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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 6 March 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 6 March 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Geography, Modern History, Static GK, Economics, Polity.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 6 March 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (4) · Geography (1) · Modern History (2) · Static GK (1) · Economics (1) · Polity (1) · Chemistry (12) · Physics (14) · Biology (13)

Current Affairs (4)

Economy, Banking and Business · GDP and growth forecasts

Q1. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has raised India’s GDP growth forecast for FY26 to ̲.

  1. (a) 6.7%
  2. (b) 6.8%
  3. (c) 7.3%
  4. (d) 6.9%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 7.3%

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised its GDP growth forecast for the financial year 2025-26.
According to recent reports, RBI expects the GDP growth to be 7.3%.
This revised forecast reflects optimism about economic growth based on various factors like production, consumption, and government policy.
Hence, the correct answer is 7.3%.
Final answer: Option 3
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q2. Vice‑President CP Radhakrishnan inaugurated the 30ᵗʰ CII Partnership Summit in which city?

  1. (a) Ahmedabad
  2. (b) Patna
  3. (c) Visakhapatnam
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Visakhapatnam

The 30th CII Partnership Summit was inaugurated by Vice-President CP Radhakrishnan in New Delhi.
New Delhi is the capital of India and a common venue for major government and industry events such as the CII Partnership Summit.
Therefore, the correct city where the summit was held is New Delhi.
Final answer: Option 4
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q3. What is the primary objective of the ‘Aapki Punji Aapka Adhikar’ campaign, launched in 2025?

  1. (a) Expanding micro-credit access for small businesses and self-help groups across rural districts
  2. (b) Digitizing all personal banking accounts under the Jan Dhan and UPI framework for transparency
  3. (c) Facilitating speedy settlement and rightful return of unclaimed financial assets to legitimate claimants
  4. (d) Encouraging citizens to invest in long-term pension and insurance instruments for wealth creation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Facilitating speedy settlement and rightful return of unclaimed financial assets to legitimate claimants

The campaign ‘Aapki Punji Aapka Adhikar’ was launched in 2025 with the main aim to address unclaimed financial assets.
It focuses on facilitating the speedy settlement and rightful return of these unclaimed assets to their legitimate claimants.
This helps in improving the financial inclusiveness and trust in the financial system.
Therefore, the primary objective is the quick and rightful return of unclaimed financial assets to their owners.
Final answer: Option 3
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q4. Which country has requested WTO dispute consultations with India regarding certain Indian measures in the automotive and renewable energy sectors?

  1. (a) Brazil
  2. (b) America
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) England
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) China

Correct option: 3
China has requested WTO dispute consultations with India.
The dispute concerns Indian measures affecting automotive and renewable energy sectors.
This is a recently reported trade dispute in international economic relations.
Hence, the answer is China.
This closes the answer.

Geography (1)

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q5. The Chota Nagpur Plateau of eastern India is especially known for the abundance of which of the following mineral resources that support the country’s industry?

  1. (a) Limestone used primarily for cement manufacture
  2. (b) Petroleum and natural gas reserves
  3. (c) Coal and iron ore deposits
  4. (d) Diamond-bearing kimberlite rocks
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Coal and iron ore deposits

The Chota Nagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
It is especially known for its extensive coal and iron ore deposits.
These minerals significantly support India's mining and industrial sectors.
Therefore, the correct answer is coal and iron ore deposits.

Modern History (2)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Slogans and their authors

Q6. Which among the following slogans was popularised by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?

  1. (a) Give me blood and I will give you freedom
  2. (b) Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it
  3. (c) Freedom is our goal and we shall achieve it
  4. (d) Liberty is our dream and we must attain it
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it

Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement.
He popularised the slogan: 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it'.
This slogan became a rallying cry for freedom and self-rule (Swaraj).
The other options were used by different leaders or are general slogans.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Answer complete.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q7. Which of the following British Indian government legislation separated for the first time 'provincial budgets' from the 'central budget' and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets?

