Geography (1) · Modern History (2) · Static GK (1) · Economics (1) · Chemistry (13) · Physics (12) · Biology (13)

Current Affairs (4)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q1. In June 2025, Indian author Banu Mushtaq, in her acclaimed book Heart Lamp, explores which central theme through her vivid portrayal of everyday characters?

  1. (a) Environmental activism
  2. (b) Caste and religious oppression
  3. (c) Political leadership
  4. (d) Economic reforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Caste and religious oppression

Option 2 is correct.
Banu Mushtaq's book Heart Lamp prominently explores the theme of caste and religious oppression.
This theme is central to the narrative and the portrayal of her characters.
Other options like environmental activism, political leadership, or economic reforms are not the focus of this book.
Hence, the right answer is caste and religious oppression.
This closes the answer.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q2. The Government has proposed to include which Union Territory under the ambit of Article 240 of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Chandigarh
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Lakshadweep
  4. (d) Puduchery
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chandigarh

Article 240 of the Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories by the President.
Lakshadweep is a Union Territory that falls under the ambit of Article 240.
Chandigarh and Puducherry have different administrative provisions.
New Delhi is not a Union Territory but the National Capital Territory.
Hence, the correct answer is Lakshadweep.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q3. The recent $131 million deal for cutting-edge surveillance technology from HawkEye 360 involves which two countries ?

  1. (a) India and Japan
  2. (b) India and Russia
  3. (c) India and Ukraine
  4. (d) India and United States
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) India and United States

The $131 million deal for cutting-edge surveillance technology from HawkEye 360 is between India and the United States.
HawkEye 360 is a U.S.-based company providing radio frequency data and analytics.
Such a deal underlines the defence and strategic partnership between the two countries.
Therefore, the correct answer is India and United States.
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q4. Which of the following bodies approved the appointment of S Krishnan as Chairman of J&K Bank?

  1. (a) NITI Aayog
  2. (b) Ministry of Finance
  3. (c) Reserve Bank of India
  4. (d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India(IRDAI)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reserve Bank of India

The appointment of the Chairman of J&K Bank is approved by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
This is because J&K Bank is under the regulatory purview of RBI regarding key appointments.
Hence, RBI's approval is mandatory for such appointments.
Final answer: Option 3

Polity (1)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · National Commissions for SC, ST and BC

Q5. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) to safeguard the rights of the Scheduled Castes?

  1. (a) Article 340
  2. (b) Article 350
  3. (c) Article 338
  4. (d) Article 330
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 338

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is established under Article 338 of the Constitution of India.
Article 338 provides the commission the authority to safeguard the rights and interests of Scheduled Castes.
Therefore, the correct article is Article 338 which deals explicitly with NCSC.
Options 1, 2, and 4 relate to other provisions and do not establish the NCSC.
Hence, the answer is Option 3.

Geography (1)

India - Drainage System · West-flowing rivers

Q6. Which distinctive drainage characteristic best describes the river Luni of north-western India?

  1. (a) It terminates in an inland salt marsh in the Rann region without reaching the sea.
  2. (b) It forms a large, well-developed delta at its mouth.
  3. (c) It flows directly into the Arabian Sea.
  4. (d) It is the only glacier-fed perennial Himalayan river.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It terminates in an inland salt marsh in the Rann region without reaching the sea.

The river Luni is a prominent river of north-western India.
It is known for its unique drainage characteristic of terminating in an inland salt marsh.
Specifically, it ends in the marshy Rann of Kutch region, not flowing into any sea or ocean.
This inland drainage basin leads to high salinity, making Luni a salt river.
Thus, it does not form a delta or flow into the Arabian Sea.
Luni is also not glacier-fed and not perennial like Himalayan rivers.
Therefore, the best description is that Luni terminates in an inland salt marsh in the Rann region without reaching the sea.
Final answer: Option 1

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q7. Which of the following British Indian government legislations provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta, comprising one chief justice and three other judges?

  1. (a) Charter Act of 1793
  2. (b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
  3. (c) Regulating Act of 1773
  4. (d) Amending Act of 1781
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Regulating Act of 1773

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step by the British government to regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta.
This Supreme Court was to consist of one chief justice and three other judges.
None of the other Acts listed established the Supreme Court at Calcutta.
Final answer: Option 3
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Foundation of the INC (1885)

Q8. Who was chosen as the first president of the Indian National Congress (INC) during its first session?

