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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 9 March 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 50 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 9 March 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Static GK, Modern History, Polity, Geography, Physics.

📚 50 questions🗓️ 9 March 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (3) · Static GK (3) · Modern History (1) · Polity (2) · Geography (1) · Physics (14) · Biology (13) · Chemistry (13)

Current Affairs (3)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q1. In which state was the 22ⁿ ᵈ All India TDS Conference organised to review Income Tax Act amendments?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Maharshtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

The22ⁿᵈ All India TDS Conferencewas organised inMadhya Pradesh.
It focused on reviewingIncome Tax Act amendmentsand improving TDS compliance.
Such conferences help in strengtheningtax administration and awareness.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q2. Where was the 30 ᵗ ʰ Senior Women’s National Football Championship – Rajmata Jijabai Trophy final match played?

  1. (a) Narainpur
  2. (b) Bilaspur
  3. (c) Raipur
  4. (d) Raigarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Narainpur

The30ᵗʰ Senior Women’s National Football Championship (Rajmata Jijabai Trophy)final was held inNarainpur, Chhattisgarh.
Narainpur has emerged as asports hub, especially for football development.
Hence, the correct answer is(a) Narainpur.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q3. Which agency has bagged a Transfer of Technology (ToT) deal, valued at ₹511 crore, from the Indian Space Research Organisation, to build and operate Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs)?

  1. (a) Larsen & Toubro
  2. (b) Bharat Dynamics Limited
  3. (c) Adani Defence
  4. (d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

TheTransfer of Technology (ToT) deal worth ₹511 crorefor SSLV was given byISRO.
This deal was awarded toHindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
HAL will be responsible forbuilding and operating Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs).
This step aims toboost private/public sector participation in space technology.

Static GK (3)

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q4. On which date was Engineers’ Day observed in India in 2025?

  1. (a) 16 September
  2. (b) 14 September
  3. (c) 15 September
  4. (d) 13 September
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 15 September

Engineers' Day in India is observed every year on 15 September.
This date commemorates the birth anniversary of Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, a notable Indian engineer.
Therefore, in 2025, Engineers' Day will be observed on 15 September.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Indian Railways · History of Indian Railways

Q5. The inaugural railway line in the Indian subcontinent was opened in 1853 between between which two locations?

  1. (a) Patna and Gaya
  2. (b) Jaipur and Ajmer
  3. (c) Surat and Bharuch
  4. (d) Bombay and Thane
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bombay and Thane

The first railway line in the Indian subcontinent was opened in 1853.
It connected Bombay (now Mumbai) and Thane.
This marked the beginning of the railway era in India.
The initial railway journey covered a distance of about 34 kilometres.
Hence, the correct answer is Bombay and Thane.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q6. Which of the following classical music instruments did Ustad Bismillah Khan mostly popularise?

  1. (a) Shehnai
  2. (b) Sitar
  3. (c) Veena
  4. (d) Tabla
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shehnai

Ustad Bismillah Khan is famous for popularising the Shehnai.
He brought this classical wind instrument to the concert stage nationally and internationally.
He is regarded as the greatest Shehnai player in Indian classical music.
Hence, the correct answer is Shehnai.

Modern History (1)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q7. The Ramosi Revolt was led by which tribal leader in 1822 against Britishers?

  1. (a) Chittur Singh
  2. (b) Bakshi Jagabandhu
  3. (c) Kittur Chennamma
  4. (d) Veer Surendra Sai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chittur Singh

The Ramosi Revolt in 1822 was led by Chittur Singh.
He was a tribal leader who fought against British rule in India.
Other options are leaders of different revolts or areas.
Therefore, the correct answer is Chittur Singh.

Polity (2)

Amendments and Important Articles · Basic structure doctrine

Q8. Which of the following 1973 landmark judgments of the Supreme Court of India provided that Parliament cannot amend the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution through amendments?

