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Amendments and Important Articles PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

85 Amendments and Important Articles (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 85 questionsSSC 31 · Railway 54
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 15 September 2026 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q1. Which of the following statements best describes the primary objective and constitutional impact of the 45th Amendment Act, 1980?

  1. (a) It abolished the power of the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
  2. (b) It extended the duration of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five years to six years during the Emergency period.
  3. (c) It extended the period of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as the reservation of special representation for Anglo-Indians, for an additional ten years beyond the original period.
  4. (d) It inserted the Fundamental Right to Education into the Constitution, making education a justiciable right for all children
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It extended the period of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as the reservation of special representation for Anglo-Indians, for an additional ten years beyond the original period.

Answer: Option 3 — It extended the period of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes … for an additional ten years
The 45th Amendment Act, 1980 amended Article 334 to extend the reservation of seats for SCs and STs and the nomination of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies by ten years — from 1980 to 1990.
Article 334 was originally meant to lapse ten years after the Constitution commenced, and it has been extended every decade since.
Revision note — Article 334 and its extensions
• Article 334 fixes a time limit for the reservation of seats (Articles 330 and 332) and Anglo-Indian nomination (Articles 331 and 333).
• Extensions by ten years each: 8th Amendment (1959) to 1970, 23rd (1969) to 1980, 45th (1980) to 1990, 62nd (1989) to 2000, 79th (1999) to 2010, 95th (2009) to 2020, 104th (2019) to 2030.
• The 104th Amendment (2019) extended only the SC/ST reservation; it ended the Anglo-Indian nomination to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
• Option 2 describes the 42nd Amendment (1976), which raised the term of the Lok Sabha and Assemblies to six years; the 44th Amendment (1978) restored it to five years.
• Option 4 describes the 86th Amendment (2002), which inserted Article 21A (right to education for children aged 6 to 14).
• The President's ordinance power (Article 123) has never been abolished; the 38th Amendment (1975) had made his satisfaction final, which the 44th Amendment undid.
Do not mix these up
• 95th vs 104th Amendment — both extended Article 334, but only the 104th dropped the Anglo-Indian seats.
• 42nd vs 44th Amendment — the 42nd lengthened the Lok Sabha term to six years; the 44th brought it back to five.
Also asked from this topic: the period by which the 95th Amendment (2009) extended the reservation (ten years, to 2020); the amendment that ended Anglo-Indian nomination (104th, 2019); the Article reserving SC and ST seats in the Lok Sabha (Article 330).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 11 September 2026 Shift 1 · Basic structure doctrine

Q2. What does the 'basic structure doctrine' established by the Supreme Court hold?

  1. (a) All Parliament amendments are valid
  2. (b) Parliament cannot alter the core identity of the Constitution
  3. (c) Any emergency can alter rights
  4. (d) None of the above
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament cannot alter the core identity of the Constitution

Answer: Option 2 — Parliament cannot alter the core identity of the Constitution
The basic structure doctrine was laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).
Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, but it cannot destroy or alter the basic structure.
Revision note — The basic structure doctrine
• Delivered on 24 April 1973 by the largest bench ever assembled in India — 13 judges — by a majority of 7:6, headed by Chief Justice S. M. Sikri.
• It overruled Golaknath (1967), which had held that Parliament could not abridge Fundamental Rights at all.
• The doctrine is nowhere written in the Constitution; the Court evolved it, and there is no closed list of basic features.
• The same judgment held for the first time that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, reversing Berubari Union (1960).
• Features recognised as basic include supremacy of the Constitution, rule of law, judicial review, secularism, federalism, free and fair elections and separation of powers.
• In Minerva Mills (1980) the Court struck down Article 368(4) and (5) inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976), holding that limited amending power is itself a basic feature.
• Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) was the first case in which a constitutional amendment (the 39th) was struck down using the doctrine.
Do not mix these up
• Kesavananda Bharati (1973) vs Golaknath (1967) — Golaknath barred any amendment of Fundamental Rights; Kesavananda allowed amendment but only outside the basic structure.
• Article 368 vs Article 13 — Article 368 grants the amending power; Article 13 voids ordinary laws that violate Fundamental Rights.
Also asked from this topic: the case that laid down the doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973); the case that first held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution (the same); the amending article (368).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q3. The translation in Hindi of every Constitutional Amendment Act was inserted through which Amendment Act?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  2. (b) 58th Amendment Act, 1987
  3. (c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  4. (d) 61st Amendment Act, 1989
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 58th Amendment Act, 1987

Answer: Option 2 — 58th Amendment Act, 1987
The 58th Amendment Act, 1987 inserted Article 394A, which directs the President to publish an authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi.
The same article covers the Hindi text of every amendment made to the Constitution, and gives that text the same legal force as the English original.
Revision note — Official language and the amendments in the options
• Article 394A sits in Part XXII (Articles 392–395), the closing part on short title, commencement, authoritative Hindi text and repeals.
• Article 343 declares Hindi in the Devanagari script the official language of the Union, with the international form of Indian numerals.
• Part XVII (Articles 343–351) is the part on Official Language; English continues as an associate official language.
• Article 348 keeps English as the language of the Supreme Court and the High Courts and of Bills and Acts; Article 351 directs the spread of Hindi.
• The Eighth Schedule now lists 22 languages; it began with 14.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 — the Mini Constitution: added Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble and inserted Fundamental Duties (Article 51A).
• 44th Amendment Act, 1978 — took the right to property out of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
• 61st Amendment Act, 1989 — cut the voting age from 21 to 18 years under Article 326.
Do not mix these up
• Article 343 vs Article 394A — 343 names Hindi the official language; 394A provides the authoritative Hindi text of the Constitution itself.
• 58th vs 61st Amendment — the 58th (1987) is the Hindi text; the 61st (1989) is the voting age.
Also asked from this topic: the article declaring Hindi the official language (Article 343); the Part dealing with Official Language (Part XVII); the Mini Constitution (42nd, 1976).
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 June 2026 Shift 3 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q4. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India specifies the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 352
  2. (b) Article 370
  3. (c) Article 356
  4. (d) Article 368
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 368

Topic: Constitutional Amendment Power
Article 368deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for constitutional amendments.
Other Articles:
Article 352 → National Emergency
Article 370 → Special status to J&K (now abrogated)
Article 356 → President's Rule in states
Answer: Option 4 → Article 368
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q5. Which of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India allows both the centre and states to levy the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  1. (a) 80th Amendment, 2000
  2. (b) 67th Amendment, 1990
  3. (c) 74th Amendment, 1992
  4. (d) 101st Amendment, 2016
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 101st Amendment, 2016

Topic: Constitutional Amendment for GST
The101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016introduced GST in India.
Key provisions:
• Enabled both Centre and States to levy GST concurrently
• Added Article 246A for dual taxation power
• Established GST Council under Article 279A
• Subsumed multiple indirect taxes into single GST
Other options: 80th (2000) - Service Tax, 67th (1990) - Reservation, 74th (1992) - Municipalities
Answer: Option 4 → 101st Amendment, 2016
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 June 2026 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q6. The Twenty-Ninth Amendment Act of 1972 included which of the following in the Ninth Schedule?