  1. (a) Indian Councils Act of 1909
  2. (b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
  3. (c) Government of India Act of 1919
  4. (d) Government of India Act of 1935
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Government of India Act of 1919

The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced the separate budgets for provinces and the centre for the first time.
It authorised provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets independently from the central budget.
This was a key feature of the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms aimed at decentralization.
Therefore, the correct option is the Government of India Act of 1919.
Final answer: Option 3

Static GK (1)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q8. Which instrument is described as a hand drum used by tribal communities in the hilly areas of Tripura and Meghalaya?

  1. (a) Dama
  2. (b) Dhak
  3. (c) Chyabrung
  4. (d) Davandi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dama

The instrument described is 'Dama'.
It is a hand drum traditionally used by tribal communities in the hilly areas of Tripura and Meghalaya.
Other options are distinct instruments linked with different regions or communities.
Hence, the correct answer is Dama.
Final answer: Option 1

Economics (1)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q9. Which of the following dimensions is NOT directly included in the Human Development Index (HDI)?

  1. (a) A decent standard of living
  2. (b) Human security
  3. (c) A long and healthy life
  4. (d) Being knowledgeable
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Human security

The Human Development Index (HDI) measures three key dimensions:
1. A long and healthy life (life expectancy at birth).
2. Being knowledgeable (education index − mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling).
3. A decent standard of living (GNI per capita).
Human security is not a direct dimension included in HDI.
Therefore, option 2 is correct.
Final answer: Option 2

Polity (1)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q10. Words 'Integrity', 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which of the following amendments?

  1. (a) 24th Amendment, 1971
  2. (b) 42nd Amendment, 1976
  3. (c) 44th Amendment, 1978
  4. (d) 52nd Amendment, 1985
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 42nd Amendment, 1976

The words 'Integrity', 'Socialist', and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment.
This amendment was enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period.
It is often called the 'Mini Constitution' due to the extensive changes it brought.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
Option 2 is the final answer.

Chemistry (12)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q11. 1. A precipitation reaction occurs when two aqueous solutions react to form an insoluble solid.
2. The solid formed is called a precipitate.
3. All precipitation reactions involve acids and bases only.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) 2 and 3 only
  2. (b) 1, 2, and 3
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 2 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct: Precipitation reaction occurs when two aqueous solutions form an insoluble solid.
Statement 2 is correct: The solid formed in such reaction is called a precipitate.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Not all precipitation reactions involve acids and bases; they generally involve ionic compounds forming insoluble salts.
Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Final answer: Option 4
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures

Q12. A student mixes sand, salt and water in a beaker and stirs well. After some time, what will be observed?

  1. (a) Sand remains permanently suspended in water, making the mixture cloudy.
  2. (b) All components dissolve completely, forming a clear solution.
  3. (c) Sand settles at the bottom, while salt dissolves in water.
  4. (d) Sand and salt both remain undissolved, forming two distinct layers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sand settles at the bottom, while salt dissolves in water.

When sand, salt, and water are mixed:
Sand is an insoluble solid and does not dissolve in water.
Salt (sodium chloride) is soluble and dissolves completely in water.
Due to gravity, the sand particles settle down at the bottom of the beaker.
The salt dissolves uniformly, resulting in a salty solution above the sand.
Hence, sand settles at the bottom, while salt dissolves in water.
Final answer: Option 3
Periodic Classification of Elements · Periodic trends (atomic size, metallic character, electronegativity, ionisation energy)

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding the size of an atom.
Statement 1: The size of an atom is approximately in the range of 0.1 nm to 0.5 nm.
Statement 2: Atomic size increases as we move from left to right in a period of the periodic table.
Statement 3: The radius of a hydrogen atom is about 10⁻¹⁰ meters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 1, 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 1 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Atomic size generally lies between 0.1 nm and 0.5 nm.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Atomic size decreases from left to right in a period due to increasing nuclear charge pulling electrons closer.
Statement 3 is correct: The radius of a hydrogen atom is about 10⁻¹⁰ meters, which is equivalent to 0.1 nm.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Final answer: Option 4
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q14. Four test tubes contain solutions of CuSO₄, MgSO₄, ZnSO₄, and AgNO₃. A student adds zinc metal to each test tube. In which test tube(s) will a reaction occur?