  1. (a) Minerva Mills Case
  2. (b) Golakhnath Case
  3. (c) Champakam Dorairanjan Case
  4. (d) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kesavananda Bharati Case

The Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) is a landmark Supreme Court judgment.
It established the 'basic structure' doctrine of the Indian Constitution.
The Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution's basic structure.
This ruling limits Parliament's power in constitutional amendments.
Hence, option 4 is correct.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q9. Which of the following is NOT one of the valid ways to acquire Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?

  1. (a) By descent
  2. (b) By registration
  3. (c) By marriage
  4. (d) By birth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By marriage

Option 3 is correct.
Indian citizenship can be acquired by birth, descent, registration, or naturalisation under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Marriage to an Indian citizen does not automatically confer citizenship.
Therefore, acquiring citizenship 'By marriage' is NOT a valid method under the Act.

Geography (1)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Indian monsoon - mechanism

Q10. Which of the following cities experiences the retreat of Monsoon last?

  1. (a) Jaipur
  2. (b) Chennai
  3. (c) Ahmedabad
  4. (d) Mumbai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chennai

Thesouthwest monsoon retreats from northwest India first(Rajasthan, Gujarat, etc.).
It withdraws gradually towards thesouth-east coast.
Tamil Nadu coast (Chennai)is thelast regionto experience the retreat.
Chennai also receivesNortheast Monsoon rainfall, so withdrawal happens last here.

Physics (14)

Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q11. A 90 W electric bulb does how much work in 10 seconds?

  1. (a) 9000 J
  2. (b) 9 J
  3. (c) 900 J
  4. (d) 90 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 900 J

Power (P) = 90 W means 90 joules of work done per second.
Work done (W) = Power × Time
Time = 10 seconds
So, Work done = 90 × 10 = 900 joules.
Therefore, a 90 W bulb does 900 joules of work in 10 seconds.
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q12. A body covers a straight-line distance of 10 m from point A to B in 5 s and then covers back the distance from point B to point A along the same straight path in 5 s. How much will be the average speed of the body?

  1. (a) 200 m/s
  2. (b) 0.5 m/s
  3. (c) 2 m/s
  4. (d) 5 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2 m/s

The total distance covered is from A to B and back from B to A
10 m + 10 m = 20 m.
The total time taken is 5 s + 5 s = 10 s.
Average speed = (Total distance)/(Total time) = (20 m)/(10 s) = (2 m)/(s.)
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q13. A body moves 6 km towards the east in 1 hour and then 8 km towards the west in the next 1 hour. The average velocity of the body for the whole journey is ___________ .

  1. (a) 1 km/h west
  2. (b) 1 km/h east
  3. (c) 0
  4. (d) 7 km/h east
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 km/h west

Solution:
First 1 hour: 6 km east; next 1 hour: 8 km west.
Net displacement = 6 − 8 =−2 km⇒2 km west.
Total time =2 hours⇒ Average velocity = displacement / time = (−2) / 2 =−1 km/h.
Negative sign shows west direction ⇒1 km/h west.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Concave mirror - image formation and uses

Q14. A concave mirror produces a virtual, erect and magnified image when the object is positioned _________.

  1. (a) Between the focus and the pole
  2. (b) Between the centre of curvature and the focus
  3. (c) Beyond the centre of curvature
  4. (d) At the principal focus
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Between the focus and the pole

A concave mirror produces a virtual, erect and magnified image only when the object is placed between the focus and the pole of the mirror.
This region lies in front of the mirror but closer than the focal point.
In this position, reflected rays diverge and appear to come from behind the mirror, forming a virtual image.
Hence, the correct position is between the focus and the pole.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q15. A device has a resistance of 75 Ω and carries a current of 4 A. The power dissipated is _______.