  1. (a) Reservation in promotions
  2. (b) Two Kerala Acts on land reforms
  3. (c) Environmental protection laws
  4. (d) Special provisions for Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Two Kerala Acts on land reforms

Twenty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1972
Purpose: Added two Kerala land reform Acts to theNinth Schedule
Acts included:
1. Kerala Land Reforms (Amendment) Act, 1969
2. Kerala Land Reforms (Amendment) Act, 1971
Significance: Protection from judicial review under Article 31B
Note: Ninth Schedule protects laws related to land reforms and abolition of zamindari system
Answer: Option 2 → Two Kerala Acts on land reforms
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 3 · Basic structure doctrine

Q7. In which case did the Supreme Court lay down the principle that Parliament cannot alter the 'basic structure' of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Golaknath case
  2. (b) Shankari Prasad case
  3. (c) Minerva Mills case
  4. (d) Kesavananda Bharati case
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kesavananda Bharati case

Topic: Constitutional Law - Basic Structure Doctrine
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)- Landmark judgment
Supreme Court ruled Parliament cannot alter the
'basic structure'of the Constitution through amendments.
This doctrine limits Parliament's amending power under
Article 368 to protect Constitution's core features.
Other cases: Golaknath (1967) - limited amendment power,
Shankari Prasad (1951) - upheld Parliament's power,
Minerva Mills (1980) - reaffirmed basic structure.
Answer: Option 4 → Kesavananda Bharati case
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 15 June 2026 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q8. The Constitution (88ᵗʰ) Amendment Act, 2003, is related to which tax?

  1. (a) Service Tax
  2. (b) Wealth Tax
  3. (c) Property Tax
  4. (d) Goods and Services Tax
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Service Tax

Constitution (88th Amendment) Act, 2003
This amendment insertedArticle 268Ain the Constitution.
It empowered the Union to levyService Taxon services.
The tax collected is assigned to the States where services are provided.
This constitutional backing legitimized Service Tax collection.
Answer: Option 1 → Service Tax
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 14 June 2026 Shift 3 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q9. Which of the following provisions requires ratification by the legislatures of NOT less than half the States for amendment under Article 368(2), making it a 'rigid' feature?

  1. (a) Provisions related to citizenship acquisition and termination
  2. (b) Duration of the term of the Lok Sabha
  3. (c) Manner of election of the President of India
  4. (d) Composition of the Council of Ministers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Manner of election of the President of India

Article 368(2) - Special Amendment Procedure
Requires Parliament majority + ratification by at least half the State legislatures:
Key provisions covered:
• Election of President (Article 54)
• Extent of executive power of Union/States
• Supreme Court and High Courts
• Distribution of legislative powers
• Representation of States in Parliament
Analysis of options:
Option 1: Citizenship - Simple majority only
Option 2: Lok Sabha term - Simple majority only
Answer: Option 3 → Manner of election of the President of India
SSC GD 2026 – 27 May 2026 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q10. Which of the following was the First Constitutional Amendment Act?

  1. (a) 1951
  2. (b) 1952
  3. (c) 1961
  4. (d) 1969
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1951

Correct Answer: 1951 — Option (a)
The First Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 1951. About the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951: Enacted by: Parliament of India; Year: 1951 (came into force on June 18, 1951); Prime Minister at the time: Jawaharlal Nehru; Key provisions: Added the Ninth Schedule: Protection of laws placed in the Ninth Schedule from judicial review (challenge in courts); Initially placed 13 Acts (mostly land reform/zamindari abolition laws) in the Ninth Schedule; Amended Article 19(1)(a) — Freedom of Speech: Added 'public order' and 'incitement to an offence' as additional grounds for restricting free speech (in addition to the existing grounds); This was to check inflammatory speeches and writings; Amended Article 15: Added new clause (4) to allow special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes or Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; Added Article 31A and 31B: Article 31A: Protected laws related to acquisition of estates from challenge on grounds of violating Fundamental Rights; Article 31B: Any law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be challenged on grounds of violating Part III (Fundamental Rights); Context: Zamindari abolition laws were being challenged in High Courts as violating property rights; The amendment was needed to protect these land reforms from judicial interference; What each year represents: 1952: No major constitutional amendment; 1961: 9th Constitutional Amendment (1960) transferred certain territories to Pakistan; 1969: 22nd Constitutional Amendment (added Article 244A for autonomous state in Assam).
Option (b) 1952 — Incorrect: The First Constitutional Amendment Act was NOT passed in 1952; it was enacted in 1951; no major constitutional amendment was passed in 1952 itself; the First Constitutional Amendment came into force on June 18, 1951, just over a year after the Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950.
Option (c) 1961 — Incorrect: The First Constitutional Amendment Act was NOT passed in 1961; it was enacted in 1951; 1961 saw the 9th Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) which transferred certain territories to Pakistan per the Nehru-Noon Pact; the First Amendment came in 1951 to protect land reform laws. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 1969 — Incorrect: The First Constitutional Amendment Act was NOT passed in 1969; it was enacted in 1951; 1969 was associated with the 21st Constitutional Amendment (added Sindhi to the Eighth Schedule) and the split in the Indian National Congress; the First Constitutional Amendment was enacted in 1951.
SSC GD 2026 – 26 May 2026 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q11. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act is known by which of the following names?