  1. (a) Surendranath Banerjee
  2. (b) Bipin Chandra Pal
  3. (c) Pherozeshah Mehta
  4. (d) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

The first president of the Indian National Congress during its inaugural session in 1885 was Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.
He was a respected barrister and played a key role in the early years of the Congress.
Therefore, option 4 is correct.
This is a commonly asked fact in Indian history sections of competitive exams.
Final answer: Option 4

Static GK (1)

Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q9. Which of the following dancers is acclaimed for their mastery and teaching of Odissi?

  1. (a) Kelucharan Mohapatra
  2. (b) Vempati Chinna Satyam
  3. (c) Sitara Devi
  4. (d) Kalamandalam Leelamma
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kelucharan Mohapatra

Option 1 is correct: Kelucharan Mohapatra is widely recognised as a master and teacher of Odissi dance.
He played a key role in reviving and popularising Odissi, one of the classical dance forms of India.
Vempati Chinna Satyam specialised in Kuchipudi dance, not Odissi.
Sitara Devi was famous for Kathak dance, not Odissi.
Kalamandalam Leelamma is known for Mohiniyattam, a different classical dance form.
Hence, Kelucharan Mohapatra is the correct answer as an Odissi maestro and teacher.
Final answer: Option 1

Economics (1)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Budget-announced schemes and missions

Q10. Which of the following initiatives was introduced in India during Union budget 2020-21 to support farmers by enabling efficient air transportation of agricultural produce across domestic and international routes?

  1. (a) Rural Export Enhancement Initiative
  2. (b) Krishi Air Connect Programme
  3. (c) Krishi Udan Scheme
  4. (d) National Farm Logistics Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Krishi Udan Scheme

Option 3 is correct: Krishi Udan Scheme was launched in the Union Budget 2020-21.
It aims to help farmers transport agricultural produce quickly and efficiently by air, covering domestic and international routes.
This scheme reduces transportation time and wastage for perishable crops.
Other options are either incorrect or not related to the 2020-21 budget initiatives for farmers.
Thus, Krishi Udan Scheme is the initiative introduced to support farmers through air transport of agricultural goods.
Option 3 is the right answer.

Chemistry (13)

Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q11. A clean strip of calcium metal is added to cold water and the reaction is observed. Compared to sodium and magnesium, which of the following statements correctly describes calcium’s reactivity and the nature of products formed?

  1. (a) Calcium reacts explosively like sodium, forming calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
  2. (b) Calcium reacts slowly with cold water, producing calcium oxide and oxygen gas.
  3. (c) Calcium reacts less vigorously than sodium but more than magnesium, forming calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
  4. (d) Calcium does not react with cold water but only with steam, forming calcium oxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Calcium reacts less vigorously than sodium but more than magnesium, forming calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Calcium reacts with cold water, but less vigorously than sodium and more than magnesium.
The reaction produces calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) and hydrogen gas (H2).
Sodium reacts explosively with cold water forming sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water.
Thus, calcium's reactivity is moderate between sodium and magnesium, with the formation of calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
This matches option 3 correctly.
Final answer: Option 3
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q12. Dhritiman tries to extract magnesium from magnesium oxide using carbon. The attempt fails. What is the reason?

  1. (a) Magnesium forms a volatile compound with carbon.
  2. (b) Carbon is less reactive than magnesium.
  3. (c) Carbon reacts violently with oxygen.
  4. (d) The reaction produces carbon monoxide only.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Carbon is less reactive than magnesium.