  1. (a) CuSO₄ and AgNO₃ only
  2. (b) ZnSO₄ only
  3. (c) With all solutions
  4. (d) CuSO₄ only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) CuSO₄ and AgNO₃ only

Zinc is more reactive than copper and silver but not more reactive than magnesium or zinc itself.
When zinc metal is added to CuSO₄ (copper sulfate), zinc displaces copper from the solution causing a reaction.
Similarly, zinc displaces silver from AgNO₃ (silver nitrate) because zinc is more reactive than silver.
No reaction occurs with MgSO₄ because magnesium is more reactive than zinc.
No reaction occurs with ZnSO₄ since zinc cannot displace itself.
Therefore, reaction occurs only in test tubes containing CuSO₄ and AgNO₃.
Final answer: Option 1
Carbon and its Compounds · Hydrocarbons - alkanes, alkenes, alkynes

Q15. If the molecular mass of an alkane is 44, then its molecular formula is:

  1. (a) C₂H₆
  2. (b) C₄H₁₀
  3. (c) C₃H₈
  4. (d) CH₄
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) C₃H₈

The general formula of alkanes is CnH2n+2.
Calculate molecular mass for each option:
C2H6: (2×12) + (6×1) = 24 + 6 = 30
C3H8: (3×12) + (8×1) = 36 + 8 = 44
C4H10: (4×12) + (10×1) = 48 + 10 = 58
CH4: (1×12) + (4×1) = 12 + 4 = 16
Only C3H8 matches molecular mass 44.
Hence, molecular formula is C3H8.
Final answer: Option 3
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q16. In a homogeneous mixture, the size of particles of solute is typically:

  1. (a) Less than 1 nm
  2. (b) Between 1 nm and 1000 nm
  3. (c) Larger than 1 µm
  4. (d) Visible to the naked eye
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Less than 1 nm

In a homogeneous mixture (solution), the solute particles are molecular or ionic in size.
These particles are extremely small, typically less than 1 nanometre (nm).
Hence, the particle size is less than 1 nm, making them invisible under normal light microscopy.
This differentiates solutions from colloids and suspensions, which have larger particles.
Therefore, the correct option is Option 1: Less than 1 nm.
Answer complete.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q17. In chemical industries, bleaching powder acts mainly as:

  1. (a) An oxidising agent
  2. (b) A reducing agent
  3. (c) A catalyst
  4. (d) A neutralising agent
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) An oxidising agent

Bleaching powder primarily releases chlorine, which can oxidise substances.
This makes it an effective oxidising agent in chemical industries.
Therefore, bleaching powder acts mainly as an oxidising agent.
Final answer: Option 1
Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a reason for carbon’s versatility?

  1. (a) Catenation
  2. (b) Ability to form single, double and triple bonds
  3. (c) Tetravalency
  4. (d) Formation of ionic bonds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Formation of ionic bonds

Carbon is versatile due to its catenation property, allowing it to form long chains (Option 1).
Its ability to form single, double, and triple covalent bonds adds to its versatility (Option 2).
Carbon’s tetravalency means it can form four bonds, increasing bonding possibilities (Option 3).
Formation of ionic bonds is not a major reason for carbon’s versatility as it primarily forms covalent bonds.
Hence, option 4 is NOT a reason for carbon’s versatility.
Final answer: Option 4
Metals and Non-metals · Physical properties of metals and non-metals

Q19. Which of the following non-metals is a good conductor of electricity in the solid state due to the presence of delocalized electrons within its crystal lattice?

  1. (a) Iodine
  2. (b) Phosphorus
  3. (c) Sulphur
  4. (d) Graphite
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Graphite

Correct option is 4: Graphite.
Graphite is a non-metal but conducts electricity in solid state due to delocalised electrons in its layered crystal structure.
These delocalised electrons are free to move, allowing electrical conduction.
Iodine, phosphorus and sulphur do not have such delocalised electrons and are poor conductors in solid form.
Hence, graphite is unique among the given options for conducting electricity in solid state.
Final answer: Option 4
Acids, Bases and Salts · Nature of salts (acidic, basic, neutral)

Q20. Which of the following salts, when dissolved in water, will produce a neutral solution?