  1. (a) Mini Constitution (Laghu Samvidhan )
  2. (b) Federal Amendment
  3. (c) Panchayati Raj Amendment
  4. (d) Fundamental Rights Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mini Constitution (Laghu Samvidhan )

Correct Answer: Mini Constitution (Laghu Samvidhan ) — Option (a)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is popularly called the 'Mini Constitution' (Laghu Samvidhan ) because of its sweeping and comprehensive changes to the Constitution. About the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976: Passed during: The Emergency period (1975-1977) under PM Indira Gandhi; Also called: 'Mini Constitution' because it made the most extensive changes to the Constitution in Indian history; Major changes introduced: Preamble amended: The words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added; 'Socialist Secular Democratic Republic' and 'Unity and Integrity' replaced earlier text; Fundamental Duties added: Part IVA (Article 51A) was inserted with 10 Fundamental Duties; Directive Principles given primacy: Made Directive Principles superior to Fundamental Rights (Articles 31C expanded); Parliamentary supremacy: Constitutional amendments were made non-justiciable (courts cannot question them); Duration of Parliament and State Legislatures: Extended from 5 to 6 years; Preventive detention laws strengthened; Three new Directive Principles added (Articles 39A, 43A, 48A); Tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B) introduced for administrative and other disputes; Anti-defection law provisions (though later formalized by 52nd Amendment); The 43rd and 44th Constitutional Amendments (1977-78) partially reversed many changes of the 42nd Amendment after the Emergency ended.
Option (b) Federal Amendment — Incorrect: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment is NOT called the 'Federal Amendment'; it is known as the 'Mini Constitution' due to the extensive nature of its changes to the Constitution; no major amendment is specifically called the 'Federal Amendment.'
Option (c) Panchayati Raj Amendment — Incorrect: The amendment specifically related to Panchayati Raj is the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 — NOT the 42nd Amendment; the 42nd Amendment (1976) is called the 'Mini Constitution.'
Option (d) Fundamental Rights Amendment — Incorrect: While the 42nd Amendment did affect Fundamental Rights (by giving primacy to Directive Principles over FR), it is NOT called the 'Fundamental Rights Amendment'; its popular name is 'Mini Constitution' due to its comprehensive and sweeping changes. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 3 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q12. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 361
  2. (b) Article 368
  3. (c) Article 359
  4. (d) Article 360
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 368

Topic: Constitutional Amendment Power
Article 368of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for such amendments.
Other Articles mentioned:
Article 359 → Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
Article 360 → Financial Emergency provisions
Article 361 → Protection of President and Governors from court proceedings
Answer: Option 2 → Article 368
SSC GD 2026 – 4 May 2026 Shift 3 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q13. Which article permits Parliament to amend the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Article 352
  2. (b) Article 356
  3. (c) Article 368
  4. (d) Article 370
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 368

Correct Answer: Article 368 — Option (c)
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution. It lays down the procedure for constitutional amendments, which may require either a simple majority, special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting plus majority of total membership), or special majority along with ratification by at least half of the state legislatures, depending on the nature of the amendment.
Option (a) Article 352 — Incorrect: Article 352 deals with the proclamation of National Emergency, not constitutional amendments.
Option (b) Article 356 — Incorrect: Article 356 deals with the imposition of President's Rule in a state.
Option (d) Article 370 — Incorrect: Article 370 was a special provision relating to Jammu & Kashmir (now largely abrogated); it does not deal with constitutional amendment procedure.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 March 2026 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q14. Which among the following changes were made in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act ?

  1. (a) Increased Lok Sabha seats from 525 to 545.
  2. (b) Introduction of Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
  3. (c) Nationalization of Land Ceiling Laws.
  4. (d) Inserted Right to Privacy in the Article 21 of Indian Constitution.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Introduction of Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.

42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
Known as 'Mini Constitution' - most comprehensive amendment.
Key Changes Made:
• AddedFundamental DutiesunderArticle 51A(10 duties, later 11th added)
• Added words 'Socialist', 'Secular', 'Integrity' to Preamble
• Curtailed judicial review and fundamental rights
• Extended Lok Sabha and Assembly terms to 6 years
Other Options:
Option 1: Lok Sabha seats increased by 31st Amendment (1973)
Option 3: Land Ceiling - State subject, not by this amendment
Option 4: Right to Privacy recognized by Supreme Court (2017)
Answer: Option 2 → Introduction of Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 22 March 2026 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q15. The 24th Constitutional Amendment gave the Parliament which of the following powers?

  1. (a) Amend Fundamental Rights
  2. (b) Suspend the High Court judgment
  3. (c) Suspend elections
  4. (d) Override judicial review
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amend Fundamental Rights

24th Constitutional Amendment (1971)
Key Provisions:
1. Parliament can amendany part of Constitutionincluding Fundamental Rights
2. Added Article 13(4) - Article 368 amendments not considered 'law' under Article 13
3. Made Presidential assentbindingon Constitutional Amendment Bills
Context: Passed to overcomeGolaknath case (1967)judgment
Supreme Court had ruled Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights
Later:Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)upheld this amendment
But introducedBasic Structure doctrineas limitation
Answer: Option 1 → Amend Fundamental Rights
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q16. The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016 was related to which of the following?

  1. (a) Introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India
  2. (b) Exchanging enclaves and making other territorial adjustments between India and Bangladesh
  3. (c) Appointing a Minister in charge of tribal welfare in the states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
  4. (d) Introducing the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India

Introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
Added Article 246A for GST powers to Centre and States.
Inserted Article 279A for GST Council formation.
Other Options:
Option 2 → 100th Amendment (2015) - India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement
Option 3 → 94th Amendment (2006) - Tribal welfare ministers in MP and Chhattisgarh
Option 4 → 99th Amendment (2014) - NJAC (later struck down by SC)
Answer: Option 1 → Introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 3 · Important articles and their subjects

Q17. Which Article empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Castes in various states and union territories?

  1. (a) Article 330
  2. (b) Article 344
  3. (c) Article 342
  4. (d) Article 341
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 341

Article 341empowers the President to specify which castes, races, or tribes shall be deemed as Scheduled Castes in relation to any State or Union Territory.
The President may, after consultation with the Governor of the concerned State, notify the list of Scheduled Castes.
Parliament alone can modify this list through law; no executive order can alter it.
Note:Article 342 deals with Scheduled Tribes specification.
Answer: Option 4 → Article 341
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 1 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q18. After a Constitution Amendment Bill relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is passed by the Parliament, what is the next mandatory constitutional step for it to become a law?