Magnesium is more reactive than carbon.
Therefore, carbon cannot reduce magnesium oxide to magnesium metal.
Because carbon is less reactive, it cannot displace magnesium from its oxide.
Hence, the attempt to extract magnesium using carbon fails.
Final answer: Option 2
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q13. If 9 g of water contains 1 g of hydrogen and 8 g of oxygen, then 36 g of water will contain:

  1. (a) 4 g of hydrogen and 24 g of oxygen
  2. (b) 3 g of hydrogen and 24 g of oxygen
  3. (c) 3 g of hydrogen and 32 g of oxygen
  4. (d) 4 g of hydrogen and 32 g of oxygen
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 4 g of hydrogen and 32 g of oxygen

Water (H2O) consists of hydrogen and oxygen.
9 g of water contains 1 g hydrogen and 8 g oxygen.
To find hydrogen and oxygen in 36 g of water, multiply quantities by 4 (since 36/9 = 4).
Hydrogen = 1 g × 4 = 4 g.
Oxygen = 8 g × 4 = 32 g.
But the total is 4 + 32 = 36 g which fits water composition perfectly.
Wait, the option with 4 g hydrogen and 24 g oxygen matches? Recalculate oxygen carefully:
Oxygen in 9 g water = 8 g.
So, oxygen in 36 g water = 8 g × 4 = 32 g.
Thus, 36 g water contains 4 g hydrogen and 32 g oxygen.
Correct option is 4, but given options, 4 g hydrogen and 24 g oxygen is option 1, and 4 g hydrogen and 32 g oxygen is option 4.
Final answer: Option 4
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q14. If both solute and solvent masses are doubled, the concentration (mass %) of the solution will:

  1. (a) Increase by 25%
  2. (b) Become half
  3. (c) Remain the same
  4. (d) Double
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Remain the same

Concentration (mass %) is calculated as (mass of solute / total mass of solution) × 100.
If both solute and solvent masses are doubled, the ratio of solute to total solution remains the same.
Hence, the concentration by mass percent remains unchanged.
Therefore, the concentration will remain the same.
Final answer: Option 3
Carbon and its Compounds · Homologous series

Q15. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Members of a homologous series differ by a –CH₂– group.
Statement 2: Each successive member of a homologous series differs from the previous one by 12 u in molecular mass.

  1. (a) Both statements are false.
  2. (b) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
  3. (c) Both statements are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
  4. (d) Both statements are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

Statement 1 is true: In a homologous series, each member differs from the next by a CH2 group.
Statement 2 is also true: The molecular mass difference between successive members is 14 u (not 12 u), because a CH2 group equals 14 u (12 u for carbon + 2 u for hydrogen).
Hence, Statement 2 is not correct in the value given (12 u) and cannot explain Statement 1 properly.
Therefore, both statements are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
Final answer: Option 2
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q16. Select the correct option regarding the given statements.
Statement 1: Suspensions scatter light.
Statement 2: When particles settle down, they no longer scatter light.

  1. (a) Both statements are true, and Statement 2 explains Statement 1.
  2. (b) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  3. (c) Both statements are true, but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1.
  4. (d) Both statements are false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both statements are true, but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1.

Both statements are correct: suspensions scatter light due to the presence of suspended particles.
When these particles settle down, the medium becomes clearer and no longer scatters light.
Thus, Statement 2 correctly explains why after settling, light no longer scatters.
Therefore, the correct choice is that both statements are true and Statement 2 explains Statement 1.
Final answer: Option 1
Periodic Classification of Elements · Element facts (names, symbols, atomic numbers)

Q17. The symbol ‘B’ represents which element?

  1. (a) Beryllium
  2. (b) Boron
  3. (c) Bromine
  4. (d) Barium
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Boron

The symbol 'B' is the chemical symbol for Boron.
Other options have different symbols:
Beryllium − Be
Bromine − Br
Barium − Ba
Therefore, 'B' represents Boron.
Final answer: Option 2
Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q18. When potassium reacts with water, we observe:

  1. (a) No visible change
  2. (b) Gentle bubbling and slow reaction
  3. (c) Formation of a greenish compound
  4. (d) Bright flame and rapid reaction
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bright flame and rapid reaction

Potassium is a highly reactive alkali metal.
When potassium reacts with water, it reacts vigorously.
This reaction produces potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
The hydrogen gas ignites due to the heat, causing a bright flame.
Hence, we observe a bright flame and a rapid reaction when potassium reacts with water.
Final answer: Option 4
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q19. Which calculation correctly determines the formula unit mass of CaCl₂?

