Home › GK Questions Asked › Polity › Union, Territory and Citizenship

Union, Territory and Citizenship PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

84 Union, Territory and Citizenship (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 84 questionsSSC 20 · Railway 64
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 June 2026 Shift 2 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q1. In which year was the Ninth Amendment to the Constitution passed in India?

  1. (a) 1962
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1964
  4. (d) 1960
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1960

Ninth Amendment Act, 1960
Key provisions:
• Transferred Berubari Union (West Bengal) to Pakistan
• Implemented Indo-Pakistan Agreement of 1958
• Modified First Schedule (territories of India)
Historical context: Part of boundary settlement
between India and Pakistan post-partition.
Answer: Option 4 → 1960
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 June 2026 Shift 2 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q2. Which of the following correctly pairs the provision and its subject as per the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 9 – Citizenship by registration
  2. (b) Article 7 – Power of Parliament to regulate citizenship
  3. (c) Article 5 – Citizenship at commencement
  4. (d) Article 11 – Citizenship by birth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 5 – Citizenship at commencement

Topic: Citizenship Provisions (Part II, Articles 5-11)
Article 5– Citizenship at the commencement of Constitution
Article 6– Rights of citizenship of persons migrating from Pakistan
Article 7– Rights of migrants to Pakistan
Article 8– Rights of persons of Indian origin residing abroad
Article 9– Persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship
Article 10– Continuance of rights of citizenship
Article 11– Parliament's power to regulate citizenship by law
Option 1: Article 9 deals with termination, not registration
Option 2: Article 7 deals with migrants to Pakistan, not regulation
Option 4: Article 11 gives Parliament power to regulate, not birth
Answer: Option 3 → Article 5 – Citizenship at commencement
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 2 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q3. Children of Indian citizens born abroad become Indian citizens by descent only if the birth is registered at an Indian consulate within what time period?

  1. (a) One year
  2. (b) Four years
  3. (c) Six months
  4. (d) Three years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) One year

Topic: Indian Citizenship by Descent
As perCitizenship Act, 1955(amended 2003):
Children born abroad to Indian citizens acquire citizenship by descent.
The birth must be registered at the Indian consulate withinone yearof the date of birth.
If not registered within one year, citizenship can still be obtained with permission from the Central Government.
Answer: Option 1 → One year

Q4. Overseas Citizenship of India cardholders receive lifelong visa facilities, but they cannot obtain which of the following rights in India?

  1. (a) Pay taxes
  2. (b) Study in India
  3. (c) Voting or holding a government job
  4. (d) Own property in India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Voting or holding a government job

Topic: Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI)
OCI Cardholders Benefits:
• Lifelong multiple-entry visa to India
• Can own property, study, and work (private sector)
• Must pay taxes like residents
OCI Cardholders Restrictions:
• Cannot vote in elections
• Cannot hold constitutional positions
• Cannot hold government jobs
• Not eligible for Indian passport
Answer: Option 3 → Voting or holding a government job
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 1 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q5. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states or alter their boundaries?

  1. (a) Article 2
  2. (b) Article 6
  3. (c) Article 3
  4. (d) Article 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 3

Topic: Indian Constitution - Formation of States
Article 3empowers Parliament to:
• Form new states by separation/merger
• Alter boundaries of existing states
• Change names of states
Note:Article 2 deals with admission of new states
Article 5 & 6 deal with citizenship provisions
Answer: Option 3 → Article 3
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 13 June 2026 Shift 3 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q6. In which of the following years was the Citizenship Act passed by the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) 1955
  2. (b) 1953
  3. (c) 1952
  4. (d) 1950
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1955

Topic:Citizenship Act of India
TheCitizenship Act, 1955was passed by the Indian Parliament.
It came into force on30 December 1955.
This Act provides for acquisition and determination of Indian citizenship.
Answer: Option 1 → 1955
SSC GD 2026 – 29 May 2026 Shift 3 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q7. Which commission recommended the creation of new states on a linguistic basis?