  1. (a) Notification in the Gazette
  2. (b) Ratification by State Legislatures
  3. (c) Approval by the Supreme Court
  4. (d) President’s Assent
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) President’s Assent

Amendment Bill must pass both Houses of Parliament with special majority (2/3 of members present and voting).
After Parliamentary passage, President's Assent is the mandatory final step to make it a law.
Supreme Court approval and State Legislature ratification are NOT required for Constitutional amendments.
Answer: Option 4 → President's Assent
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 10 March 2026 Shift 1 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q19. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the mechanism and power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 368
  2. (b) Article 362
  3. (c) Article 372
  4. (d) Article 356
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 368

The power and procedure of Parliament to amend the Constitution is given under Article 368.
This article empowers Parliament to make amendments by way of adding, varying, or repealing any part of the Constitution.
Other articles like 362, 372, and 356 deal with different subjects such as protection of laws, transitional provisions, and President's Rule respectively.
Hence, the correct article dealing with constitutional amendments is Article 368.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 1 · Basic structure doctrine

Q20. Which of the following 1973 landmark judgments of the Supreme Court of India provided that Parliament cannot amend the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution through amendments?

  1. (a) Minerva Mills Case
  2. (b) Golakhnath Case
  3. (c) Champakam Dorairanjan Case
  4. (d) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kesavananda Bharati Case

The Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) is a landmark Supreme Court judgment.
It established the 'basic structure' doctrine of the Indian Constitution.
The Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution's basic structure.
This ruling limits Parliament's power in constitutional amendments.
Hence, option 4 is correct.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 6 March 2026 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q21. Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution is regarded as a major milestone in the country’s taxation system for introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  1. (a) 101st Amendment, 2016
  2. (b) 97th Amendment, 2011
  3. (c) 100th Amendment, 2015
  4. (d) 86th Amendment, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 101st Amendment, 2016

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced through the 101st Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 2016.
This amendment is considered a major milestone in the country's taxation system as it unified various indirect taxes into a single tax.
None of the other listed amendments relate to the introduction of GST.
Therefore, the correct answer is the 101st Amendment, 2016.
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 25 February 2026 · Important articles and their subjects

Q22. Which of the following articles is INCORRECTY matched with the Constitutional Provisions related to Parliament ?

  1. (a) Article 99 ---Composition of the Council of States/Rajya Sabha
  2. (b) Article 93 ----Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People
  3. (c) Article 89---- Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Council of States
  4. (d) Article 105--- Powers and Privileges of the Houses of Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 99 ---Composition of the Council of States/Rajya Sabha

Article 99 of the Indian Constitution deals with the 'Oath or affirmation by Members of Parliament', not the composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
The composition of the Rajya Sabha is specified under Article 80.
Article 93 relates to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
Article 89 deals with the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Article 105 defines the Powers and Privileges of the Houses of Parliament.
Thus, only Option 1 incorrectly matches the article with the constitutional provision related to Parliament.
Final answer: Option 1
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 February 2026 · Major constitutional amendments

Q23. The 44ᵗʰ Amendment Act of 1978 restored the standard term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislature to how many years?

  1. (a) five
  2. (b) seven
  3. (c) three
  4. (d) six
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) five

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures to five years.
Before the amendment, during emergency, the term was extended up to seven years.
This amendment reinstated the original duration defined in the Constitution.
Hence, the correct term restored is five years.
Final answer: Option 1
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 6 January 2026 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q24. The 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' (Women's Reservation Bill) also provides a 'quota-within-a-quota' for:

  1. (a) OBC women
  2. (b) Rural women
  3. (c) Urban women
  4. (d) SC/ST women
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) SC/ST women

The correct answer is (d) SC/ST women.
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Constitution 106th Amendment Act, 2023) provides 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Within this 33% women's quota, there is a 'quota-within-a-quota' for SC (Scheduled Caste) and ST (Scheduled Tribe) women, proportional to their existing SC/ST reservations in those legislative bodies.
(a) OBC women: While OBC reservation for women was widely demanded and debated, the Act does NOT provide a specific quota-within-quota for OBC women; it was deliberately excluded.
(b) Rural women: No specific rural women's sub-quota was created within the 33% reservation.
(c) Urban women: No specific urban women's sub-quota was created within the 33% reservation.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q25. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age for Indian citizens from 21 years to 18 years for elections to all democratic bodies?

  1. (a) 42nd
  2. (b) 44th
  3. (c) 52nd
  4. (d) 61st
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 61st

The correct answer is (d) 61st.
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 (effective from March 28, 1989) lowered the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years for elections to Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and all other democratic bodies. This enfranchised millions of young citizens .
(a) 42nd Amendment (1976): Called the 'Mini-Constitution'; added words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble; not related to voting age.
(b) 44th Amendment (1978): Restored fundamental rights diluted during Emergency; not related to voting age.
(c) 52nd Amendment (1985): Added the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law); not related to voting age.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 3 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q26. Which constitutional amendment subject requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures in addition to special majority approval by Parliament before becoming effective under Article 368(2)?

  1. (a) Creation of new states
  2. (b) Change in Union List
  3. (c) Official languages
  4. (d) Formation of municipalities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Change in Union List

The correct answer is (b) Change in Union List.
Under Article 368(2) of the Indian Constitution, certain provisions require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures in addition to a special majority in both Houses of Parliament. These include changes to the Seventh Schedule (which contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List). A change in the Union List requires such ratification because it affects the distribution of powers between the Centre and States.
(a) Creation of new states: Done under Article 3 by Parliament alone with a simple majority; does not require State Legislature ratification.
(c) Official languages: Changes to provisions in Part XVII can generally be done without mandatory State ratification.
(d) Formation of municipalities: Governed by Part IX-A; not specifically requiring State ratification under Article 368(2).
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 3 · Basic structure doctrine

Q27. In which landmark Supreme Court judgment was the "Basic Structure Doctrine" established, limiting Parliament's amending powers by prohibiting changes that alter the Constitution's essential features?