  1. (a) Atomic mass of Ca + (2 × atomic mass of Cl) = 40 + 71 = 111 u
  2. (b) Atomic mass of Ca + (atomic mass of Cl ÷ 2) = 40 + 17.75 = 57.75 u
  3. (c) Atomic mass of Ca + atomic mass of Cl = 40 + 35.5 = 75.5 u
  4. (d) Atomic mass of Ca × atomic mass of Cl = 40 × 35.5 = 1420 u
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Atomic mass of Ca + (2 × atomic mass of Cl) = 40 + 71 = 111 u

The formula unit mass of CaCl₂ is calculated by adding the atomic mass of one calcium atom to the atomic mass of two chlorine atoms.
Atomic mass of Ca is 40 u.
Atomic mass of Cl is 35.5 u; for two Cl atoms it is 2 × 35.5 = 71 u.
Sum = 40 + 71 = 111 u.
Therefore, option 1 is the correct calculation for formula unit mass of CaCl₂.
Final answer: Option 1
Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q20. Which of the following correctly explains why toothpaste is basic in nature?

  1. (a) To lower the pH of saliva and prevent cavities
  2. (b) To provide an acidic medium for enzyme action in saliva
  3. (c) To react with water and release hydrogen ions
  4. (d) To neutralise the acid formed in the mouth after eating food
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To neutralise the acid formed in the mouth after eating food

Option 4 is correct.
Toothpaste is basic because it neutralises the acid formed in the mouth after eating food.
The acid in the mouth can cause tooth decay, so neutralising it helps protect teeth.
This basic nature helps maintain oral hygiene and prevent cavities.
Hence, toothpaste contains ingredients that raise pH to counteract acids.
Final answer: Option 4
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q21. Which of the following is an example of a double displacement reaction?

  1. (a) 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
  2. (b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
  3. (c) Na2O + H2O→ 2 NaOH
  4. (d) AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃

Option 4 is correct.
A double displacement reaction involves the exchange of ions between two compounds to form new compounds.
In option 4, AgNO₃ (silver nitrate) and NaCl (sodium chloride) exchange their ions to form AgCl (silver chloride) and NaNO₃ (sodium nitrate).
This is a classic example of a double displacement reaction.
Options 1 and 2 are synthesis reactions (combination).
Option 3 is a combination reaction forming a base, not a double displacement.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.
Answer complete.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q22. Which of the following is an example of a double displacement reaction?

  1. (a) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
  2. (b) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
  3. (c) Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
  4. (d) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl

Option 1 shows a double displacement reaction.
In this reaction, Na₂SO₄ and BaCl₂ exchange their ions to form BaSO₄ and NaCl.
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl is the correct example.
Option 2 is decomposition, Option 3 is a single displacement reaction, and Option 4 is a combination reaction.
Hence, the answer is Option 1.
Structure of Atom · Thomson's model

Q23. Which of the following statements about Thomson’s model of an atom is/are correct?
Statement 1. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere with electrons embedded in it.
Statement 2. The mass of the atom is due to neutrons located in the nucleus.
Statement 3. The model is often compared to a watermelon with seeds representing electrons.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1, 2, and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3

Option 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is true: Thomson's model describes the atom as a positively charged sphere with electrons embedded in it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Thomson's model does not mention neutrons; neutrons were discovered later, and the mass attribution to neutrons is from the nuclear model, not Thomson's.
Statement 3 is true: Thomson's model is often likened to a watermelon, where seeds (electrons) are embedded in the fruit (positive charge).
Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Final answer: Option 3

Physics (12)

Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Numericals on mirrors

Q24. A convex mirror used as a rear-view mirror in a car has a radius of curvature of 4.00 m. A bus is located 6.00 m in front of the mirror. What will be the position and nature of the image formed?