  1. (a) Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
  2. (b) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
  3. (c) Sodium acetate (CH3COONa)
  4. (d) Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sodium chloride (NaCl)

Sodium chloride (NaCl) is formed from a strong acid (HCl) and a strong base (NaOH).
When dissolved, NaCl dissociates fully into Na+ and Cl- ions without hydrolysis.
No ions react with water to affect H+ or OH- concentration.
Therefore, the solution remains neutral.
Other salts like KOH (strong base), sodium acetate (from weak acid), and ammonium chloride (from weak base) change the pH.
Hence, NaCl produces a neutral solution.
Final answer: Option 2
Structure of Atom · Thomson's model

Q21. Which statement best describes the arrangement of electrons in Thomson's atomic model?

  1. (a) Electrons are located at the center of the atom
  2. (b) Electrons revolve around the nucleus
  3. (c) Electrons are found only on the surface of the atom
  4. (d) Electrons are embedded in a positively charged sphere
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Electrons are embedded in a positively charged sphere

Option 4 is correct.
In Thomson's atomic model, the atom is described as a 'plum pudding' where electrons are embedded within a positively charged sphere.
This model envisages electrons scattered inside a positive sphere rather than revolving around a nucleus or being on the surface.
Hence, electrons are embedded in a positively charged sphere in Thomson's model.
Final answer: Option 4
Structure of Atom · Atomic number and mass number

Q22. Which statement is true about mass number?

  1. (a) It is always twice the atomic number
  2. (b) It is the sum of protons and neutrons in an atom
  3. (c) It is equal to the number of electrons in an atom
  4. (d) It is the total number of protons and electrons in an atom
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is the sum of protons and neutrons in an atom

Option 2 is correct.
Mass number is defined as the sum of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom.
It does not include electrons, as their mass is negligible.
Hence, mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons.
Option 1 is incorrect because mass number is not necessarily twice the atomic number.
Option 3 and 4 are incorrect because electrons are not counted in mass number calculation.
Therefore, the correct statement is: It is the sum of protons and neutrons in an atom.
This completes the answer.

Physics (14)

Gravitation · Numericals on gravitation

Q23. A block of mass 20 kg is dropped from the top of a building of height 200 m. What will be the velocity with which the block will hit the ground? (Take the value of g = 10 m/s²)

  1. (a) 40 m/s
  2. (b) 20√5 m/s
  3. (c) 20√10 m/s
  4. (d) 20 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 20√10 m/s

Given:
Mass, m = 20 kg (not needed in calculation)
Height, h = 200 m
Acceleration due to gravity, g = (10 m)/(s²)
Use the formula for velocity of an object under free fall:
v = √(2gh)
Substitute the values:
v = √(2 × 10 × 200)
v = √(4000)
v = √(4000) = √(400 × 10) = (20√10 m)/(s)
(Thus, velocity with which the block hits the ground is 20√10 m)/(s.)
Final answer: Option 3
Force and Laws of Motion · Numericals on force and momentum

Q24. A car of mass 1000 kg moving with a velocity of 20 m/s comes to rest in 10 s after applying the brakes. What is the value of the force applied by the brakes?

  1. (a) - 2000 N
  2. (b) - 5000 N
  3. (c) - 500 N
  4. (d) - 200 N
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) - 2000 N

Given: mass (m) = 1000 kg, initial velocity (u) = 20 m/s, final velocity (v) = 0 m/s, time (t) = 10 s.
We need to find the braking force (F).
First, calculate acceleration (a) using formula: a = (v − u) / t
a = (0 − 20) / 10 = -2 m/s² (negative sign indicates deceleration).
Use Newton's second law: F = m × a
F = 1000 × (-2) = -2000 N
Force of 2000 N acts opposite to motion to bring the car to rest.
Magnitude of force applied by brakes = - 2000 N.
Final answer: Option 1
Motion · Uniform circular motion

Q25. A cyclist riding at constant speed on a circular track is an example of which type of motion?

