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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 6 March 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 6 March 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Modern History, Static GK, Current Affairs, Economics, Geography.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 6 March 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Polity (2) · Modern History (1) · Static GK (2) · Current Affairs (3) · Economics (1) · Geography (1) · Physics (14) · Biology (13) · Chemistry (12)

Polity (2)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · NHRC and SHRC

Q1. In India, which of the following is NOT considered as a constitutional body?

  1. (a) National Human Rights Commission
  2. (b) Union Public Service Commission
  3. (c) Election Commission of India
  4. (d) Finance Commission of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National Human Rights Commission

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body, not a constitutional body.
Constitutional bodies are established by the Constitution of India.
Examples of constitutional bodies include:
1. Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
2. Election Commission of India
3. Finance Commission of India
Hence, NHRC is NOT a constitutional body.
Final answer: Option 1
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q2. Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution is regarded as a major milestone in the country’s taxation system for introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  1. (a) 101st Amendment, 2016
  2. (b) 97th Amendment, 2011
  3. (c) 100th Amendment, 2015
  4. (d) 86th Amendment, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 101st Amendment, 2016

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced through the 101st Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 2016.
This amendment is considered a major milestone in the country's taxation system as it unified various indirect taxes into a single tax.
None of the other listed amendments relate to the introduction of GST.
Therefore, the correct answer is the 101st Amendment, 2016.

Modern History (1)

Post-Independence India · Wars and treaties (1947 onwards)

Q3. In which of the following years was the 'Indus Water Treaty' signed between India and Pakistan?

  1. (a) 1947
  2. (b) 1963
  3. (c) 1960
  4. (d) 1955
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1960

Option 3 is correct.
The Indus Water Treaty was signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan.
This treaty resolved disputes over the use of the water of the Indus River system.
It is a key water-sharing agreement between the two countries.
Hence, the year is 1960.
Final answer: Option 3

Static GK (2)

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q4. India celebrated Engineers Day on 15 Sep 2025 with the theme “Deep Tech & Engineering Excellence” in memory of whom?

  1. (a) Sir M. Visvesvaraya
  2. (b) Jagadish Chandra Bose
  3. (c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  4. (d) Srinivasa Ramanujan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sir M. Visvesvaraya

Engineers Day in India is celebrated on 15th September every year.
The day honours the birth anniversary of Sir M. Visvesvaraya.
He was a notable engineer and statesman known for his contributions to engineering and development in India.
The theme for 2025 was “Deep Tech & Engineering Excellence” to highlight modern engineering advances.
Hence, Engineers Day 2025 was celebrated in memory of Sir M. Visvesvaraya.
Final answer: Option 1
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q5. Who among the following is NOT part of the Trinity of Carnatic Music?

  1. (a) Swathi Thirunal
  2. (b) Tyagaraja
  3. (c) Muthuswami Dikshitar
  4. (d) Shyama Shastri
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Swathi Thirunal

The Trinity of Carnatic Music consists of three great composers: Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Shyama Shastri.
Swathi Thirunal, although a significant composer, is not part of this Trinity.
Hence, the correct answer is Swathi Thirunal.

Current Affairs (3)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q6. Indigenous GSAT-7R weighs 4400 kg, making it the heaviest communication satellite launched from which country?

  1. (a) France
  2. (b) Japan
  3. (c) India
  4. (d) United State of America
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) India

The GSAT-7R is an indigenous communication satellite from India.
It weighs 4400 kg, making it the heaviest communication satellite launched from India.
Hence, the country is India.
Final answer: Option 3
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q7. Which Indian won a bronze medal in the women’s individual compound event at the Archery World Cup Final 2025 in Nanjing?

  1. (a) Jyothi Surekha Vennam
  2. (b) Ankita Bhakat
  3. (c) Deepika Kumari
  4. (d) Bhajan Kaur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jyothi Surekha Vennam

The question asks about the Indian archer who won a bronze medal in the women's individual compound event at the Archery World Cup Final 2025 in Nanjing.
Ankita Bhakat secured the bronze in this event.
Other popular Indian archers like Jyothi Surekha Vennam and Deepika Kumari have excelled in different events but not this specific medal in 2025.
Therefore, the correct answer is Ankita Bhakat.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q8. Which of the following companies has secured a significant contract to indigenously produce the BvS10 Sindhu, an advanced all-terrain armoured vehicle, for the Indian Army?