  1. (a) Image is formed at 1.2 m behind the mirror
  2. (b) Image is formed at 1.5 m behind the mirror
  3. (c) Image is formed at 3.0 m in front of the mirror
  4. (d) The image is formed at 3.0 m behind the mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Image is formed at 1.5 m behind the mirror

For a convex mirror, radius of curvature (R) = +4.00 m (positive as convex mirrors have positive focal length).
Focal length (f)=(R)/(2)=(4.00)/(2) = +2.00 m.
Object distance (u) = -6.00 m (object in front of mirror is negative in mirror formula sign convention).
Mirror formula:(1)/(f)=(1)/(v)+(1)/(u)
Substituting:(1)/(2)=(1)/(v)+(1)/(-6)
1/2 = 1/v - 1/6
(1)/(v)=(1)/(2)+(1)/(6)=(3 + 1)/(6)=(4)/(6)=(2)/(3)
v =(3)/(2) = +1.5 m
Image distance is positive, means image is virtual and formed behind the mirror.
Hence, image is formed at 1.5 m behind the mirror and is virtual, erect, and diminished.
Final answer: Option 2
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q25. For an object moving with uniform velocity, the height of its velocity-time graph remains constant with time. This results in a graph that is a _________.

  1. (a) Straight line parallel to the x-axis
  2. (b) Curve
  3. (c) Vertical line
  4. (d) Straight line passing through the origin
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Straight line parallel to the x-axis

For an object moving with uniform velocity, velocity does not change with time.
Therefore, velocity-time graph is a straight horizontal line.
A straight line parallel to the x-axis shows constant velocity over time.
So, the velocity-time graph is a straight line parallel to the x-axis.
Final answer: Option 1
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Lens formula and magnification

Q26. If a lens forms a real and inverted image, the height of the image h' is generally taken as _____________.

  1. (a) Positive, as it is above the axis
  2. (b) Negative, as it is below the axis
  3. (c) Negative, only if the object is virtual
  4. (d) Positive, but less than the object height
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Negative, as it is below the axis

For a real and inverted image formed by a lens, the image is below the principal axis.
Thus, the height of the image, h', is considered negative due to the inverted position.
Therefore, the convention is: real inverted image height = negative value.
Final answer: Option 2
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q27. The resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than its constituent metals, and this property makes alloys suitable for ___________.

  1. (a) Connecting wires (e.g., copper transmission lines)
  2. (b) Heating elements (e.g., nichrome)
  3. (c) Circuit fuses (e.g., lead/tin alloy)
  4. (d) Filaments of electric bulbs (e.g., tungsten)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Heating elements (e.g., nichrome)

The resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent pure metals.
Higher resistivity means the alloy resists electric current more than pure metals.
This property makes alloys ideal for use in heating elements, where controlled resistance is needed to generate heat.
Nichrome, an alloy, is commonly used for heating elements due to its high resistivity and durability.
Therefore, alloys are suitable for heating elements rather than connecting wires or filaments, which require low resistivity.
Hence, the correct option is heating elements (e.g., nichrome).
Final answer: Option 2
Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q28. What is the primary reason curved ceilings are used in concert halls?

  1. (a) To absorb sound
  2. (b) To block noise
  3. (c) To decorate the hall
  4. (d) To reflect sound evenly
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To reflect sound evenly

Correct option: 4
Curved ceilings in concert halls are designed to reflect sound evenly throughout the hall.
This helps in distributing sound waves uniformly so every audience member hears clear and balanced sound.
The curvature prevents sound from focusing on one spot and reduces echoes and dead spots.
Hence, the main purpose is sound reflection, not absorption or noise blocking.
Decoration is secondary, not the primary reason.
Closing the answer.
Work, Energy and Power · Work and its sign

Q29. What is the work done on an object if its displacement is zero, even when a force is applied?

  1. (a) Zero
  2. (b) Positive
  3. (c) Negative
  4. (d) Infinite
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Zero

Work done is calculated by the formula: Work = Force × Displacement × cos(θ).
If displacement is zero, regardless of the force applied, work done = Force × 0 × cos(θ) = 0.
Hence, no work is done on the object if it does not move.
Correct Option: 1
Final answer: Option 1
Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q30. What will be the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 m/s in a given medium?

  1. (a) 2 m
  2. (b) 440 m
  3. (c) 220 m
  4. (d) 0.5 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2 m

The wavelength (λ) of a wave is calculated using the formula: λ = v / f
Here, v = 440 m/s (speed of sound), f = 220 Hz (frequency)
So, λ = 440 / 220 = 2 metres
Therefore, the wavelength of the sound wave is 2 metres.
Final answer: Option 1
Motion · Equations of motion

Q31. When applying the equations of motion to an object moving under gravitational force and thrown vertically upwards, the acceleration (a) should be taken as ______.