  1. (a) Golaknath
  2. (b) Kesavananda Bharati
  3. (c) Maneka Gandhi
  4. (d) Berubari Union
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kesavananda Bharati

The correct answer is (b) Kesavananda Bharati.
The Basic Structure Doctrine was established in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973) case, decided by a 13-judge Constitutional Bench by a 7:6 majority. The Court ruled that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its 'basic structure' — features like federalism, secularism, democracy, and judicial review.
(a) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967): Held that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights; was overruled in Kesavananda Bharati.
(c) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978): Expanded the interpretation of Article 21 (Right to Life); did not establish the Basic Structure Doctrine.
(d) Berubari Union case (1960): Dealt with the transfer of territory to Pakistan; not related to the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 22 December 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q28. Which Constitutional Amendment made education a subject in the Concurrent List, allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on educational matters and harmonize policies nationwide?

  1. (a) 42nd
  2. (b) 86th
  3. (c) 44th
  4. (d) 73rd
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd

The correct answer is 42nd (Option 1).
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), enacted during the Emergency period, moved education from the State List to the Concurrent List, enabling both the Union and State governments to legislate on educational matters.
Option 2 - 86th Amendment (2002): Made elementary education (for children aged 6-14) a Fundamental Right under Article 21A but did not change education's list in the Seventh Schedule.
Option 3 - 44th Amendment (1978): Enacted to reverse some changes made by the 42nd Amendment, including restoring the right to property; not related to education in the Concurrent List.
Option 4 - 73rd Amendment (1992): Established the constitutional status of Panchayati Raj institutions (local self-government in rural areas).
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q29. Which of the following constitutional amendments transferred "Education" to the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 44th Amendment
  3. (c) 73rd Amendment
  4. (d) 86th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (during the Emergency under Indira Gandhi) transferred Education from the State List to the Concurrent List, enabling both Parliament and state legislatures to legislate on education. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The 44th Amendment (1978) restored certain Fundamental Rights curtailed during the Emergency (e.g., restoring Article 19 protections); it did not deal with the transfer of Education.
Option 3 is wrong: The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions; it had nothing to do with the Education list transfer.
Option 4 is wrong: The 86th Amendment (2002) added the right to free and compulsory education for children (Article 21A) but did not change the placement of Education in the Concurrent List — that had already been done in 1976.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q30. Which of the following constitutional Amendments made it mandatory for the state to provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 years?

  1. (a) 73rd Amendment
  2. (b) 86th Amendment
  3. (c) 93rd Amendment
  4. (d) 97th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 86th Amendment

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for all children between 6 and 14 years of age. This led to the enactment of the Right to Education Act (RTE Act), 2009, which came into force on April 1, 2010. This amendment also amended Article 45 (Early Childhood Care for children below 6) and Article 51A(k) (Fundamental Duty of parents to provide education).
Option 1 is incorrect: The 73rd Amendment Act (1992) dealt with Panchayati Raj institutions, not education rights.
Option 3 is incorrect: The 93rd Amendment Act (2005) dealt with reservations for socially and educationally backward classes in educational institutions, not the fundamental right to education for 6-14 age group.
Option 4 is incorrect: The 97th Amendment Act (2011) dealt with cooperative societies; it is not related to the right to education.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 18 December 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q31. Which of the following constitutional amendments lowered the age for voting from 21 to 18?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 43rd Amendment
  3. (c) 60th Amendment
  4. (d) 61st Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 61st Amendment

The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 (effective from March 28, 1989) reduced the minimum voting age from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326 of the Constitution. This enfranchised millions of young citizens between 18-21 years of age.
Option (a) is incorrect: The 42nd Amendment (1976), known as the 'Mini Constitution,' made several changes including extending the Emergency period; it did not change the voting age.
Option (b) is incorrect: The 43rd Amendment (1977) reversed some of the anti-democratic changes made by the 42nd Amendment; it was not related to voting age.
Option (c) is incorrect: The 60th Amendment (1988) raised the ceiling on professional tax; it had no connection to voting age.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q32. Which body has the power to amend the Union and State power distribution under the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Supreme Court
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Lok Sabha
  4. (d) State Legislature
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament

The power to amend the distribution of powers between the Union and the States under the Indian Constitution rests exclusively with the Parliament of India . According to Article 368 , Parliament can amend the Constitution, including provisions dealing with Union-State relations. However, in cases involving federal provisions (such as the distribution of legislative powers), amendments must also be ratified by at least half of the State Legislatures. The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review but cannot amend the Constitution. Therefore, the correct answer is Parliament .
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q33. Which Constitutional Amendment Act made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right in India?

  1. (a) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
  2. (b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  3. (c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  4. (d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002

The correct answer is option 4. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right in India by inserting Article 21-A in the Constitution. This Article provides free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years as a Fundamental Right. The Act also modified Article 45, directing the State to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years, and amended Article 51A to add a new fundamental duty of parents and guardians to ensure opportunities for education to their children. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 was later enacted to give effect to this constitutional provision.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 2 · Basic structure doctrine

Q34. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of constitutional interpretation and judicial doctrine?

  1. (a) The Constitution of India clearly defines the term "basic structure" under Article 368.
  2. (b) The "basic structure" doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the Constitution.
  3. (c) The Parliament can propose amendments that repeal judicial principles without limitation.
  4. (d) The Judiciary rejected the idea of spirit-based interpretation and strictly follows the written text.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The "basic structure" doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the Constitution.

The correct answer is option 2. The "basic structure doctrine" is not defined anywhere in the Constitution of India, including Article 368. Instead, it was evolved by the Supreme Court in the historic Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973) case. According to this doctrine, while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy its "basic structure" or essential features such as the supremacy of the Constitution, rule of law, judicial review, separation of powers, and fundamental rights. This doctrine was developed to ensure that the balance of democracy, liberty, and justice enshrined in the Constitution remains intact, and to prevent misuse of amendment powers by the legislature.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q35. Which of the following was a major effect of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) It reduced the term of the Lok Sabha to four years.
  2. (b) It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and introduced Fundamental Duties.
  3. (c) It introduced Fundamental Rights for citizens.
  4. (d) It abolished the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and introduced Fundamental Duties.