  1. (a) Larsen & Toubro (L&T)
  2. (b) Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL)
  3. (c) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. (HAL)
  4. (d) Mahindra Defence Systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Larsen & Toubro (L&T)

Option 4 is correct: Mahindra Defence Systems has secured the contract to indigenously produce the BvS10 Sindhu, an advanced all-terrain armoured vehicle, for the Indian Army.
This contract is part of India's push for defence indigenisation under the Make in India initiative.
Mahindra Defence Systems specialises in manufacturing military vehicles, making it the suitable choice for this project.
Hence, Mahindra Defence Systems is the correct answer.

Economics (1)

Agriculture and Food Security · Rural development and rural credit

Q9. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was established in India in which of the following years?

  1. (a) 1993–94
  2. (b) 2002–03
  3. (c) 2000–01
  4. (d) 1995–96
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1995–96

The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was established in India in the year 1993-94.
It was created by the Government of India through NABARD to finance rural infrastructure projects.
Therefore, the correct year is 1993-94.
Final answer: Option 1

Geography (1)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Western and Eastern Ghats

Q10. Which of the following is the highest peak of the Western Ghats mountain range?

  1. (a) Doddabetta, Nilgiri Hills
  2. (b) Mullayanagiri, Baba Budan Hills
  3. (c) Mahabaleshwar, Sahyadri plateau region
  4. (d) Anaimudi, Anamalai Hills
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Anaimudi, Anamalai Hills

Option 2 is correct: Mullayanagiri is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
It is located in the Baba Budan Hills in Karnataka.
Its height is approximately 1930 metres, making it taller than other peaks in the Western Ghats.
Doddabetta and Anaimudi are highest peaks in other hill ranges, not Western Ghats.
Hence, Mullayanagiri is the tallest peak of the Western Ghats range.
Final answer: Option 2

Physics (14)

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a moving charge in a magnetic field

Q11. A charged particle moves perpendicular to the axis of a circular current loop. The force on the particle is ________.

  1. (a) Constant everywhere
  2. (b) Maximum at center
  3. (c) Depends on position and velocity
  4. (d) Always zero
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Depends on position and velocity

The charged particle moving perpendicular to the axis of a circular current loop experiences a magnetic force.
The magnetic field created by the loop varies with position.
The force depends on both the particle's velocity and its position in the magnetic field.
Hence, the force is not constant, not always zero, and not simply maximum at the center.
The correct answer is that the force depends on position and velocity.
Gravitation · Numericals on gravitation

Q12. An object is launched straight upward and reaches a maximum height of 1000 cm. What was the initial velocity of the object? (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)

  1. (a) 10 m/s
  2. (b) 14 m/s
  3. (c) 2 m/s
  4. (d) 6 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 14 m/s

Given
Maximum height, h = 1000 cm = 10 m (since 100 cm = 1 m)
Acceleration due to gravity, g = (9.8 m)/(s²)
At maximum height, velocity = 0.
Use the formula
v² = u² - 2gh where v = 0 at max height
0 = u² - 2 × 9.8 × 10
u² = 2 × 9.8 × 10
u² = 196
u = √(196)=14 m/s
Final answer: Option 2
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Concave lens - image formation and uses

Q13. An object is placed at infinity in front of a concave lens. The image formed will be _____________ .

  1. (a) Virtual, erect, and highly diminished at the focus
  2. (b) Virtual, erect, and enlarged
  3. (c) Real, erect, and at the principal focus
  4. (d) Real, inverted, and at infinity
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Virtual, erect, and highly diminished at the focus

A concave lens always forms a virtual image for objects placed at any distance.
When the object is at infinity, light rays are parallel and diverge after passing through the concave lens.
The image formed is virtual, erect, and highly diminished in size.
The image appears at the focus of the concave lens.
Hence, the correct description is virtual, erect, and highly diminished at the focus.
Final answer: Option 1
Force and Laws of Motion · Numericals on force and momentum

Q14. An unbalanced force of 100 N acts on a body at rest such that it acquires a velocity of 5 m/s in 10 s. How much is the mass of the body?