  1. (a) Positive, as it is in the direction of velocity.
  2. (b) Negative, as it opposes the initial motion.
  3. (c) Positive, as gravity is constant.
  4. (d) Independent of the direction of motion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Negative, as it opposes the initial motion.

The acceleration due to gravity always acts downwards, towards the Earth’s centre.
When an object is thrown vertically upwards, its initial velocity is upwards, but acceleration due to gravity acts in the opposite direction, downwards.
Hence, acceleration is negative with respect to the upward direction of velocity.
Therefore, acceleration (a) should be taken as negative since it opposes the initial motion upwards.
Final answer: Option 2
Motion · Acceleration and retardation

Q32. Which of the following situations shows zero acceleration?

  1. (a) An aeroplane taking off
  2. (b) A car moving with constant speed on a straight road
  3. (c) A train speeding up
  4. (d) A ball thrown upward
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A car moving with constant speed on a straight road

Option 2 is correct: A car moving with constant speed on a straight road shows zero acceleration.
Acceleration means change in velocity.
If the speed and direction are constant, acceleration is zero.
An aeroplane taking off, a train speeding up, and a ball thrown upward all experience a change in velocity, hence non-zero acceleration.
Therefore, only the car moving at constant speed in a straight line has zero acceleration.
Final answer: Option 2
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic field due to current (Oersted, right-hand thumb rule)

Q33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the magnetic field line pattern around a straight current carrying wire?
(i) The magnetic field lines around a current carrying wire are in the form of concentric circles.
(ii) The magnetic field lines around a current carrying wire intersect at various points.
(iii) The magnetic field lines move farther apart as one moves away from the wire.

  1. (a) Both (ii) and (iii)
  2. (b) Only (ii)
  3. (c) Only (i)
  4. (d) Both (i) and (iii)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both (i) and (iii)

Magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying wire form concentric circles around the wire (True for statement i).
Magnetic field lines never intersect because that would mean two different directions of the magnetic field at a single point (False for statement ii).
As you move away from the wire, the magnetic field strength decreases, so the field lines move farther apart (True for statement iii).
Thus, statements (i) and (iii) are true and (ii) is false.
Final answer: Option 4
Pressure, Fluids and Properties of Matter · Buoyancy and Archimedes' principle

Q34. Which quantity decreases when a solid object is immersed in water?

  1. (a) Apparent weight
  2. (b) Mass
  3. (c) Density
  4. (d) Buoyant force
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Apparent weight

When a solid object is immersed in water, it experiences an upward buoyant force.
This force reduces the object's apparent weight when measured in water compared to in air.
Mass remains unchanged, as it is intrinsic to the object.
Density does not change just by immersion.
Buoyant force acts upwards, it does not decrease but causes the apparent weight to decrease.
Hence, the quantity that decreases is the apparent weight.
Final answer: Option 1
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q35. Which statement correctly describes the universal law of gravitation?

  1. (a) The gravitational force increases with the product of the masses and decreases with the square of the distance between them.
  2. (b) The gravitational force decreases when the masses of the objects increase.
  3. (c) The gravitational force increases as the distance between objects increases.
  4. (d) The gravitational force depends only on the distance between the objects, not their masses.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The gravitational force increases with the product of the masses and decreases with the square of the distance between them.

Option 1 is correct.
According to the universal law of gravitation, the force between two masses is directly proportional to the product of their masses.
The force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Hence, gravitational force increases with the product of the masses and decreases with the square of the distance.
Other options contradict these direct proportionality and inverse proportionality relationships.
Therefore, Option 1 correctly describes the universal law of gravitation.
Final answer: Option 1

Biology (13)

Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q36. Choose a term to pair the analogy.
Nucleus : Eukaryotic Cell :: Nucleoid : _______

  1. (a) Animal Cell
  2. (b) Prokaryotic Cell
  3. (c) Plant Cell
  4. (d) Multicellular Organism
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prokaryotic Cell

The nucleus is the central organelle present in a eukaryotic cell.
The nucleoid is the central region of a prokaryotic cell where DNA is found.
Hence, the correct analogy is: Nucleus : Eukaryotic Cell as Nucleoid : Prokaryotic Cell.
Final answer: Option 2
Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q37. Even though people eat different types of food, they may still absorb harmful chemical residues. This is because ____________.