  1. (a) 18.75 W
  2. (b) 300 W
  3. (c) 1400 W
  4. (d) 1200 W
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1200 W

Correct option: 2
Power dissipated in a device (P) is given by the formula: P = I² × R
Given, current I = 4 A, resistance R = 75 Ω
Calculate power: P = 4² × 75 = 16 × 75 = 1200 W
Check calculation again: yes, 1200 W is correct
Among the given options, 1200 W is option 4, not option 2
Re-evaluated carefully: 4² = 16
16 × 75 = 1200 W
Correct power dissipated is 1200 W .
Motion · Speed and velocity

Q16. For a body moving with uniform acceleration, average velocity equals ______.

  1. (a) Zero
  2. (b) (Initial velocity + Final velocity)/2
  3. (c) Initial velocity
  4. (d) Final velocity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) (Initial velocity + Final velocity)/2

Average velocity under uniform acceleration is the mean of initial and final velocities.
This means average velocity = (Initial velocity + Final velocity) / 2.
Hence, option 2 is correct.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q17. If 12 J of work is done to move a charge of 2 C between two points, what is the potential difference between these points?

  1. (a) 24 V
  2. (b) 14 V
  3. (c) 10 V
  4. (d) 6 V
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 6 V

Work done (W) = 12 J
Charge (Q) = 2 C
Potential difference (V) is given by V = W / Q
Substitute the values: V = 12 / 2 = 6
Check options carefully and re-calculate if necessary:
Since V = 6 volts, correct option is 4
Re-checking calculations shows V = 6 V is correct
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q18. The gravitational force between two masses increases when ________.

  1. (a) The product of their masses increases
  2. (b) The distance between them increases
  3. (c) They are kept in water
  4. (d) Their masses decrease
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The product of their masses increases

Correct option: 1
The gravitational force (F) between two masses (m1 and m2) is given by Newton's law of gravitation:
F = G × (m1 × m2) / r², where G is the gravitational constant and r is the distance between the masses.
From the formula, force increases when the product of the masses increases or when the distance decreases.
Option 1 states that the product of their masses increases, so gravitational force increases.
Option 2 is incorrect: increasing the distance decreases the force.
Option 3 is irrelevant to gravitational force.
Option 4 is incorrect: decreasing masses decreases the force.
Therefore, the gravitational force increases when the product of their masses increases.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q19. The magnitude of force on a conductor in a magnetic field increases when _______.

  1. (a) Current increases
  2. (b) Length decreases
  3. (c) Magnetic field decreases
  4. (d) Current decreases
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Current increases

The force on a conductor in a magnetic field is given by the formula:
F = BIL sin θ, where F is force, B is magnetic field strength, I is current, L is length of conductor, and θ is angle.
From the formula, force is directly proportional to the current flowing through the conductor.
Increasing current increases the force acting on the conductor.
Therefore, the force increases when the current increases.
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q20. The motion of the moon around the earth requires a centripetal force, which is provided by _____________.

  1. (a) The inertia of the moon
  2. (b) The thrust of the sun
  3. (c) The force of attraction of the earth
  4. (d) The internal forces of the moon
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The force of attraction of the earth

The moon revolves around the Earth due to centripetal force.
This force is the gravitational attraction exerted by the Earth on the moon.
Hence, it is the force of attraction of the Earth that keeps the moon in orbit.
Other options like inertia or forces of the moon itself do not provide centripetal force.
The sun's thrust is not responsible for the moon's motion around the Earth.
Therefore, the correct answer is the force of attraction of the Earth.
Gravitation · Numericals on gravitation

Q21. The weight of a body on the moon is 3 N. What will be the weight of the body on Earth?

  1. (a) 0.5 N
  2. (b) 3 N
  3. (c) 18 N
  4. (d) 2 N
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18 N

Weight on the moon is 1/6th of the weight on Earth.
Given weight on moon = 3 N.
Therefore, weight on Earth = 3 × 6 = 18 N.
Sound and Waves · Human ear and sound production

Q22. Vibration, which produces sound, is defined as a kind of rapid _____________.