  1. (a) Non-uniform motion
  2. (b) Uniform circular motion
  3. (c) Linear motion
  4. (d) Oscillatory motion
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uniform circular motion

A cyclist riding at constant speed on a circular track moves in a circle with uniform speed.
This is an example of uniform circular motion.
The speed is constant but the direction changes continuously.
Hence, the motion is uniform circular motion.
Final answer: Option 2
Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q26. A sound source has a frequency of 50 Hz. How many vibrations does it complete in one minute?

  1. (a) 600
  2. (b) 3000
  3. (c) 5000
  4. (d) 50
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 3000

Frequency = 50 Hz means 50 vibrations per second.
Number of vibrations in one minute = 50 vibrations/second × 60 seconds = 3000 vibrations.
Hence, the sound source completes 3000 vibrations in one minute.
Final answer: Option 2
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q27. An electric oven has a power of 1200 W when it is operated at 100 V. How much will be the current flowing through the oven?

  1. (a) 0.08 A
  2. (b) 12 A
  3. (c) 8 A
  4. (d) 1.2 A
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 12 A

Power (P) = 1200 W
Voltage (V) = 100 V
Current (I) = Power / Voltage
I = 1200 / 100
I = 12 A
So, the current flowing through the oven is 12 amperes.
Final answer: Option 2
Gravitation · Mass and weight

Q28. If mass is doubled and g remains constant, weight becomes ________.

  1. (a) Same
  2. (b) Half
  3. (c) Double
  4. (d) Four times
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Double

Weight = mass × gravitational acceleration (g).
If mass is doubled, weight becomes 2 × mass × g.
Since g remains constant, weight doubles.
Hence, weight becomes double when mass is doubled.
Final answer: Option 3
Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's first law and inertia

Q29. Newton’s first law of motion explains the concept of _________.

  1. (a) Change in momentum
  2. (b) Continuous acceleration
  3. (c) Balanced forces
  4. (d) Net force being non-zero
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Balanced forces

Newton’s first law of motion states that an object remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by a net external force.
This means the forces on the object are balanced, resulting in no change in motion.
Hence, the law explains the concept of balanced forces.
Correct option is Option 3.
Sound and Waves · Applications of ultrasound and SONAR

Q30. SONAR technology uses ultrasound to ________.

  1. (a) Produce high temperatures
  2. (b) Measure atmospheric pressure
  3. (c) Measure electric current
  4. (d) Locate underwater objects
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Locate underwater objects

Sonar (Sound Navigation and Ranging) uses ultrasound waves.
These ultrasound waves are emitted and their echoes are detected after bouncing from objects underwater.
This helps to locate objects under water, such as submarines, shipwrecks, or the seabed.
So, SONAR technology is used to locate underwater objects.
Final answer: Option 4
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Power of a lens and dioptre

Q31. The extent of bending of light rays achieved by a lens is expressed in terms of its ___________.

  1. (a) Power
  2. (b) Aperture
  3. (c) Magnification
  4. (d) Image Distance
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Power

The extent of bending of light rays by a lens is called its power.
Power indicates the lens's ability to converge or diverge light.
It is measured in diopters (D).
Thus, the correct term is 'Power'.
Final answer: Option 1
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Prism and dispersion of light

Q32. When white light is incident obliquely on a glass prism, which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?
(i) Red colour undergoes minimum deviation.
(ii) The speed of violet colour is the least while travelling through the prism.
(iii) Refractive index of green colour is more than the violet colour.
(iv) Refractive index of red colour is more than blue colour.