  1. (a) Rajamannar Commission
  2. (b) Fazl Ali Commission
  3. (c) Punchhi Commission
  4. (d) Sarkaria Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fazl Ali Commission

Correct Answer: Fazl Ali Commission — Option (b)
The Fazl Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission) recommended the creation/ reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis. About the Fazl Ali Commission: Official name: States Reorganisation Commission (SRC); Chairman: Justice Syed Fazl Ali; Other members: H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar; Appointed: 1953; Report submitted: October 1955; Recommendation: Reorganisation of states along linguistic lines; Outcome: States Reorganisation Act, 1956 — the biggest reorganisation of Indian states; Background: After independence, Potti Sriramulu's fast unto death (1952) and his subsequent death led to the creation of Andhra Pradesh (1953) as a separate Telugu-speaking state; This triggered demands for linguistic states across India; A formal commission was needed; States Reorganisation Act, 1956: Reduced states to 14 and union territories to 6; Major changes: New states created on linguistic basis; Tamil Nadu (Madras), Karnataka (Mysore), Kerala, etc. were reorganized; About other commissions: Rajamannar Commission (1969): Appointed by Tamil Nadu government; recommended greater financial autonomy for states; NOT about linguistic reorganisation ; Punchhi Commission (2007): On Centre-State relations; NOT about linguistic reorganisation ; Sarkaria Commission (1983): On Centre-State financial and administrative relations; NOT about linguistic reorganisation ; Historical significance: The demand for linguistic states had been a part of Congress's agenda since the pre-independence period (Nagpur session 1920); Jawaharlal Nehru was initially opposed to linguistic states but ultimately accepted them.
Option (a) Rajamannar Commission — Incorrect: The Rajamannar Commission was NOT the commission that recommended creation of states on a linguistic basis; it was appointed by the Tamil Nadu state government in 1969 (chaired by Chief Justice P.V. Rajamannar) to examine Centre-State financial relations and recommend greater autonomy for states; the commission that recommended linguistic reorganisation was the Fazl Ali Commission (1955).
Option (c) Punchhi Commission — Incorrect: The Punchhi Commission was NOT the commission that recommended creation of states on a linguistic basis; it was appointed in 2007 by the Union Government (chaired by former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchhi ) to review Centre-State relations; the commission that recommended linguistic reorganisation of states was the Fazl Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission, 1955).
Option (d) Sarkaria Commission — Incorrect: The Sarkaria Commission was NOT the commission that recommended creation of states on a linguistic basis; it was set up in 1983 (chaired by Justice R.S. Sarkaria) to examine and review Centre-State relations (financial, legislative, and administrative); the commission that recommended linguistic reorganisation was the Fazl Ali Commission (1955).
SSC GD 2026 – 25 May 2026 Shift 2 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q8. Which of the following constitutional amendment acts gave effect to the acquisition of certain territories by India and the transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh?

  1. (a) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
  2. (b) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
  3. (c) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015
  4. (d) 96th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015

Correct Answer: 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 — Option (c)
The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 gave effect to the acquisition of certain territories by India and transfer of certain territories to Bangladesh. About the 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015: This amendment implemented the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh; The original LBA was signed in 1974 (Indira Gandhi and Sheikh Mujibur Rahman) but was ratified only in 2015 under PM Narendra Modi and PM Sheikh Hasina; Key provisions of the amendment: India acquired 51 Bangladeshi enclaves within Indian territory (~17,160 acres); India transferred 111 Indian enclaves within Bangladesh to Bangladesh (~17,161 acres); The amendment added/modified the First Schedule of the Constitution relating to territories of India; What are enclaves (chitmahals)? Enclaves are small pockets of land from one country completely surrounded by territory of another country; These enclaves existed due to historical wager games between the rulers of Koch Bihar and Rangpur in the 17th-18th centuries; Effect: Approximately 50,000 people living in these enclaves were given the choice of citizenship; Most chose to remain where they were and take the respective country's citizenship; This historic settlement resolved a 68-year-old border issue between India and Bangladesh.
Option (a) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 — Incorrect: The 91st Amendment Act (2003) amended Articles 75 and 164 to cap the size of the Council of Ministers at 15% of the total members of the legislature — it has nothing to do with India-Bangladesh territorial exchange.
Option (b) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 — Incorrect: The 97th Amendment Act (2011) dealt with Co-operative Societies — it inserted Part IXB (Articles 243ZH to 243ZT) in the Constitution relating to co-operatives; it has no connection with India-Bangladesh territorial exchange. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 96th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 — Incorrect: The 96th Amendment Act (2011) substituted the entry 'Oriya' with 'Odia' in the Eighth Schedule (recognized languages); it has no connection with India-Bangladesh territorial exchange; the 100th Amendment Act is correct.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q9. According to the Constitution of India, Citizenship by incorporation of territory applies when _________________.