  1. (a) To and fro motion of an object
  2. (b) Linear forward motion
  3. (c) Slow lateral motion
  4. (d) Single directional displacement
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To and fro motion of an object

The correct option is 1.
Vibration that produces sound is the rapid to and fro motion of an object.
This motion causes waves in the surrounding medium which we perceive as sound.
Other options like linear forward motion or slow lateral motion do not define vibration producing sound.
Hence, option 1 is correct for the definition of vibration that produces sound.
Sound and Waves · Range of hearing, infrasonic and ultrasonic sound

Q23. What is the audible frequency range for human beings?

  1. (a) 200 Hz to 200,000 Hz
  2. (b) 2 Hz to 200 Hz
  3. (c) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
  4. (d) 20 kHz to 200 kHz
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

The audible frequency range for human beings is the range of sound frequencies that the average human ear can hear.
This range typically starts at about 20 Hz and goes up to about 20,000 Hz (20 kHz).
Frequencies below 20 Hz are called infrasound and those above 20,000 Hz are ultrasound, which humans cannot hear.
Therefore, the audible frequency range is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q24. Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about the loudness and softness of a sound wave?
(i) A loud sound has more amplitude as compared to a soft sound.
(ii) A loud sound has lesser energy associated with it as compared to a soft sound.
(iii) Loudness of sound wave is the measure of the response of our heart to the sound.

  1. (a) Both (ii) and (iii)
  2. (b) Both (i) and (iii)
  3. (c) Only (i)
  4. (d) Only (ii)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both (ii) and (iii)

Statement (i) is correct: Loud sounds have greater amplitude than soft sounds.
Statement (ii) is incorrect: A loud sound has more energy, not less, compared to a soft sound.
Statement (iii) is incorrect: Loudness is related to the intensity of sound perceived by the ear, not the heart's response.
Hence, statements (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.

Biology (13)

Reproduction · Asexual reproduction (fission, budding, fragmentation, spores)

Q25. A student notices that Hydra creates new organisms by developing small protrusions on its body, which eventually detach. What kind of reproduction is this?

  1. (a) Regeneration
  2. (b) Sexual reproduction
  3. (c) Budding
  4. (d) Parthenogenesis
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Budding

The process where Hydra develops small protrusions on its body which eventually detach is called budding.
Budding is a form of asexual reproduction.
In this method, a new individual grows out from the parent organism and separates when mature.
Hence, the type of reproduction described is budding.
Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q26. In some plants, a meristematic tissue is found at the base of leaves or near the nodes, separating regions of a mature tissue. Which tissue is this?

  1. (a) Differentiated tissue
  2. (b) Lateral meristem
  3. (c) Intercalary meristem
  4. (d) Apical meristem
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Intercalary meristem

The tissue found at the base of leaves or near the nodes is called intercalary meristem.
It helps in the growth of the plant by adding length between mature tissues.
Lateral meristem is responsible for thickness, and apical meristem is found at tips of roots and shoots.
Differentiated tissue has specialised functions and does not grow like meristematic tissue.
Therefore, the correct answer is intercalary meristem.
Cell - Structure and Function · Plastids

Q27. Plastids, which are found only in plant cells, help in:

  1. (a) photosynthesis and storage
  2. (b) transport
  3. (c) excretion
  4. (d) respiration
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) photosynthesis and storage

Plastids are organelles found only in plant cells.
They are involved mainly in photosynthesis and storage of food.
Chloroplasts (a type of plastid) carry out photosynthesis.
Other plastids store starch or pigments.
Therefore, plastids help in photosynthesis and storage.
Reproduction · Reproductive health and contraception

Q28. Sexual maturation in humans results in:

  1. (a) Decrease in hormone levels and loss of reproductive organs
  2. (b) Loss of reproductive capacity and growth
  3. (c) Only physical growth
  4. (d) Development of reproductive organs and secondary sexual characteristics
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Development of reproductive organs and secondary sexual characteristics

Sexual maturation in humans involves the development of reproductive organs.
It also includes the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics like hair growth, voice changes, etc.
This stage marks reproductive capability, not a loss of it.
Hence, option 4 correctly describes sexual maturation.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Apiculture and sericulture

Q29. The quality and taste of honey mainly depends on which of the following factors?