  1. (a) Both (i) and (iv)
  2. (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
  3. (c) Both (i) and (ii)
  4. (d) Both (iii) and (iv)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both (iii) and (iv)

Option 4 is correct.
(i) Red colour undergoes minimum deviation − True, because deviation is least for red light in a prism due to its lower refractive index.
(ii) The speed of violet colour is the least while travelling through the prism − True, because violet light has the highest refractive index, so it travels slowest.
(iii) Refractive index of green colour is more than the violet colour − False, violet has higher refractive index than green.
(iv) Refractive index of red colour is more than blue colour − False, red has lower refractive index than blue.
Hence, statements (iii) and (iv) are NOT true.
Final answer: Option 4
Pressure, Fluids and Properties of Matter · Buoyancy and Archimedes' principle

Q33. Which of the following is NOT an application of the Archimede's Principle?

  1. (a) Hydrometers
  2. (b) Lactometers
  3. (c) Designing of submarines
  4. (d) Speedometers
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Speedometers

Archimedes' Principle is used to measure buoyancy of objects in fluid.
It applies to hydrometers which measure liquid density.
Lactometers use it to test milk density.
Submarines are designed using buoyancy concepts based on this principle.
Speedometers measure speed, unrelated to buoyancy or Archimedes' Principle.
Hence, Speedometers are NOT an application of Archimedes' Principle.
Final answer: Option 4
Electricity · Electric circuits and circuit symbols

Q34. Which of the following is represented by a circle with the letter 'V' in a circuit diagram?

  1. (a) Voltmeter
  2. (b) Variable resistance
  3. (c) Voltage regulator
  4. (d) Vacuum diode
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Voltmeter

The letter 'V' inside a circle in a circuit diagram stands for Voltmeter.
A voltmeter is an instrument used to measure voltage across two points in an electrical circuit.
This symbol is standard in circuit diagrams to indicate where voltage measurement is taken.
Therefore, the correct representation is Voltmeter.
Final answer: Option 1
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q35. Which of the following is true about Fleming’s left-hand rule?

  1. (a) If the thumb points in the direction of force and the forefinger in the direction of current, the middle finger shows the direction of magnetic field.
  2. (b) It is used only in electric circuits and not in devices like motors or loudspeakers.
  3. (c) If the thumb points in the direction of current and the middle finger in the direction of magnetic field, the forefinger shows the direction of force.
  4. (d) If the forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field and the middle finger in the direction of current, the thumb shows the direction of motion or force on the conductor.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) If the forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field and the middle finger in the direction of current, the thumb shows the direction of motion or force on the conductor.

Fleming's left-hand rule is used to find the direction of force (motion) on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
According to the rule:
- The forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field (North to South).
- The middle finger points in the direction of the current.
- The thumb points in the direction of the force (motion) on the conductor.
Option 4 correctly states this relationship.
Other options either mix the directions or state incorrect uses of the rule.
Hence, the correct option is 4.
This rule is fundamental in devices like motors and loudspeakers, where force direction is important.
Final answer: Option 4
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q36. Which of the following is/are NOT true about the distance-time graph for a body moving in uniform motion?
(i) The slope of the distance-time graph gives the acceleration of the body.
(ii) The lesser the slope of the graph the slower the body is moving.
(iii) The area under this graph gives the speed of the body.

  1. (a) Both (i) and (iii)
  2. (b) Only (iii)
  3. (c) Only (ii)
  4. (d) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both (i) and (iii)

Option 1 is correct.
(i) The slope of the distance-time graph gives the speed, not acceleration. Acceleration is the slope of velocity-time graph.
(ii) The lesser slope indicates slower speed, so this is true.
(iii) The area under the distance-time graph does not represent speed; speed is given by the slope.
Hence, both (i) and (iii) are NOT true about distance-time graph for uniform motion.
Answer ends here.

Biology (13)

Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q37. A gardener buried five different substances in a garden: banana peels, newspaper, cotton cloth, plastic bottle and metal spoon. How many of the substances he buried were biodegradable?