  1. (a) All plants produce natural pesticides
  2. (b) Food grains absorb only useful chemicals from soil
  3. (c) Pesticides are completely destroyed during cooking
  4. (d) Chemicals persist and accumulate via biomagnification
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chemicals persist and accumulate via biomagnification

Correct option: 4
People absorb harmful chemical residues because chemicals can persist in the environment.
These harmful chemicals accumulate along the food chain due to biomagnification.
Biomagnification leads to higher concentrations of toxic substances in organisms higher up the food chain, including humans.
Thus, even varied diets can contain harmful residues due to this accumulation process.
This explains why option 4 is correct.
Answer complete.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Mineral nutrition in plants

Q38. Plants get macro-nutrients mainly from the ________, and micro-nutrients in small quantities from the ________.

  1. (a) sunlight ; minerals
  2. (b) air ; water
  3. (c) soil ; soil
  4. (d) water ; sand
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) soil ; soil

Plants absorb macro-nutrients mainly from the soil, which provides nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium and other essential elements required in large amounts.
Micro-nutrients are also taken up from the soil but in much smaller quantities, these include elements like iron, manganese, zinc, etc.
Hence, both macro- and micro-nutrients come from the soil in different quantities.
Final answer: Option 3
Reproduction · Asexual reproduction (fission, budding, fragmentation, spores)

Q39. The process wherein the body of the living organism splits into two exactly identical halves is termed as ___________.

  1. (a) budding
  2. (b) fragmentation
  3. (c) binary fission
  4. (d) multiple fission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) binary fission

The process where a living organism's body divides into two identical halves is called binary fission.
In binary fission, one cell splits into two equal parts, each becoming a new organism.
Other options like budding, fragmentation, and multiple fission differ in the way the organism divides or in the number of new organisms produced.
Hence, binary fission is the correct term for exact division into two halves.
Final answer: Option 3
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Excretory system - kidney and nephron

Q40. The urine formed in the kidneys passes through the ______ into the _____ where it is stored until excreted.

  1. (a) urinary bladder; urethra
  2. (b) ureters; urinary bladder
  3. (c) nephrons; urethra
  4. (d) urethra; ureters
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ureters; urinary bladder

The urine is formed in the kidneys.
It passes through the ureters into the urinary bladder.
The urinary bladder stores the urine until it is excreted.
Hence, the correct sequence is: kidneys → ureters → urinary bladder → urethra.
Option 2 states ureters and urinary bladder, which is correct.
Final answer: Option 2
Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q41. What is the primary function of the cell wall in plant cells?

  1. (a) Control cellular respiration
  2. (b) Control cell division
  3. (c) Provide rigidity and protection
  4. (d) Transport nutrients
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Provide rigidity and protection

The primary function of the cell wall in plant cells is to provide rigidity and protection.
It supports the plant cell by maintaining its shape and preventing excessive water intake.
Other options like controlling cellular respiration, cell division or nutrient transport are not functions of the cell wall.
Hence, the correct option is 3.
Final answer: Option 3
Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q42. Which connective tissue forms the framework of the external ear, tip of the nose, and the ends of long bones?

  1. (a) Bone
  2. (b) Adipose tissue
  3. (c) Areolar tissue
  4. (d) Cartilage
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cartilage

The connective tissue forming the framework of the external ear, tip of the nose, and the ends of long bones is cartilage.
Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue that supports these structures without being as hard as bone.
Bone is rigid and not flexible, adipose tissue stores fat, and areolar tissue is a loose connective tissue that holds organs in place.
Hence, the correct answer is cartilage.
Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q43. Which of the following best describes the primary function of connective tissue?

  1. (a) Absorbing digested nutrients across epithelial surfaces.
  2. (b) Conducting electrical impulses for rapid communication.
  3. (c) Producing force through contraction and relaxation.
  4. (d) Supporting and providing structural framework to body parts.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Supporting and providing structural framework to body parts.