  1. (a) India acquires new territory
  2. (b) A state is divided into two
  3. (c) A foreigner resides for five years
  4. (d) A citizen moves from one state to another
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) India acquires new territory

Citizenship by Incorporation of Territory
Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit new states or establish new states.
When India acquires/incorporates new territory, persons residing there may become Indian citizens.
Example: Pondicherry (1962), Goa, Daman & Diu (1961) incorporation.
State division (Option 2) doesn't affect citizenship - already citizens.
Five years residence (Option 3) relates to naturalization, not incorporation.
Answer: Option 1 → India acquires new territory
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q10. As of November 2025, Article 1 of the Indian Constitution classifies Indian territory into how many distinct categories under Constitutional provisions?

  1. (a) Four
  2. (b) Two
  3. (c) Three
  4. (d) Five
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Three

Topic: Indian Constitution - Article 1
Article 1: Name and Territory of the Union
Article 1 classifies Indian territory intothree categories:
1.The States
2.The Union Territories
3.Territories that may be acquired
This classification defines the territorial jurisdiction of India.
Answer: Option 3 → Three
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 2 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q11. India follows which model of citizenship under its Constitution?

  1. (a) One: only Indian citizenship
  2. (b) Three: local, state, national
  3. (c) Two: national and state
  4. (d) Two: national and regional
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) One: only Indian citizenship

Topic: Citizenship in India
India followssingle citizenship model.
Unlike USA (dual citizenship - federal + state),
India has only one citizenship - Indian citizenship.
All citizens have same rights irrespective of state.
Adopted fromBritish model, not American federal model.
Answer: Option 1 → One: only Indian citizenship

Q12. Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian citizens of which of the following nations are eligible to receive Indian citizenship under the CAA, 2019, if they entered India on or before December 31, 2014?

  1. (a) Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh
  2. (b) Pakistan, Myanmar, and Nepal
  3. (c) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan
  4. (d) Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Maldives
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan

Topic: Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019
The CAA grants Indian citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from three neighboring Islamic countries.
Eligible Countries:Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan
Eligible Communities:Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian
Entry Deadline:On or before December 31, 2014
Answer: Option 3 → Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 2 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q13. Which article implicitly prohibits 'dual citizenship' in India?

  1. (a) Article 7
  2. (b) Article 3
  3. (c) Article 5
  4. (d) Article 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 9

Topic: Citizenship - Constitutional Provisions
Article 9deals with persons voluntarily acquiring
citizenship of a foreign country.
It states:No person shall be a citizen of India if
he has voluntarily acquired citizenship of any
foreign state.
This provisionimplicitly prohibits dual citizenship
in India.
Answer: Option 4 → Article 9
SSC GD 2026 – 4 May 2026 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q14. Citizenship provisions are given in which part of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Part I
  2. (b) Part II
  3. (c) Part III
  4. (d) Part IV
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Part II

Correct Answer: Part II — Option (b)
Citizenship provisions in the Indian Constitution are contained in Part II (Articles 5 to 11). These articles deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution, citizenship of migrants from Pakistan, rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to Pakistan, and the power of Parliament to regulate citizenship by law.
Option (a) Part I — Incorrect: Part I (Articles 1–4) deals with the Union and its territories.
Option (c) Part III — Incorrect: Part III (Articles 12–35) contains Fundamental Rights.
Option (d) Part IV — Incorrect: Part IV (Articles 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy.
SSC GD 2026 – 4 May 2026 Shift 1 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q15. Who has the power to create new states and alter boundaries of existing states?

  1. (a) Parliament
  2. (b) State Legislature
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) President
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Parliament

Correct Answer: Parliament — Option (a)
Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power to form new states, increase or decrease the area of existing states, alter the boundaries of existing states, and change the names of existing states. However, before introducing such a Bill, the President must refer it to the concerned State Legislature for its views. The state legislature's opinion is not binding on Parliament.
Option (b) State Legislature — Incorrect: State Legislatures cannot create new states or alter boundaries; only Parliament can.
Option (c) Supreme Court — Incorrect: The Supreme Court has no legislative power to create or alter states.
Option (d) President — Incorrect: The President's role is to refer such a bill to the state legislature; the actual power lies with Parliament.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 27 March 2026 Shift 3 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q16. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, a person born outside India on or after December 10, 1992, shall be a citizen of India by descent if:

  1. (a) Either parent is a citizen of India at the time of birth
  2. (b) Both parents are ordinarily resident in India at the time of birth
  3. (c) Only the mother is an Indian citizen
  4. (d) Only the father is an Indian citizen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Either parent is a citizen of India at the time of birth

Topic: Citizenship Act, 1955 - Citizenship by Descent
Key Provisions:
For persons born outside India on or after 10 Dec 1992:
Citizenship by descent is granted ifeither parentis an Indian citizen at the time of birth.
This amendment (1992) changed the earlier rule which required only the father to be a citizen.
The law now providesgender-neutral provisionsfor citizenship by descent.
Answer: Option 1 → Either parent is a citizen of India at the time of birth
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 24 March 2026 Shift 3 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q17. The Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh was constitutionalized through which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) Ninety-Seventh Amendment
  2. (b) One Hundredth Amendment
  3. (c) Ninety-Eighth Amendment
  4. (d) One Hundred and First Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One Hundredth Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - India-Bangladesh Relations
100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015
Key Facts:
• Ratified the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) signed in 1974
• Enabled exchange of enclaves between India and Bangladesh
• Resolved 68-year-old border dispute
• Transferred 111 Indian enclaves to Bangladesh and 51 Bangladeshi enclaves to India
Answer: Option 2 → One Hundredth Amendment
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 22 March 2026 Shift 2 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q18. What is the legal consequence if an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign country after the commencement of the Constitution?

  1. (a) He/She ceases to be an Indian citizen
  2. (b) Citizenship is retained subject to conditions
  3. (c) Dual citizenship is permitted
  4. (d) Indian citizenship is suspended for three years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) He/She ceases to be an Indian citizen

Topic: Loss of Indian Citizenship
Article 9 of the Constitution:
Any person who voluntarily acquires citizenship of a foreign state shall cease to be a citizen of India.
Key Point:
India does NOT allow dual citizenship. Voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship results in automatic termination of Indian citizenship.
Exception:Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) is available but it is NOT dual citizenship - it only provides certain privileges.
Answer: Option 1 → He/She ceases to be an Indian citizen
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 22 March 2026 Shift 3 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q19. A person born in India between 26 January 1950 and 1 July 1987 is automatically considered a citizen of India by:

  1. (a) naturalisation
  2. (b) descent
  3. (c) registration
  4. (d) birth
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) birth

Topic: Indian Citizenship
Constitutional provision under Article 5:
Any person born in India between26 Jan 1950(commencement of Constitution) and1 July 1987automatically acquired citizenshipby birth.
This was unconditional citizenship based solely on place of birth (jus soli principle).
After 1987, Citizenship Act was amended to add conditions regarding parents' citizenship status.
Answer: Option 4 → birth
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 3 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q20. Which constitutional article empowers the Indian Parliament to make laws regarding the acquisition and termination of India n citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Article 8
  2. (b) Article 6
  3. (c) Article 5
  4. (d) Article 11
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 11

Constitutional Provisions on Citizenship
Articles 5-11 deal with citizenship provisions.
Article 5:Citizenship at commencement of Constitution
Article 6:Rights of migrants from Pakistan
Article 8:Rights of overseas citizens
Article 11:Parliament's power to regulate citizenship
Article 11 empowers Parliament to make laws for:
• Acquisition of citizenship
• Termination of citizenship
• All other matters relating to citizenship
Answer: Option 4 → Article 11
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q21. If the Government of India revokes the citizenship of an individual for acting against the interests of the country, which constitutional or statutory provision empowers it to do so?

  1. (a) Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955
  2. (b) Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955
  3. (c) Article 5 of the Constitution
  4. (d) Article 11 of the Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955

Section 10 of Citizenship Act, 1955deals with termination of citizenship.
Government can revoke citizenship if person:
- Obtained citizenship by fraud/false representation
- Showed disloyalty to Constitution
- Unlawfully traded/communicated with enemy during war
- Engaged in activities against sovereignty/integrity of India
Other Options:
Section 6A: Special provisions for Assam migrants
Article 5: Citizenship at commencement of Constitution
Article 11: Parliament's power to regulate citizenship by law
Answer: Option 2 → Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q22. Which provision in Part II of the Constitution defines one basis for citizenship at the commencement, specifically that the person’s either parent was born in India?