  1. (a) Two
  2. (b) One
  3. (c) Four
  4. (d) Three
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Three

Biodegradable substances are those that can decompose naturally by biological processes.
Banana peels, newspaper, and cotton cloth are biodegradable.
Plastic bottles and metal spoons are not biodegradable because they do not decompose easily.
So, the biodegradable substances are banana peels, newspaper, and cotton cloth.
Total biodegradable substances = 3.
Final answer: Option 4
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q38. All of the following functions are performed by different components of a Xylem tissue, EXCEPT:

  1. (a) Storing food
  2. (b) Transporting water and minerals vertically
  3. (c) Providing mechanical support
  4. (d) Transporting food from leaves
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Transporting food from leaves

Xylem tissue in plants primarily transports water and minerals vertically from roots to other parts.
It also provides mechanical support to the plant.
Xylem stores some food substances but this is not its main function.
Transporting food from leaves is a function of phloem, not xylem.
Hence, option 4 is not a function of xylem tissue.
Final answer: Option 4
Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q39. Choose a term to complete analogy.
Axon : Single long process :: Dendrite : _______________

  1. (a) Protective connective tissue
  2. (b) Cell body with nucleus
  3. (c) Rapid stimulus transmission
  4. (d) Many short, branched parts
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Many short, branched parts

Axon is a single long nerve fibre that transmits impulses away from the cell body.
Dendrites are many short, branched projections that receive signals and conduct them to the cell body.
Therefore, the correct analogy is: Dendrite : Many short, branched parts.
Final answer: Option 4
Reproduction · Asexual reproduction (fission, budding, fragmentation, spores)

Q40. Select a term to complete the given analogy.
Binary Fission : Bacteria :: Fragmentation : _________

  1. (a) Insects
  2. (b) Birds
  3. (c) Algae
  4. (d) Mammals
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Algae

Binary fission is a method of asexual reproduction used by bacteria.
Fragmentation is a similar asexual reproduction method found in algae.
Therefore, fragmentation is to algae as binary fission is to bacteria.
Hence, the correct answer is Algae.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q41. The primary purpose of check-dams in irrigation is to ______________.

  1. (a) To worsen erosion of top soil
  2. (b) To lower the quality of the soil
  3. (c) To channel river water for factory operations
  4. (d) To increase groundwater by storing rainwater
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To increase groundwater by storing rainwater

Check-dams are small barriers built across the direction of water flow on stream beds or rivers.
Their main purpose is to store rainwater and increase groundwater recharge.
They help in conserving water and improving irrigation by maintaining the water level underground.
Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as check-dams do not worsen soil erosion, lower soil quality, or channel water for factories.
Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.
Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q42. The principal function of the plasma membrane is to:

  1. (a) Regulate movement of substances across the cell.
  2. (b) Serve as the site of ATP synthesis.
  3. (c) Provide rigid support and prevent cell swelling.
  4. (d) Store the cell’s genetic material.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Regulate movement of substances across the cell.

Correct Option: 1
The plasma membrane controls the entry and exit of substances in the cell.
It acts as a selective barrier, maintaining the internal environment.
Option 2 is incorrect because ATP synthesis mainly occurs in mitochondria.
Option 3 is wrong as rigid support is provided by the cell wall (in plants).
Option 4 is incorrect since genetic material is stored in the nucleus.
Hence, the main function is to regulate movement of substances.
Answer complete: Option 1
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q43. What distinguishes broilers from layers in poultry farming?

  1. (a) Broilers are raised for meat; layers for eggs
  2. (b) Only broilers lay eggs
  3. (c) Both are raised equally for meat and eggs
  4. (d) Layers are raised for meat; broilers for eggs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Broilers are raised for meat; layers for eggs

Correct option: 1
Broilers are chickens raised primarily for meat production.
Layers are chickens raised mainly to produce eggs.
This is the key difference in poultry farming between broilers and layers.
Option 2 is incorrect because broilers also lay eggs but not as their main purpose.
Option 3 is wrong as both are not raised equally for meat and eggs.
Option 4 is incorrect as it reverses the roles of broilers and layers.
Therefore, broilers are for meat; layers for eggs is the correct distinction.
Answer complete.
Cell - Structure and Function · Mitochondria

Q44. What unique feature allows mitochondria to produce some of their own proteins?

  1. (a) They produce ATP.
  2. (b) Their outer membrane is porous.
  3. (c) They contain their own DNA and ribosomes.
  4. (d) They have two membranes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They contain their own DNA and ribosomes.