Correct option is 4.
Connective tissue primarily supports and provides a structural framework to various parts of the body.
It connects different tissues and organs, giving strength and elasticity where needed.
Other options describe functions of epithelium (option 1), nervous tissue (option 2), and muscle tissue (option 3).
Hence, supporting structure is the main function of connective tissue.
Final answer: Option 4
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q44. Which of the following correctly explains the adaptation of desert plants in photosynthesis?

  1. (a) Carbon dioxide uptake occurs at night and carbohydrates are synthesized during the day.
  2. (b) Oxygen is absorbed at night while carbon dioxide is released during the day.
  3. (c) Photosynthesis is restricted to night-time only to minimise water loss.
  4. (d) Light energy is captured at night and converted into starch for daytime use.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Carbon dioxide uptake occurs at night and carbohydrates are synthesized during the day.

Option 1 is correct.
Desert plants typically use CAM photosynthesis to conserve water.
They absorb carbon dioxide at night when evaporation rates are low.
During the day, they close stomata to reduce water loss.
Carbohydrates are synthesised using the stored CO2 in daylight.
This adaptation helps survival in dry, hot desert climates.
Hence, carbon dioxide uptake at night and carbohydrate synthesis during the day explains desert plant photosynthesis adaptation.
Final answer: Option 1
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q45. Which of the following factor helps in increasing crop yield?

  1. (a) Using poor seeds without irrigation
  2. (b) Using quality seeds, irrigation, fertilisers, crop protection
  3. (c) Using only rainwater for irrigation
  4. (d) Ignoring crop protection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Using quality seeds, irrigation, fertilisers, crop protection

Option 2 is correct because quality seeds, proper irrigation, fertilisers, and crop protection are all essential factors that contribute to increasing crop yield.
Using poor seeds or ignoring irrigation and crop protection will lower yield.
Using only rainwater is unreliable and insufficient in many areas.
Therefore, the combined use of quality seeds, irrigation, fertilisers, and crop protection results in higher crop productivity.
Final answer: Option 2
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q46. Which of the following is a complex permanent tissue responsible for the transport of water in plants?

  1. (a) Parenchyma
  2. (b) Collenchyma
  3. (c) Xylem
  4. (d) Phloem
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Xylem

Option 3 is correct: Xylem is a complex permanent tissue in plants.
It is responsible for the transport of water and minerals from roots to other parts of the plant.
Parenchyma and Collenchyma are simple permanent tissues involved in storage and support, respectively.
Phloem transports food materials, mainly sugars, not water.
Hence, the tissue responsible for water transport is Xylem.
Final answer: Option 3
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q47. Which type of epithelial tissue is primarily specialized for absorption in the human intestine?

  1. (a) Simple squamous epithelium
  2. (b) Stratified squamous epithelium
  3. (c) Simple cuboidal epithelium
  4. (d) Simple columnar epithelium
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Simple columnar epithelium

Simple columnar epithelium consists of a single layer of tall, column-shaped cells.
This type of epithelium lines the human intestine and is specialised for absorption.
Its tall cells increase the surface area for nutrient absorption.
Other types like simple squamous are for diffusion, stratified squamous for protection, and simple cuboidal mainly for secretion or absorption in ducts and glands.
Therefore, the primary absorptive epithelial tissue in the human intestine is simple columnar epithelium.
Final answer: Option 4
Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q48. Why is biological magnification a health risk even with limited pesticide use?

  1. (a) Non-biodegradable pesticides are immediately excreted and do not persist
  2. (b) The toxicity of pesticides decreases as they move up the food chain
  3. (c) Non-biodegradable pesticides accumulate at successive trophic levels
  4. (d) Pesticides affect only soil microorganisms, not higher organisms
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Non-biodegradable pesticides accumulate at successive trophic levels

Correct option: 3
Biological magnification occurs when non-biodegradable pesticides accumulate at successive trophic levels.
These pesticides do not break down easily and concentrate in organisms higher up the food chain.
Even limited use can lead to harmful levels in predators including humans.
This accumulation increases health risks as toxicity builds up in organisms.
Hence, non-biodegradable pesticides accumulating stepwise cause health hazards.
Final answer: Option 3
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