  1. (a) Type and availability of flowers
  2. (b) Type of beehive
  3. (c) Number of worker bees in the colony
  4. (d) Age of the bees
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Type and availability of flowers

The quality and taste of honey primarily depend on the floral source.
Different types and availability of flowers determine the nectar collected by bees.
This nectar influences the flavour, colour, and aroma of honey produced.
Therefore, type and availability of flowers are the main factors affecting honey quality and taste.
Other options like beehive type, number of worker bees, or bees' age have minor or indirect effects.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Apiculture and sericulture

Q30. What factor primarily influences the quality and quantity of honey produced in bee farming?

  1. (a) The colour of the bees
  2. (b) The size of the beehive used only
  3. (c) The temperature inside the beehive alone
  4. (d) Flower types and their abundance for nectar gathering
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Flower types and their abundance for nectar gathering

Option 4 is correct.
The quality and quantity of honey primarily depend on the types of flowers and their abundance because bees collect nectar from these flowers.
Different flowers provide different nectar which affects taste and amount of honey.
Bee hive temperature, size, or colour of bees have less impact compared to flower availability.
Hence, flower types and their abundance are the key factors in honey production.
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q31. Which of the following can happen when non-biodegradable waste is dumped into water bodies?

  1. (a) It cleans the water.
  2. (b) It helps aquatic plants grow.
  3. (c) It pollutes the water and harms aquatic life.
  4. (d) It quickly dissolves in water.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It pollutes the water and harms aquatic life.

Non-biodegradable waste does not break down naturally.
When dumped into water bodies, it pollutes the water.
This pollution harms aquatic plants and animals.
It does not clean the water or help plants to grow.
Such waste does not dissolve quickly in water.
Therefore, the correct effect is pollution and harm to aquatic life.
Cell - Structure and Function · Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes

Q32. Which of the following distinguishes the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum from the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?

  1. (a) SER synthesizes proteins only.
  2. (b) RER stores lipids.
  3. (c) SER is rich in ribosomes.
  4. (d) RER has ribosomes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) RER has ribosomes.

The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is characterised by the presence of ribosomes on its surface.
These ribosomes give it a 'rough' appearance under a microscope.
The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) does not have ribosomes and is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification.
Hence, the key distinction is that RER has ribosomes attached.
Correct option is 4 as it states 'RER has ribosomes'.
This clearly distinguishes RER from SER.
Tissues · Muscular tissue

Q33. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of skeletal muscle?

  1. (a) Single, central nucleus
  2. (b) Striated appearance
  3. (c) Non-striated appearance
  4. (d) Involuntary control
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Striated appearance

Skeletal musclesarevoluntary musclesattached to bones.
They show adistinct striated (striped) patternunder the microscope.
They havemultiple nuclei, not a single central nucleus.
Hence, the correct feature isstriated appearance.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Heart - structure and functioning

Q34. Which of the following statements correctly describes the transportation of blood from the heart to the lungs?

  1. (a) Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs.
  2. (b) Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the left ventricle to the lungs.
  3. (c) Oxygenated blood is carried from the lungs to the right atrium.
  4. (d) Oxygenated blood flows from the left ventricle to the lungs for purification.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs.

The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood towards the lungs for oxygenation.
Blood travels from the right ventricle through the pulmonary artery to lungs.
The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the body, not the lungs.
Therefore, only option 1 correctly describes blood flow from heart to lungs.
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q35. Which statement correctly explains the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?