Mitochondria can produce some of their own proteins because they contain their own DNA.
They also have their own ribosomes to synthesise proteins.
This means they can independently carry out protein synthesis for some proteins needed within the mitochondria.
Other options describe general features of mitochondria but do not explain protein production capability.
Therefore, the unique feature is having their own DNA and ribosomes.
Final answer: Option 3
Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q45. When chemicals such as pesticides enter food chains and get more concentrated at higher levels, the process is known as ____.

  1. (a) Biodegradation
  2. (b) Photosynthesis
  3. (c) Eutrophication
  4. (d) Biological magnification
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Biological magnification

The process where pesticides and other chemicals accumulate and increase in concentration at higher levels of the food chain is called biological magnification.
It causes higher animals to accumulate toxic substances, leading to ecological harm.
Hence, the correct term is Biological magnification.
Final answer: Option 4
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q46. Where in the body would you expect to find a single layer of extremely thin, flat epithelial cells designed for the transport of substances (gases) across a delicate lining?

  1. (a) Inner lining of the intestine, for absorption
  2. (b) Skin, to prevent wear and tear
  3. (c) Lining of kidney tubules, for mechanical support
  4. (d) Lining of lung alveoli, for gas exchange
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Lining of lung alveoli, for gas exchange

The question asks about a single layer of thin, flat epithelial cells specialised for gas transport.
Such cells are known as squamous epithelial cells.
They form the lining of lung alveoli, which facilitates efficient gas exchange between air and blood.
The other options involve different cell types and functions not primarily related to gas transport.
Hence, the correct choice is the lining of lung alveoli, for gas exchange.
Final answer: Option 4
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q47. Which description correctly characterises parenchyma cells in the pith of a mature stem?

  1. (a) Large, loosely arranged living cells for storage.
  2. (b) Sclerenchyma fibers forming a protective cylinder.
  3. (c) Tightly packed dead cells that aid in support and conduction.
  4. (d) Thick-walled lignified cells for mechanical strength.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Large, loosely arranged living cells for storage.

Parenchyma cells in the pith of a mature stem are large and loosely arranged.
They are living cells primarily used for storage of food and water.
These cells provide a cushion and store nutrients.
Other options describe sclerenchyma or dead cells which are not parenchyma.
Hence, the correct description is large, loosely arranged living cells for storage.
Final answer: Option 1
Reproduction · Asexual reproduction (fission, budding, fragmentation, spores)

Q48. Which of the following is NOT known to reproduce through fission?

  1. (a) Hydra
  2. (b) Paramecium
  3. (c) Amoeba
  4. (d) Leishmania
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hydra

Correct option is 1: Hydra.
Fission is a type of asexual reproduction where an organism divides into two or more parts, each develops into a new individual.
Paramecium, Amoeba and Leishmania reproduce by binary fission.
Hydra reproduces mainly by budding, not by fission.
Therefore, Hydra does not reproduce through fission.
Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
Answer complete.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Dialysis and other excretory organs

Q49. Which of the following statements correctly explains the working principle of dialysis in an artificial kidney?

  1. (a) Dialysis removes wastes from blood by diffusion across a semi-permeable membrane.
  2. (b) Dialysis reabsorbs essential nutrients and salts like a normal kidney.
  3. (c) Dialysis removes nitrogenous wastes from blood through active transport.
  4. (d) Dialysis uses high pressure to force wastes out of the blood into the dialysing fluid.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dialysis removes wastes from blood by diffusion across a semi-permeable membrane.

Option 1 is correct.
Dialysis works by removing wastes and excess substances from blood by diffusion.
A semi-permeable membrane allows diffusion of small waste molecules from blood into the dialysis fluid.
Essential nutrients are retained in the blood as they are larger molecules or selectively reabsorbed in the body, not during dialysis.
Other options are incorrect because dialysis does not involve active transport or high pressure.
Hence, dialysis mimics kidney function by diffusion across a semi-permeable membrane.
Final answer: Option 1
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