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, is often called the "Mini Constitution" because of the wide-ranging changes it introduced. One of its major effects was to increase the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 6 years (later reduced back to 5 years by the 44th Amendment). It also introduced Fundamental Duties in the Constitution under Article 51A, making it mandatory for citizens to perform certain responsibilities towards the nation. Additionally, it strengthened the Directive Principles of State Policy by giving them precedence over Fundamental Rights in certain cases. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q36. Which constitutional amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution"?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 24th Amendment
  3. (c) 44th Amendment
  4. (d) 52nd Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is popularly called the "Mini Constitution" because it brought about the most comprehensive changes to the Indian Constitution since its adoption in 1950. Enacted during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, this amendment gave unprecedented powers to the Parliament, curtailed the powers of the judiciary, extended the term of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies from 5 to 6 years, and inserted the Fundamental Duties into the Constitution. It also added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble. The amendment made sweeping changes in almost every part of the Constitution, hence it is considered as a "Mini Constitution".
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 28 November 2025 Shift 2 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q37. Which article of the Indian Constitution is related with Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor?

  1. (a) Article 355
  2. (b) Article 368
  3. (c) Article 375
  4. (d) Article 394
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 368

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so. It lays down the amending procedure — some provisions can be amended by simple majority, some by special majority, and some require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
Article 355 deals with the duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance.
Article 375 deals with continuance of courts, authorities and officers.
Article 394 deals with the commencement of certain provisions of the Constitution.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 25 November 2025 Shift 1 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q38. A majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than _____ of the members present and voting is required for adoption of effective clauses and motions for consideration and passing of Constitution Amendment Bills.

  1. (a) 3/4
  2. (b) 2/3
  3. (c) 4/5
  4. (d) 5/6
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2/3

Under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by a majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of not less than 2/3 of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament.
This special majority (called a 'special majority') ensures that amendments to the Constitution have broad legislative support. Options 3/4, 4/5, and 5/6 are incorrect.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 24 November 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q39. G.S.T. was implemented through which constitutional amendment act of constitution of India?

  1. (a) 100th Amendment act, 2015
  2. (b) 101st Amendment act, 2016
  3. (c) 102nd Amendment act, 2018
  4. (d) 103rd Amendment act, 2019
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 101st Amendment act, 2016

Correct Answer: 101st Amendment act, 2016 (Option 2)
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented through the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. This amendment inserted Article 246A (special provision for GST), Article 269A (levy and collection of GST in inter-state trade), and Article 279A (GST Council).
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 100th Amendment act, 2015: This was related to the land boundary agreement with Bangladesh.
Option 3 - 102nd Amendment act, 2018: This provided constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes.
Option 4 - 103rd Amendment act, 2019: This provided 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 17 November 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q40. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution is related with which of the following?

  1. (a) Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers
  2. (b) No enhancement of seats of Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha till 2026
  3. (c) Bifurcation of the National Commission of SC and ST
  4. (d) Fixed the strength of the Goa Legislative Assembly at a minimum of 30 members
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers

The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 amended Articles 75 and 164 of the Constitution. Its primary provision was to limit the size of the Council of Ministers to not more than 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (at the Centre) and of the Legislative Assembly (in States). This was done to curb defection and limit oversized cabinets. Why other options are wrong: Option 2 - No enhancement of seats till 2026: This is related to the 84th Amendment Act, 2001 (Delimitation freeze). Option 3 - Bifurcation of National Commission for SCs and STs: This was done by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003. Option 4 - Goa Legislative Assembly strength: This is related to the 56th Amendment Act, 1987.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 17 November 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q41. What is the maximum number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, allowed in the Council of Ministers as per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 of constitution of India?

  1. (a) 10% of the total strength of Parliament
  2. (b) 12% of the total strength of the House of the People
  3. (c) 15% of the total strength of the House of the People
  4. (d) No constitutional limit is prescribed
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 15% of the total strength of the House of the People

Correct Answer: 15% of the total strength of the House of the People
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 added Article 75(1A) to the Constitution, which limits the size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre to not more than 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Similarly, Article 164(1A) was added to limit State Cabinets to 15% of the Assembly strength (minimum 12 ministers). This amendment was passed to curb the practice of forming oversized cabinets.
Why other options are wrong:
- 10% of Parliament: The limit is 15% of Lok Sabha strength, not 10% of total Parliament.
- 12% of Lok Sabha: The actual limit is 15%, not 12%.
- No constitutional limit: There IS a constitutional limit (15%) since the 91st Amendment.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 18 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important articles and their subjects

Q42. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 300 allows legal suits against State Governments.
2. The term 'Government of India' is a legal entity under Article 300.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

• Article 300 of the Constitution deals with the right to sue the Government of India or State Governments.
• Statement 1: ✓ Article 300 allows suits both against the Union of India and State Governments.
• Statement 2: ✓ Under Article 300, 'Government of India' (Union of India) and State Governments are recognized as legal entities that can sue and be sued.
• Both statements are correct.
• Answer: Both 1 and 2
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 17 September 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q43. Through which Constitutional Amendment was Article 21A introduced, mandating free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for children between 6 and 14 years of age?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment Act
  2. (b) 86th Amendment Act
  3. (c) 93rd Amendment Act
  4. (d) 44th Amendment Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 86th Amendment Act

The86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002introduced Article 21A.
It made free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years a Fundamental Right.
Hence the answer is 86th Amendment Act.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 17 September 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q44. By which Constitutional Amendment was education transferred to the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) 42nd
  2. (b) 24th
  3. (c) 44th
  4. (d) 61st
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 transferred education from the State List to the Concurrent List.
This allowed both the Union and the States to legislate on education.
Hence the answer is the 42nd Amendment.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q45. Which Constitutional Amendment Act is often referred to as the “Mini-Constitution” due to the extensive changes it introduced to the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  2. (b) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
  3. (c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  4. (d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 enacted during the Emergency made sweeping changes to the Constitution – added ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble, Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) etc.
Due to such extensive modifications it is called the Mini-Constitution.
The 44th, 52nd, and 86th Amendments addressed narrower areas.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q46. Which of the following is true regarding the Anglo-Indian representation in State Assemblies?

  1. (a) The Governor still nominates one Anglo-Indian member to the Assembly.
  2. (b) The provision was abolished by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
  3. (c) The provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment.
  4. (d) Anglo-Indian members are elected through proportional representation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment.