  1. (a) 2 kg
  2. (b) 50 kg
  3. (c) 5 kg
  4. (d) 200 kg
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 200 kg

Force (F) = 100 N
Initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s (body at rest)
Final velocity (v) = 5 m/s
Time (t) = 10 s
Acceleration (a) = (v − u) / t = (5 − 0) / 10 = 0.5 m/s²
From Newton's second law, F = m × a
Therefore, m = F / a = 100 / 0.5 = 200 kg
The correct mass of the body is 200 kg
Final answer: Option 2
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Convex lens - image formation and uses

Q15. If an object is placed between F₁ and 2F₁ of a convex lens, the image produced is ________. (F₁ is the position of the principal focus.)

  1. (a) Enlarged, real, inverted
  2. (b) Diminished, real, inverted
  3. (c) Enlarged, virtual, erect
  4. (d) Same size, real, inverted
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Enlarged, real, inverted

When an object is placed between the principal focus (F₁) and twice the focal length (2F₁) of a convex lens:
The image formed is real.
It is inverted.
The image is enlarged compared to the object.
This is a fundamental property of convex lenses in this object position range.
Final answer: Option 1
Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q16. Multiple reflection of sound can be used to __________.

  1. (a) Hear sounds clearly over long distances
  2. (b) Reduce loudness
  3. (c) Increase the frequency of sound
  4. (d) Change the pitch of sound
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hear sounds clearly over long distances

Multiple reflection of sound helps sound waves to travel longer distances by reflecting several times from surfaces.
This allows sounds to be heard clearly even over long distances as the sound energy is sustained.
Hence, multiple reflection enhances sound clarity and audibility over larger areas.
Therefore, the correct option is that multiple reflections help to hear sounds clearly over long distances.
Final answer: Option 1
Pressure, Fluids and Properties of Matter · Thrust and pressure

Q17. The effect of thrust on a surface depends on the area on which it acts. Force acting on a smaller area exerts a ___________ compared to a larger area.

  1. (a) Smaller pressure
  2. (b) Smaller thrust
  3. (c) Larger pressure
  4. (d) Zero pressure
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Larger pressure

Pressure is defined as force applied per unit area.
When the same force acts on a smaller area, pressure increases because pressure = force / area.
Thus, force acting on a smaller area exerts a larger pressure compared to a larger area.
Correct option is Option 3.
Final answer: Option 3
Work, Energy and Power · Potential energy

Q18. The gravitational potential energy of an object at a height is the work done to lift it from the ground to that height _____________.

  1. (a) In the direction of gravity
  2. (b) Along a curved path
  3. (c) Against gravity
  4. (d) With constant velocity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Against gravity

The gravitational potential energy (GPE) is the work done to move an object against the force of gravity.
It requires energy to lift an object from ground level to a height.
Hence, the work done, and thus the GPE, is calculated against the gravitational force.
Therefore, the correct option is 'Against gravity'.
Answer completed.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q19. The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with a velocity of 5 m/s is 25 J. If its velocity is doubled to 10 m/s, what will be its kinetic energy?

  1. (a) 200 J
  2. (b) 100 J
  3. (c) 125 J
  4. (d) 50 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 100 J

Kinetic energy (KE) is given by the formula: KE = (1/2) m v²
Initially, KE = 25 J, velocity v = 5 m/s.
When velocity is doubled, v = 10 m/s.
New kinetic energy = (1/2) m (10)² = (1/2) m × 100
Since (1/2) m × 25 = 25 J, (1/2) m = 25/25 = 1 J
Therefore, new KE = 1 × 100 = 100 J
Hence, the kinetic energy quadruples when velocity is doubled.
Final answer: Option 2
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Numericals on refraction and lenses

Q20. Two lens of power (+ 4 D) and (- 6 D) are placed in contact with each other. What will be their combined focal length in cm?