  1. (a) Article 5
  2. (b) Article 6
  3. (c) Article 8
  4. (d) Article 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 5

Article 5defines citizenship at commencement of Constitution.
Key provision: Person domiciled in India AND
- Born in India, OR
- Either parent born in India, OR
- Ordinarily resident for 5+ years
Article 6: Migration from Pakistan
Article 8: Overseas citizens of Indian origin
Article 9: Voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship
Answer: Option 1 → Article 5

Q23. The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019, provides citizenship to individuals belonging to which communities if they entered India before 31st December 2014 from Pakistan or Afghanistan or Bangladesh ?

  1. (a) Hindu, Muslim, Jain, Parsi
  2. (b) Muslim, Christian, Parsi, Sikh
  3. (c) Sikh, Christian, Hindu, Jain only
  4. (d) Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian

Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019
Provides citizenship to persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, Bangladesh who entered India before 31st December 2014.
Six communities covered:
Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian
Note: Muslim community is NOT included in CAA 2019.
Answer: Option 4 → Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 March 2026 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q24. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, which section governs the grant of citizenship when a new territory becomes part of India?

  1. (a) Section 6
  2. (b) Section 5
  3. (c) Section 7
  4. (d) Section 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 7

Section 7: Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan
Key provisions related to territorial changes:
• Section 5: Citizenship by registration
• Section 6: Citizenship by naturalization
•Section 7: Citizenship rights when territory becomes part of India
• Section 9: Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign country
Section 7 specifically deals with citizenship rights when new territories are integrated into India.
Answer: Option 3 → Section 7
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 March 2026 Shift 3 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q25. Which Articles in the Constitution of India deal with citizenship at the time of its commencement?

  1. (a) Articles 1 to 4
  2. (b) Articles 14 to 24
  3. (c) Articles 12 to 18
  4. (d) Articles 5 to 11
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Articles 5 to 11

Part II (Articles 5-11)deals with citizenship at commencement.
Key Articles:
Article 5: Citizenship at commencement for domiciled persons
Article 6: Rights of migrants from Pakistan
Article 7: Rights of migrants to Pakistan
Article 8: Rights of overseas Indians
Article 9: Voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship
Article 10: Continuance of citizenship rights
Article 11: Parliament's power to regulate citizenship
Answer: Option 4 → Articles 5 to 11
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 2 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q26. Which provision addresses citizenship for persons who migrated from Pakistan before India's Constitution commencement?

  1. (a) Article 6
  2. (b) Article 10
  3. (c) Article 5
  4. (d) Article 8
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 6

Article 6 specifically deals with:
'Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan'
(before the commencement of the Constitution on 26 January 1950).
Condition: The person or either of his parents/grandparents was born in undivided India,
and he migrated to India before 19 July 1948 (or registered after that date).
Related Articles (for exam):
• Article 5 → Citizenship at commencement (born/domiciled in India).
• Article 6 → Migrants from Pakistan.
• Article 8 → Rights of Indians ordinarily residing outside India.
• Article 9 → Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of foreign state.
• Article 10 → Continuance of citizenship rights.
Answer: Option 1 → Article 6
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q27. Which of the following is NOT one of the valid ways to acquire Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?

  1. (a) By descent
  2. (b) By registration
  3. (c) By marriage
  4. (d) By birth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By marriage

Option 3 is correct.
Indian citizenship can be acquired by birth, descent, registration, or naturalisation under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Marriage to an Indian citizen does not automatically confer citizenship.
Therefore, acquiring citizenship 'By marriage' is NOT a valid method under the Act.

Q28. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024, and their application under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?

  1. (a) The Rules introduce a fixed 6-year residency requirement for naturalization, irrespective of the applicant's country of origin.
  2. (b) The Rules mandate that applicants must demonstrate proficiency in an Eighth Schedule language, with proficiency levels determined by the Central Government.
  3. (c) The Rules allow for automatic citizenship for eligible applicants upon application, without any requirement for verification or approval.
  4. (d) The Rules exclude applicants from the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regions and Sixth Schedule areas from the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Rules exclude applicants from the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regions and Sixth Schedule areas from the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019.

The CAA Rules, 2024 specify that applicants from areas covered under the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regime and the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution are excluded from the CAA's provisions, preserving the rights of tribal communities in those regions.
(1) The CAA provides a 5-year residency requirement, not 6 years.
(2) The Rules do not mandate Eighth Schedule language proficiency levels set by the Central Government.
(3) Citizenship is not automatic — applications undergo a verification and approval process.