  1. (a) They directly provide food to carnivores
  2. (b) They convert inorganic substances into complex organic compounds
  3. (c) They recycle nutrients by breaking down dead organisms into simple substances
  4. (d) They absorb sunlight to produce energy-rich compounds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They recycle nutrients by breaking down dead organisms into simple substances

Option 3 is correct because decomposers break down dead plants and animals.
This process releases nutrients back into the soil in a simple form.
These nutrients are then reused by producers in the ecosystem.
Thus, decomposers play a key role in nutrient recycling.
Other options are incorrect as decomposers do not provide food directly to carnivores, convert inorganic to organic substances, or absorb sunlight for energy.
Hence, the correct explanation is nutrient recycling by decomposition.
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q36. Which structural characteristic allows epithelial tissue to function as a protective layer?

  1. (a) Cells are loosely arranged with abundant extracellular matrix.
  2. (b) Cells are tightly packed with minimal intercellular space.
  3. (c) Cells are connected exclusively by desmosomes.
  4. (d) Cells are long and multinucleated.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cells are tightly packed with minimal intercellular space.

The key to epithelial tissue's protective role is its structural arrangement.
Epithelial cells are tightly packed with minimal space between them.
This tight packing forms a continuous protective barrier that prevents entry of pathogens and reduces injury.
Option 2 describes this characteristic accurately.
Other options do not provide the structural basis for protection.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q37. Which tissue in plants is primarily responsible for storage and basic metabolic functions in mature organs?

  1. (a) Parenchyma
  2. (b) Epidermis
  3. (c) Collenchyma
  4. (d) Sclerenchyma
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Parenchyma

The tissue responsible for storage and basic metabolic processes in mature plant organs is Parenchyma.
Parenchyma cells are living cells with thin walls.
They store food, water and also help in photosynthesis and wound healing.
Epidermis primarily protects the plant surface.
Collenchyma provides mechanical support in growing parts.
Sclerenchyma provides support in mature parts but is mainly for mechanical strength, not storage.
Hence, Parenchyma is the correct answer.

Chemistry (13)

Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q38. An element X has two isotopes: ₆X¹² and ₆X¹⁴. Both are electrically neutral and chemically identical, but one of them is unstable and radioactive. Which of the following statements best explains why ₆X¹⁴ is radioactive, even though both isotopes have the same number of protons and electrons?

  1. (a) Because ₆X¹⁴ has more electrons than protons, leading to instability in electron distribution
  2. (b) Because ₆X¹⁴ has equal numbers of protons and neutrons, making it energetically unstable
  3. (c) Because ₆X¹⁴ has excess neutrons, causing imbalance in nuclear forces
  4. (d) Because ₆X¹⁴ has a smaller nucleus that cannot hold neutrons tightly, resulting in spontaneous decay
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Because ₆X¹⁴ has excess neutrons, causing imbalance in nuclear forces

Correct option: 3
Isotopes have the same number of protons and electrons but differ in neutron number.
₆ X¹² has 6 protons and 6 neutrons; ₆X¹⁴ has 6 protons and 8 neutrons.
Excess neutrons in ₆X¹⁴ cause imbalance in nuclear force, leading to instability.
This nuclear imbalance results in radioactive decay to reach a stable state.
Hence, ₆X¹⁴ is radioactive due to excess neutrons.
Other options incorrectly relate instability to electrons, equal protons and neutrons, or nucleus size.
Carbon and its Compounds · Ethanol and ethanoic acid

Q39. Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to produce:

  1. (a) Sodium acetate, carbon dioxide, and water
  2. (b) Sodium hydroxide and CO₂
  3. (c) Sodium acetate and carbon monoxide
  4. (d) Sodium acetate, hydrogen, and water
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sodium acetate, carbon dioxide, and water

Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) reacts with sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) as an acid-base reaction.
This produces sodium acetate (CH3COONa), carbon dioxide (CO2), and water (H2O).
Reaction: 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Hence, the correct products are sodium acetate, carbon dioxide, and water.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Writing and balancing chemical equations

Q40. In the chemical equation xPb(NO₃)₂(s) → yPbO(s) + zNO₂(g) + wO₂(g), what are the values of x, y, z and w?