  1. (a) + 0.5 cm
  2. (b) + 0.1 cm
  3. (c) - 50 cm
  4. (d) - 10 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) - 50 cm

Power P of lens = +4 D and -6 D respectively.
Combined power P_total = P1 + P2 = +4 + (-6) = -2 D.
Focal length f (in metres) = 1 / Power (in dioptres).
So, f = 1 / -2 = -0.5 m = -50 cm.
Check carefully: power = -2 D means focal length is -50 cm.
Options are in length units (cm), so answer is -50 cm.
Option 3 says -50 cm, Option 4 says -10 cm.
Re-examining the closest combined focal length corresponds to power -2 D, which is -50 cm.
Therefore, correct combined focal length is -50 cm.
Final answer: Option 3
Force and Laws of Motion · Force, its effects and types

Q21. Unbalanced forces acting on an object always cause _________.

  1. (a) No change in motion
  2. (b) Increase in mass
  3. (c) Object to remain at rest
  4. (d) Change in motion
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Change in motion

Unbalanced forces on an object cause a net force to act on it.
According to Newton's first law, no change in motion occurs if forces are balanced.
If forces are unbalanced, the object accelerates or changes its velocity.
This means the object's motion changes.
Hence, unbalanced forces always cause a change in motion.
Final answer: Option 4
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Atmospheric refraction (twinkling of stars, advance sunrise)

Q22. When we observe a star near the horizon, it appears to be slightly higher in the sky than it really is. What is the reason for this?

  1. (a) The star moves rapidly and changes its position.
  2. (b) The atmosphere bends the starlight due to gradual changes in refractive index.
  3. (c) The Earth's rotation shifts the star upward.
  4. (d) The star becomes brighter, making it seem higher.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The atmosphere bends the starlight due to gradual changes in refractive index.

Correct option: 2
The star appears higher near the horizon due to atmospheric refraction.
Earth's atmosphere has layers with gradually changing refractive index.
Light from the star bends when it passes through these layers.
This bending causes the star's apparent position to shift upward.
Hence, we see the star slightly higher than its true position.
This phenomenon is well known as atmospheric refraction.
Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because star position and brightness do not cause this apparent shift.
Final answer: Option 2
Motion · Speed and velocity

Q23. Which characteristic defines non-uniform motion?

  1. (a) Equal displacement in equal time intervals
  2. (b) Constant speed
  3. (c) Covering unequal distances in equal intervals of time
  4. (d) Zero acceleration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Covering unequal distances in equal intervals of time

Non-uniform motion means the object does not move equal distances in equal time intervals.
It covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time.
This is because speed or velocity is changing.
So, non-uniform motion is defined by covering unequal distances in equal time intervals.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.
Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q24. Why is tungsten used almost exclusively for making filaments of electric bulbs?

  1. (a) It readily oxidizes at high temperatures.
  2. (b) It has low electrical resistance.
  3. (c) It has a very high melting point.
  4. (d) It does not allow heat to pass.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It has a very high melting point.

The primary reason tungsten is used for electric bulb filaments is its extremely high melting point.
This allows the filament to be heated to very high temperatures without melting.
This property makes tungsten ideal for producing light when electric current passes through the filament.
Other metals would melt or evaporate quickly at such high temperatures.
Hence, tungsten's high melting point ensures durability and efficiency of the bulb filament.
Final answer: Option 3

Biology (13)

Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q25. Along with phosphorus and potassium, fertilisers mainly supply which of the following to crops?

  1. (a) Magnesium only
  2. (b) Calcium only
  3. (c) Nitrogen
  4. (d) Zinc only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nitrogen

Correct option is 3.
Fertilisers mainly supply Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium.
These are the primary macronutrients essential for crop growth.
Nitrogen is crucial for plant growth and leaf development.
Hence, fertilisers contain nitrogen apart from phosphorus and potassium.
This is why nitrogen is included along with phosphorus and potassium in fertilisers.
Final answer: Option 3
Tissues · Muscular tissue

Q26. Choose a term to complete the analogy.
Skeletal Muscle : Voluntary :: Cardiac Muscle : _______________

  1. (a) Unbranched
  2. (b) Involuntary
  3. (c) Multinucleate
  4. (d) Striated
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Involuntary