• Indian Polity - Constitutional Amendment:
• Articles 331 and 333 provided for nomination of Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
• The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2019), effective January 25, 2020, abolished the provision for Anglo-Indian reserved seats in Parliament and State Legislatures.
• The 42nd Amendment is unrelated to this provision.
• Answer: 104th Constitutional Amendment
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q47. Which Amendment is considered a near rewrite of the Constitution and made changes to the Preamble, Schedule VII and 53 Articles?

  1. (a) 44ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 86ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 38ᵗʰ Amendment
  4. (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q48. Which Constitutional Amendment has most recently extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years?

  1. (a) 104ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 15ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
  4. (d) 61ˢᵗ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 104ᵗʰ Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 1 · Basic structure doctrine

Q49. Which Indian judgment laid down the concept of ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  2. (b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  3. (c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  4. (d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q50. The 91ˢᵗ Amendment of the Indian Constitution was enacted in which year?

  1. (a) 2003
  2. (b) 2000
  3. (c) 1978
  4. (d) 1989
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2003

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q51. The 105ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2021, is related to which of the following?

  1. (a) Powers of state governments to identify OBCs
  2. (b) GST reforms
  3. (c) Creation of a National Judicial Commission
  4. (d) Women's reservation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Powers of state governments to identify OBCs

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 1 September 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q52. Which Article was inserted into the Constitution by the 103ʳᵈ Amendment Act to provide for EWS reservation?

  1. (a) Article 21C and 22A
  2. (b) Article 18A and 19A
  3. (c) Article 15(6) and 16(6)
  4. (d) Article 14A and 16A
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 15(6) and 16(6)

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 1 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q53. Which of the following Constitutional provisions can be amended by an ordinary Act of Parliament (simple majority), rather than through the special procedure under Article 368?

  1. (a) Article 14 (equality before law)
  2. (b) Article 368 (the Amendment procedure itself)
  3. (c) Article 356 (President’s Rule in states)
  4. (d) Article 2 (Parliament may by law admit new states)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 2 (Parliament may by law admit new states)

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q54. Which special representation in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies was discontinued by the 104ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020?

  1. (a) SC/ST Reservation
  2. (b) OBC Reservation
  3. (c) Anglo-Indian Reservation
  4. (d) Reservation for Women
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anglo-Indian Reservation

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 22 August 2025 Shift 1 · Basic structure doctrine

Q55. What did the Supreme Court decide in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) about the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) The Parliament cannot amend any part of the Constitution under any circumstances.
  2. (b) The Parliament can amend the Constitution, but it cannot change or destroy its basic structure or essential features.
  3. (c) The President of India has the ultimate authority to approve or reject constitutional amendments independently.
  4. (d) The Parliament has unlimited power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Parliament can amend the Constitution, but it cannot change or destroy its basic structure or essential features.

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q56. The provision of early childhood care and education to children below six years of age was introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) Seventy-fourth Amendment Act, 1992
  2. (b) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002
  3. (c) Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
  4. (d) Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q57. Which Constitutional Amendment Act abolished the provision for nominating members from the Anglo-Indian community to the State Legislative Assemblies?

  1. (a) 104ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 2019
  2. (b) 105ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 2021
  3. (c) 102ⁿᵈ Amendment Act, 2018
  4. (d) 101ˢᵗ Amendment Act, 2016
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 104ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 2019

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q58. Which amendment abolished the privy purse and privileges of the former rulers of princely states?

  1. (a) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
  2. (b) Thirty-first Amendment Act, 1972
  3. (c) Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971
  4. (d) Twenty-fifth Amendment Act, 1971
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q59. What was the primary objective of the 88ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003?

  1. (a) Introduction of GST
  2. (b) Formation of the NJAC
  3. (c) Provision for Service Tax
  4. (d) Abolition of Privy Purses
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Provision for Service Tax

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q60. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced a cap on the size of the State Council of Ministers?

  1. (a) 42ⁿᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
  2. (b) 61ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
  3. (c) 73ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
  4. (d) 91ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 91ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q61. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

  1. (a) 103ʳᵈ Amendment
  2. (b) 97ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 101ˢᵗ Amendment
  4. (d) 108ᵗʰ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 101ˢᵗ Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q62. Which Constitutional Amendment Act restored the Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights?

  1. (a) 44ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 1978
  2. (b) 52ⁿᵈ Amendment Act, 1985
  3. (c) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment Act, 1976
  4. (d) 24ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 1971
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 24ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 1971

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q63. Which law provides for reservation in education and employment to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)?

  1. (a) 103ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment
  2. (b) 102ⁿᵈ Constitutional Amendment
  3. (c) 104ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment
  4. (d) 100ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 103ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q64. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

  1. (a) One Hundred and Second Amendment Act, 2018
  2. (b) One Hundred and First Amendment Act, 2016
  3. (c) Ninety-ninth Amendment Act, 2015
  4. (d) One Hundredth Amendment Act, 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One Hundred and First Amendment Act, 2016

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 3 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q65. Which of the following Articles deals with the amendment procedure of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 208
  2. (b) Article 368
  3. (c) Article 370
  4. (d) Article 300
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 368

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q66. What is the main feature of the 106ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023?

  1. (a) Abolishment of titles
  2. (b) Reservation of one-third seats for women in legislatures
  3. (c) Provision of legal status to Right to Property
  4. (d) Set up of the Lokpal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Reservation of one-third seats for women in legislatures

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 3 · Basic structure doctrine

Q67. The Supreme Court’s doctrine of 'Basic Structure' (the Parliament CANNOT alter the basic features of the Constitution) was first established in which landmark case?

  1. (a) Minerva Mills vs Union of India (1980)
  2. (b) IC Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967)
  3. (c) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India (1951)
  4. (d) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973)

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q68. After its 1971 electoral victory, Indira Gandhi’s government amended the Constitution to remove legal obstacles to abolishing which of the following privileges?

  1. (a) Privy purses of former princely rulers
  2. (b) Monopoly trade licenses
  3. (c) Zamindari system
  4. (d) Separate electorates for minorities
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Privy purses of former princely rulers

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 August 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q69. Which of the following Amendments clarified that the President must act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers?

  1. (a) 24ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 74ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment
  4. (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q70. What was a major focus of the 61ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) Reservation of seats for women in Panchayats
  2. (b) Introduction of Anti-Defection Law
  3. (c) Abolition of Privy Purses for former rulers
  4. (d) Reduction of voting age from 21 to 18 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Reduction of voting age from 21 to 18 years

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 3 · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q71. To pass a Constitutional Amendment Bill in the Lok Sabha, which of the following correctly states the minimum support required?