  1. (a) x = 2 ; y = 4 ; z = 2 ; w = 1
  2. (b) x = 2 ; y = 1 ; z = 4 ; w = 2
  3. (c) x = 2 ; y = 2 ; z = 4 ; w = 1
  4. (d) x = 1 ; y = 2 ; z = 3 ; w = 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) x = 2 ; y = 2 ; z = 4 ; w = 1

The reaction is the thermal decomposition of lead nitrate: Pb(NO₃)₂ (s) → PbO (s) + NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g).
Balance Pb atoms: left 1 Pb, right 1 Pb → x = y.
Balance N atoms: Left has 2 N per Pb(NO₃)₂, so 2x N atoms.
Right side NO₂ has z N atoms → z = 2x.
Balance O atoms:
Left: Each Pb(NO₃)₂ has 6 O atoms × x = 6x O atoms.
Right: PbO has y O atoms = y O atoms.
NO₂ has 2 O atoms each × z = 2z O atoms.
O₂ has 2 O atoms each × w = 2w O atoms.
So, total O on right = y + 2z + 2w = 6x.
Use x = y and z = 2x:
y + 2(2x) + 2w = 6x
x + 4x + 2w = 6x
5x + 2w = 6x
2w = 6x − 5x = x
w = x/2.
Since w must be integer, choose x=2 for smallest integer values.
Then:
x=2, y=2, z=4, w=1.
Hence balanced equation: 2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q41. Read the following three statements and choose the correct option:
Statement I: Formula unit mass is applicable only to ionic compounds, not covalent ones.
Statement II: Formula unit mass is the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms in the empirical formula of an ionic compound.
Statement III: The formula unit mass of sodium chloride (NaCl) is 58.5 u.

  1. (a) Only II and III are correct.
  2. (b) Only I and III are correct.
  3. (c) Only I and II are correct.
  4. (d) All I, II and III are correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) All I, II and III are correct.

Statement I:Formula unit mass is used forionic compounds only(like NaCl), while covalent compounds usemolecular mass→ Correct.
Statement II:It is defined as thesum of atomic masses of atoms in the empirical formula→ Correct.
Statement III:NaCl = 23 (Na) + 35.5 (Cl) =58.5 u→ Correct.
Hence,all three statements are correct.
Structure of Atom · Thomson's model

Q42. Thomson’s model is often referred to as the 'plum pudding model'. In this analogy, what does the 'plum' represent?

  1. (a) Protons
  2. (b) Neutrons
  3. (c) Alpha particles
  4. (d) Electrons
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Electrons

Thomson’s model likens the atom to a plum pudding.
The 'plum' represents electrons embedded in a positively charged 'pudding'.
Thus, electrons are the discrete negatively charged parts scattered inside the atom in this model.
Hence, the 'plum' stands for electrons.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Neutralisation reaction

Q43. Which of the following are produced when a metal oxide reacts with an acid?

  1. (a) Salt and water
  2. (b) Salt and oxygen gas
  3. (c) Salt and carbon dioxide
  4. (d) Salt and hydrogen gas
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Salt and water

When a metal oxide reacts with an acid, it undergoes a neutralisation reaction.
This reaction produces salt and water as products.
Metal oxide (basic oxide) + Acid → Salt + Water
Hence, the correct answer is salt and water.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Oxidation, reduction and redox reactions

Q44. Which of the following best defines reduction in a redox reaction?

  1. (a) Gain of both oxygen and electrons
  2. (b) Gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen
  3. (c) Gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen
  4. (d) Loss of electrons only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen

Reduction in a redox reaction refers to the process where a substance gains hydrogen or loses oxygen.
This is because gaining hydrogen typically means gaining electrons, and losing oxygen also indicates gaining electrons.
Hence, option 3 correctly defines reduction.
Other options are incorrect as reduction is not just loss of electrons nor gain of oxygen.
Therefore, the best definition is 'Gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen'.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q45. Which of the following compounds obeys the Law of Constant Proportions?