Skeletal muscle is called voluntary because it is under conscious control.
Cardiac muscle, found in the heart, works without conscious thought, so it is involuntary.
Therefore, the correct analogy completion is 'Involuntary'.
Final answer: Option 2
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q27. Choose a term to complete the analogy.
Xylem Parenchyma : Food Storage :: Xylem Fibres : _______________

  1. (a) Transporting minerals
  2. (b) Being tubular structures
  3. (c) Transporting water vertically
  4. (d) Supportive function
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Supportive function

Xylem parenchyma cells are primarily involved in food storage.
Xylem fibres function mainly to provide mechanical support.
Thus, the analogy is: Xylem Parenchyma : Food Storage :: Xylem Fibres : Supportive function.
Hence, the correct option is supportive function.
Final answer: Option 4
Cell - Structure and Function · Plant cell and animal cell

Q28. When observing onion peel and cheek cells under a microscope, which part appears lightly stained and contains many organelles?

  1. (a) Cell wall only
  2. (b) Cell membrane only
  3. (c) Cytoplasm
  4. (d) Nucleus
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cytoplasm

Correct option: 3
When observing onion peel and cheek cells, the cytoplasm appears lightly stained.
The cytoplasm contains many organelles such as mitochondria, ribosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum.
The nucleus is usually more darkly stained, and cell wall or membrane are thinner layers, not densely packed with organelles.
Hence, the lightly stained part with many organelles is the cytoplasm.
Answer is Option 3
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q29. Which function is mainly performed by complex permanent tissues in plants?

  1. (a) Photosynthesis
  2. (b) Protection of plant body
  3. (c) Transport of water and food
  4. (d) Storage of food
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Transport of water and food

Complex permanent tissues in plants include xylem and phloem.
These tissues are responsible for transport functions.
Xylem transports water and minerals from roots to other parts of the plant.
Phloem transports food from leaves to various parts of the plant.
Hence, the main function is the transport of water and food.
Final answer: Option 3
Tissues · Muscular tissue

Q30. Which muscular tissue in animals is responsible for voluntary movements and is attached to bones?

  1. (a) Unstriated (smooth) muscle
  2. (b) Cardiac muscle
  3. (c) Tendon
  4. (d) Striated (skeletal) muscle
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Striated (skeletal) muscle

The muscular tissue responsible for voluntary movements in animals is the striated (skeletal) muscle.
It is attached to bones and allows controlled movement of body parts.
Unstriated or smooth muscles are involuntary and found in internal organs.
Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart and is involuntary.
Tendon is not a muscle but connects muscles to bones.
Hence, the correct answer is Striated (skeletal) muscle.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Lymphatic system

Q31. Which of the following components is absent in lymph but present in blood?

  1. (a) Plasma
  2. (b) White blood cells (WBCs)
  3. (c) Water
  4. (d) Platelets
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Platelets

The component present in blood but absent in lymph is platelets.
Lymph contains plasma, water, and white blood cells (mainly lymphocytes).
However, platelets are generally absent in lymph as they remain within the blood vessels and do not circulate in lymphatic fluid.
Hence, the correct answer is platelets.
Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q32. Which of the following best explains why humans have the highest concentration of harmful chemicals in their bodies?

  1. (a) They consume more pesticides directly than other organisms
  2. (b) They eat large quantities of contaminated animal products
  3. (c) They occupy the top trophic level in food chains
  4. (d) They are exposed to chemicals through air and water
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They occupy the top trophic level in food chains

Option 3 is correct.
Humans are at the top trophic level in food chains.
Harmful chemicals accumulate through bioaccumulation and biomagnification.
Therefore, concentration of these chemicals increases as we go up the food chain.
This explains why humans have the highest concentration of harmful chemicals in their bodies.
Other options either describe exposure ways or sources, which are partial reasons.
Option 3 gives the clearest and most comprehensive explanation.
Hence, humans having the highest concentration is due to their position at the top trophic level.
Final answer: Option 3
Reproduction · Seed, fruit and germination

Q33. Which of the following correctly represents the changes that occur in the floral parts after fertilisation?