  1. (a) Simple majority of Lok Sabha members and two-thirds of Rajya Sabha members present and voting
  2. (b) Unanimous vote of all Members of Parliament
  3. (c) Two-thirds majority of the total membership of the House
  4. (d) Majority of the total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Majority of the total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 26 July 2025 Shift 3 · Important articles and their subjects

Q72. Match the following Articles with their provisions:
A. Article 50 1. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
B. Article 131 2. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
C. Article 312 3. Creation of All India Services
D. Article 263 4. Inter-State Council

  1. (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  2. (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  3. (c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  4. (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Article 50 (DPSP, Part IV): Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive — directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from executive in public services. Match: A-2.
Article 131: Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court — gives SC exclusive jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and states, or between two or more states. Match: B-1.
Article 312: Creation of All India Services — empowers Rajya Sabha (by 2/3 majority resolution) to create new All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS ) common to Union and states. Match: C-3.
Article 263: Inter-State Council — empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council for coordinating between states and the Union. Match: D-4.
Correct: A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 = Option 1.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 25 July 2025 Shift 3 · Important articles and their subjects

Q73. Match the following Articles with their provisions:
A. Article 50 1. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
B. Article 131 2. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
C. Article 312 3. Creation of All India Services
D. Article 263 4. Inter-State Council

  1. (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  2. (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  3. (c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  4. (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Article 50: Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive (a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV). It directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services. Match: A-2.
Article 131: Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It gives the SC exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states. Match: B-1.
Article 312: Creation of All India Services. It empowers the Rajya Sabha, by a resolution supported by 2/3 of members present and voting, to create new All India Services common to the Union and the States (e.g., IAS, IPS, IFoS ). Match: C-3.
Article 263: Inter-State Council. It empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise on disputes, and facilitate coordination between states and the Union. Match: D-4.
Correct matching: A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 = Option 1.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 June 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q74. The 9ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 1960, was enacted to give effect to which of the following agreements?

  1. (a) Indo-Pak Agreement, 1958
  2. (b) Shimla Agreement, 1972
  3. (c) Lahore Declaration, 1999
  4. (d) Tashkent Agreement, 1966
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indo-Pak Agreement, 1958

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 June 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q75. Which union territory was added to India by the Fourteenth Amendment Act, 1962?

  1. (a) Daman and Diu
  2. (b) Puducherry
  3. (c) Lakshadweep
  4. (d) Goa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Puducherry

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 17 June 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q76. Which of the following systems was abolished by the Nineteenth Amendment Act, 1966?

  1. (a) Privy purse system
  2. (b) Separate electorate system
  3. (c) Election tribunals
  4. (d) Zamindari system
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Election tribunals

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 June 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q77. What major tax reform was introduced by the 101ˢᵗ Amendment Act, 2016?

  1. (a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
  2. (b) Income Tax
  3. (c) Wealth Tax
  4. (d) Excise Duty
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 June 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q78. What is the Forty-Second Amendment of the Indian Constitution commonly known as?

  1. (a) Constitutional Guide
  2. (b) Mini-Parliament
  3. (c) Major Bill
  4. (d) Mini-Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mini-Constitution

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 June 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q79. With reference to the 40ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 1976, which category of maritime zones came under the legislative jurisdiction of the Parliament?

  1. (a) Inland rivers and lakes
  2. (b) Territorial waters and EEZ
  3. (c) Groundwater reserves
  4. (d) Inter-state river waters
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Territorial waters and EEZ

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 June 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q80. What is the maximum percentage of reservation allowed for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) under the 103ʳᵈ Amendment Act, 2019?

  1. (a) 5%
  2. (b) 13%
  3. (c) 18%
  4. (d) 10%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 10%

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 June 2025 Shift 3 · Major constitutional amendments

Q81. What provision was extended under the 104ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020?

  1. (a) GST Council term
  2. (b) Term of the Lok Sabha
  3. (c) Reservation for SC/ST in legislatures
  4. (d) Voting age for elections
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reservation for SC/ST in legislatures

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 6 June 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q82. When were privy purses officially abolished in India?

  1. (a) 1980
  2. (b) 1971
  3. (c) 1969
  4. (d) 1956
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1971

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 6 June 2025 Shift 1 · Major constitutional amendments

Q83. What powers were reinstated to the States by the 105ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act?

  1. (a) Power to form new states
  2. (b) Power to decide election dates
  3. (c) Power to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), including Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
  4. (d) Power to levy GST
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Power to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), including Other Backward Classes (OBCs)

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 5 June 2025 Shift 2 · Major constitutional amendments

Q84. What percentage of seats are reserved for women under the 106ᵗʰ Amendment Act?

  1. (a) 25%
  2. (b) 10%
  3. (c) 33%
  4. (d) 50%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 33%

RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 – 17 December 2024 Shift 3 · Basic structure doctrine

Q85. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India enunciate the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’?

  1. (a) AK Gopalan case
  2. (b) Menka Gandhi case
  3. (c) Golaknath case
  4. (d) Keshvanand Bharti case
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Keshvanand Bharti case

Answer: Option 4 — Keshvanand Bharti case
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) the Supreme Court held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368 but cannot alter its basic structure.
Revision note — Basic structure doctrine
• Decided on 24 April 1973 by a 13-judge bench — the largest ever — by a 7 : 6 majority; CJI S. M. Sikri.
• The same case held the Preamble is a part of the Constitution (reversing Berubari Union, 1960).
• Golaknath case (1967) — Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights; the 24th Amendment (1971) restored that power.
• Minerva Mills (1980) — limited amending power and judicial review are themselves part of the basic structure.
• Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) — first case to strike down an amendment (39th) using the doctrine.
• Basic features named by courts: supremacy of the Constitution, secularism, federalism, separation of powers, rule of law, free and fair elections.
Do not mix these up
• A. K. Gopalan (1950) vs Maneka Gandhi (1978) — both are Article 21 cases: Gopalan read "procedure established by law" narrowly; Maneka Gandhi required the procedure to be just, fair and reasonable.
Also asked from this topic: the case that first held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973); the amendment that restored Parliament's power over FRs after Golaknath (24th, 1971).

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