  1. (a) Air
  2. (b) Water
  3. (c) Soil
  4. (d) Brass
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Water

Correct option: 2
The Law of Constant Proportions states that a chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same fixed ratio by mass, regardless of the source or preparation method.
Among the options:
- Air is a mixture, not a compound, so it does not obey the law.
- Water (H2O) is a compound with a fixed ratio of hydrogen to oxygen by mass (approximately 1:8).
- Soil is a mixture of various substances, varies in composition.
- Brass is an alloy, a mixture of copper and zinc in varying proportions.
Therefore, water obeys the Law of Constant Proportions.
Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q46. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of all organic compounds?

  1. (a) They always contain oxygen
  2. (b) They always form ionic bonds
  3. (c) They always contain nitrogen
  4. (d) They always contain carbon
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They always contain carbon

Correct option is 4.
All organic compounds contain carbon as the basic element.
Presence of carbon distinguishes organic compounds from inorganic ones.
Other elements like oxygen or nitrogen may be present but are not always present.
Organic compounds typically form covalent bonds, not ionic.
Hence, carbon presence is the defining feature of all organic compounds.
Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q47. Which of the following metals forms an amphoteric oxide when reacting with air?

  1. (a) Potassium
  2. (b) Sodium
  3. (c) Calcium
  4. (d) Aluminium
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Aluminium

Correct option is 4: Aluminium.
Aluminium reacts with air forming aluminium oxide (Al2O3).
Aluminium oxide is amphoteric − it can react with both acids and bases.
Potassium, sodium, and calcium oxides are strongly basic, not amphoteric.
Hence, aluminium forms an amphoteric oxide on reacting with air.
Periodic Classification of Elements · Element facts (names, symbols, atomic numbers)

Q48. Which of the following pairs of element names and symbols is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Mercury – Me
  2. (b) Tin – Sn
  3. (c) Silver – S
  4. (d) Lead – Ld
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tin – Sn

Correct option is 2: Tin – Sn.
Symbol 'Sn' comes from the Latin name 'Stannum' for tin.
Mercury's symbol is 'Hg', not 'Me'.
Silver's symbol is 'Ag', not 'S'.
Lead's symbol is 'Pb', not 'Ld'.
Therefore, only Tin – Sn is correctly matched.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Solutions, solubility and concentration

Q49. Which of the following statement about a solution is correct?

  1. (a) A solution is a heterogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
  2. (b) The solute in a solution settles down on standing.
  3. (c) A solution is a homogeneous mixture in which the solute particles are not visible to the naked eye.
  4. (d) The solute in a solution is always present in a greater amount than the solvent.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A solution is a homogeneous mixture in which the solute particles are not visible to the naked eye.

Option 3 is correct.
A solution is a homogeneous mixture, meaning the composition is uniform throughout.
The solute particles in a solution are dissolved and too small to be seen with the naked eye.
Option 1 is incorrect because a solution is not heterogeneous; heterogeneous mixtures have visible different components.
Option 2 is incorrect because solutes in a true solution do not settle on standing.
Option 4 is incorrect since in a solution the solute is present in a lesser amount than the solvent.
Therefore, statement 3 correctly describes a solution.
Metals and Non-metals · Reactivity series

Q50. Which of the following statements correctly explains the position of sodium (Na) in the activity series of metals?

  1. (a) Sodium is less reactive than copper and cannot displace it from salt solution.
  2. (b) Sodium does not react with water, hence placed at the bottom of the series.
  3. (c) Sodium is less reactive than hydrogen and hence placed below it.
  4. (d) Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen and displaces it from acid.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen and displaces it from acid.

Sodium (Na) is a highly reactive metal.
It is more reactive than hydrogen in the activity series.
Hence, sodium can displace hydrogen from acids during chemical reactions.
This is why sodium is placed above hydrogen in the activity series of metals.
Therefore, Option 4 is the correct explanation.
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