  1. (a) The stigma and ovary both develop into fruits
  2. (b) The ovule develops into a fruit and the ovary becomes a seed
  3. (c) All floral parts persist and develop into fruits
  4. (d) The ovary develops into a fruit while the ovule becomes a seed
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The ovary develops into a fruit while the ovule becomes a seed

After fertilisation in flowers, the ovule develops into the seed.
The ovary enlarges and develops into the fruit.
Other floral parts generally do not develop into fruits.
Hence, the correct representation is: ovary becomes fruit and ovule becomes seed.
Final answer: Option 4
Ecology and Environment · Trophic levels and the 10 percent law

Q34. Which of the following explains why most food chains do not exceed four trophic levels?

  1. (a) Decomposers consume all organisms at higher levels
  2. (b) Producers are rare in ecosystems
  3. (c) Only 10% of energy passes to the next level
  4. (d) Predators eat only herbivores
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 10% of energy passes to the next level

Most food chains have limited trophic levels because of energy transfer efficiency.
Only about 10% of energy passes from one trophic level to the next.
This energy loss limits how many levels can be sustained.
Hence, food chains rarely exceed four trophic levels.
Correct answer: Option 3
Cell - Structure and Function · Mitochondria

Q35. Which organelle is known as the 'powerhouse of the cell' because it performs aerobic respiration?

  1. (a) Ribosome
  2. (b) Lysosome
  3. (c) Nucleus
  4. (d) Mitochondria
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mitochondria

The organelle called the 'powerhouse of the cell' is the mitochondria.
It performs aerobic respiration, producing energy in the form of ATP.
Therefore, the correct answer is mitochondria.
Cell - Structure and Function · Plant cell and animal cell

Q36. Why do cells in a multicellular organism exhibit a wide range of shapes and sizes?

  1. (a) Their structure is adapted to perform specific functions.
  2. (b) Each cell type contains a different genome in the same organism.
  3. (c) Cell shape is random and unrelated to function.
  4. (d) Variation in cell shape and size occurs without any functional significance.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Their structure is adapted to perform specific functions.

Cells in multicellular organisms have different shapes and sizes because their structures are specially adapted to perform specific functions.
Different functions require different cell forms, such as nerve cells being long to transmit impulses and red blood cells being biconcave to carry oxygen efficiently.
This adaptation helps the organism function effectively as a whole.
Option 1 is correct because it directly explains the reason for the diversity in cell shape and size.
Final answer: Option 1
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q37. Why is weed management important in crop production?

  1. (a) Weeds supply nutrients to crops.
  2. (b) Weeds increase crop yield.
  3. (c) Weeds compete with crops for resources.
  4. (d) Weeds have no impact on crops.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Weeds compete with crops for resources.

Correct option: 3
Weeds compete with crops for resources such as water, nutrients, sunlight, and space.
This competition reduces the availability of these critical resources to the crops.
As a result, crop growth and yield are adversely affected.
Therefore, managing weeds is important to ensure crops grow well and produce good yields.
Hence, weed management is crucial in crop production to minimise competition and maximise crop output.
This closes the answer.

Chemistry (12)

Matter and its States · Interconversion of states (melting, boiling, sublimation, deposition)

Q38. At high altitudes such as hill stations, water boils at a temperature lower than 100°C, whereas in a pressure cooker it boils above 100°C. Which of the following statements correctly explains this phenomenon?

  1. (a) Boiling point of a liquid is independent of external pressure and depends only on temperature.
  2. (b) Water molecules at high altitude have lower kinetic energy than at sea level, so they boil at a lower temperature.
  3. (c) Boiling point of a liquid decreases with an increase in atmospheric pressure and increases with a decrease in atmospheric pressure.
  4. (d) Boiling point of a liquid increases with an increase in atmospheric pressure and decreases with a decrease in atmospheric pressure.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Boiling point of a liquid increases with an increase in atmospheric pressure and decreases with a decrease in atmospheric pressure.

Boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapour pressure equals the external pressure.
At high altitudes, atmospheric pressure is lower than at sea level.
Lower pressure means water boils at temperatures below 100°C.
In a pressure cooker, pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure.
Higher pressure raises the boiling point above 100°C.
Hence, boiling point increases with atmospheric pressure increase and decreases with pressure decrease.
Final answer: Option 4
Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Fuels and calorific value (LPG, CNG, coal, petroleum)

Q39. During the formation of coal from plant material, a sequence of chemical and physical changes occurs under high pressure and temperature over millions of years. Which of the following correctly represents the progressive increase in carbon content during the formation of coal?

  1. (a) Peat → Anthracite → Bituminous → Lignite
  2. (b) Peat → Bituminous → Lignite → Anthracite
  3. (c) Lignite → Peat → Anthracite → Bituminous
  4. (d) Peat → Lignite → Bituminous → Anthracite
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Peat → Lignite → Bituminous → Anthracite

The coal formation sequence follows increasing carbon content.
It starts from Peat, which is the initial stage with lowest carbon.
Then it progresses to Lignite, which has more carbon than Peat.
Next is Bituminous coal with further increased carbon content.
Finally, Anthracite coal has the highest carbon content.
Hence, the correct order is Peat → Lignite → Bituminous → Anthracite.
Final answer: Option 4
Matter and its States · Evaporation and its factors

Q40. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct option.
Statement I: The phenomenon of change of liquid into vapours at any temperature below its boiling point is called evaporation.
Statement II: The rate of evaporation increases with an increase of surface area.

  1. (a) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
  2. (b) Both statements I and II are true.
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are false.
  4. (d) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Both statements I and II are true.

Statement I is true because evaporation is the process of liquid changing into vapour below its boiling point.
Statement II is true since increasing the surface area allows more molecules to escape, raising the evaporation rate.
Thus, both statements are correct.
Final answer: Option 2
Carbon and its Compounds · IUPAC nomenclature

Q41. Select the correct option regarding the given statements.
Statement 1: The compound CH₃–CH₂–CHO is propanone.
Statement 2: Aldehydes are named using the suffix '–al'.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
  2. (b) Both statements are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
  3. (c) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
  4. (d) Both statements are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

Statement 1: CH3–CH2–CHO is an aldehyde called propanal, not propanone.
Propanone is another name for acetone, which has the formula CH3–CO–CH3.
Statement 2: Aldehydes are correctly named with the suffix '-al'.
Therefore, Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Final answer: Option 1
Chemical Bonding · Ionic bond

Q42. Select the correct option regarding the given statements.
Statement 1: Metals and non-metals react by sharing electrons.
Statement 2: The bond formed between them is covalent.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.
  2. (b) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true.
  3. (c) Both statements are false.
  4. (d) Both statements are true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both statements are false.

Statement 1 says metals and non-metals react by sharing electrons.
This is incorrect because metals and non-metals typically react by transferring electrons, forming ionic bonds, not by sharing electrons.
Statement 2 says the bond formed between them is covalent.
This is false since the bond between metals and non-metals is ionic, not covalent.
Therefore, Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is false is not correct.
Only Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is false, but option 1 says Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false, so let's verify carefully.
Metals and non-metals generally form ionic bonds by electron transfer.
Hence Statement 1 is false.
Statement 2 claiming the bond is covalent is false.
Thus, both statements are false.
The correct option is Option 3.
Final answer: Option 1
Structure of Atom · Atomic number and mass number

Q43. The atomic number of oxygen is 8. What does this mean?

  1. (a) Oxygen has 8 protons in its orbit
  2. (b) Oxygen has 8 atoms in each molecule
  3. (c) Oxygen has 8 protons and 8 electrons
  4. (d) Oxygen has 8 neutrons in its nucleus
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Oxygen has 8 protons and 8 electrons

The atomic number is defined as the number of protons in an atom's nucleus.
For oxygen, atomic number 8 means it has 8 protons.
In a neutral oxygen atom, the number of electrons equals the number of protons, which is 8.
Hence, oxygen has 8 protons and 8 electrons.
Option 3 is correct.
Final answer: Option 3
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q44. What is the formula unit mass of sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃)?
(Atomic masses: Na = 23 u, C = 12 u, O = 16 u)

  1. (a) 62 u
  2. (b) 98 u
  3. (c) 106 u
  4. (d) 84 u
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 106 u

The formula unit mass is the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms in the formula.
Na₂CO₃ consists of 2 sodium (Na), 1 carbon (C), and 3 oxygen (O) atoms.
Calculate as: (2 × 23) + 12 + (3 × 16) = 46 + 12 + 48 = 106 u.
Re-checking the calculation: 46 + 12 + 48 = 106 u, which corresponds to Option 3.
Hence the formula unit mass is 106 u.
Final answer: Option 2
Chemical Bonding · Ionic bond

Q45. When a small piece of sodium metal is added to chlorine gas under controlled conditions, a vigorous reaction occurs producing sodium chloride. Which of the following statements best explains the reason for the stability of the product formed?

  1. (a) Sodium gains one electron from chlorine, forming a neutral molecule through mutual sharing.
  2. (b) Sodium and chlorine share one electron each, forming a stable covalent bond.
  3. (c) Sodium donates one electron to chlorine, forming oppositely charged ions held by strong electrostatic forces.
  4. (d) Both sodium and chlorine attain stability by forming a metallic lattice with delocalized electrons.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sodium donates one electron to chlorine, forming oppositely charged ions held by strong electrostatic forces.

The reaction between sodium and chlorine forms sodium chloride (NaCl).
Sodium (Na) loses one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration.
Chlorine (Cl) gains one electron to complete its outer shell.
This transfer creates Na+ and Cl- ions.
These oppositely charged ions attract each other due to strong electrostatic forces, forming an ionic bond.
This ionic bond gives the compound high stability.
Hence, sodium chloride is stable because of ionic bonding, not sharing of electrons or metallic bonding.
Final answer: Option 3
Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q46. Which method involves coating iron with a layer of zinc to protect it from rusting?

  1. (a) Galvanisation
  2. (b) Painting
  3. (c) Electroplating
  4. (d) Tinning
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Galvanisation

The process of coating iron with a layer of zinc is called Galvanisation.
Zinc acts as a protective layer, preventing rusting of iron even if the coating gets scratched.
This protection is due to zinc's higher reactivity, which corrodes first instead of iron.
Hence, Galvanisation is the standard industrial method for rust protection of iron and steel.
Final answer: Option 1
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q47. Which of the following is NOT a correct use or property of sodium hydrogen carbonate, NaHCO₃?

  1. (a) It is used as a strong acid.
  2. (b) It is used in fire extinguishers.
  3. (c) It is used in antacids.
  4. (d) It is used in baking as a leavening agent.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It is used as a strong acid.

Option 1 is correct because sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) is a weak base, not a strong acid.
Option 2 is true: it is used in dry chemical fire extinguishers due to its ability to release CO₂.
Option 3 is true: used in antacids to neutralise excess acid in the stomach.
Option 4 is true: used as a leavening agent in baking as it releases CO₂ when heated.
Hence, the only incorrect statement is that it is used as a strong acid.
Final answer: Option 1
Structure of Atom · Atomic number and mass number

Q48. Which of the following statements is F̲A̲L̲S̲E̲ ̲about mass number?

  1. (a) It represents total nucleons in the atom.
  2. (b) It may differ for isotopes of the same element.
  3. (c) It is always a whole number.
  4. (d) It is equal to twice the atomic number for all elements.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It is equal to twice the atomic number for all elements.

Option 4 is false.
Mass number represents the total number of nucleons (protons + neutrons) in an atom.
It can differ for isotopes of the same element because isotopes have the same atomic number but different neutrons.
Mass number is always a whole number, as it is a count of particles.
Mass number is not equal to twice the atomic number; this is not true for all elements.
Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Final answer: Option 4
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q49. Which statement is INCORRECT about isobars?

  1. (a) They have the same number of protons.
  2. (b) They have the same mass number.
  3. (c) Their number of neutrons is different.
  4. (d) They have different chemical properties.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They have the same number of protons.

Isobars are atoms of different elements having the same mass number.
Hence, their number of protons (atomic number) must be different.
Therefore, the statement 'They have the same number of protons' is incorrect about isobars.
All other statements are correct for isobars.
Final answer: Option 1
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