Q29. The 'Citizenship (Amendment) Act', 2019, aims to provide a fast-track to Indian citizenship for minorities from which three countries?

  1. (a) Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar
  2. (b) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan
  3. (c) Sri Lanka, China, Nepal
  4. (d) Pakistan, Iraq, Iran
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) 2019 provides fast-track Indian citizenship to persecuted religious minorities (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians) who entered India from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan before 31 December 2014.
(a) Incorrect: Nepal, Bhutan, and Myanmar are not the three countries specified in the CAA 2019.
(b) Incorrect: Sri Lanka, China, and Nepal are not mentioned in the CAA 2019; the correct countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.
(c) Incorrect: Iraq and Iran are not among the three countries mentioned in the CAA; only Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan are specified.

Q30. Under which Article does Parliament have the power to create a new State or alter boundaries of existing States, with President's recommendation and potential ratification by States?

  1. (a) Article 2
  2. (b) Article 3
  3. (c) Article 4
  4. (d) Article 368
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 3

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution gives Parliament the power to: (a) form new states by separating territory from existing states or uniting states, (b) increase or diminish area of states, and (c) alter boundaries or change names of states. The President must recommend the Bill to Parliament, and the concerned state Legislature must be given time to express its views.
(a) Incorrect: Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new states into the Union (i.e., territories not yet part of India).
(c) Incorrect: Article 4 deals with laws made under Articles 2 and 3 (consequential amendments to Schedules I and IV).
(d) Incorrect: Article 368 deals with the procedure for amending the Constitution itself, not for creating new states.

Q31. Under the Indian Constitution, which Article empowers the Parliament to alter the boundaries of states without a state's consent?

  1. (a) Article 3
  2. (b) Article 5
  3. (c) Article 6
  4. (d) Article 8
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 3

The correct answer is Article 3 (Option 1).
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states, alter the boundaries of existing states, diminish the area of any state, and change names of states. Crucially, Parliament can do so without the consent of the concerned state legislature — the state legislature's views must only be ascertained within a specified time, but its consent is not required.
Option 2 - Article 5: Article 5 defines citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution; it has no connection to state boundaries.
Option 3 - Article 6: Article 6 grants rights of citizenship to those who migrated from Pakistan before July 19, 1948; it is unrelated to state boundary alterations.
Option 4 - Article 8: Article 8 gives rights of citizenship to persons of Indian origin living outside India; it does not deal with state boundaries.

Q32. Who appoints the officer for registering migrants as citizens?

  1. (a) State Government
  2. (b) Central government of India
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central government of India

The correct answer is Central government of India (Option 2).
Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, the Central Government of India appoints officers for registering migrants and processing citizenship applications. Citizenship in India is a Union subject (Entry 17, Union List) under the Constitution, giving exclusive authority to the Central Government.
Option 1 - State Government: Citizenship is a Union subject; state governments do not have the power to grant citizenship or appoint citizenship registration officers.
Option 3 - Supreme Court: The Supreme Court adjudicates citizenship disputes but does not appoint registration officers.
Option 4 - President of India: While the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, the formal appointing authority for citizenship registration officers is the Central Government.

Q33. Under which article is India described as a "Union of States"?

  1. (a) Article 1
  2. (b) Article 352
  3. (c) Article 368
  4. (d) Article 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 1

Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.' This establishes India's name, its nature as a Union (not a federation, reflecting the indestructible nature of the Union), and that territories consist of States, Union Territories, and such other territories as may be acquired. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Article 352 deals with the National Emergency (Proclamation of Emergency) in case of armed rebellion or external aggression; it does not describe India as a 'Union of States.'
Option 3 is wrong: Article 368 deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for amendment; it does not describe India as a Union of States.
Option 4 is wrong: Article 3 deals with the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, and names of existing states — Parliament's power to reorganise states; it does not describe India's nature as a Union.

Q34. Which of the following is not permitted under Article 3 of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Legislature's veto over state reorganisation
  2. (b) Increase in area of a state
  3. (c) Change of name of a state
  4. (d) Formation of a new state from a Union Territory
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Legislature's veto over state reorganisation

Under Article 3, Parliament has the power to reorganise states (form new states, alter areas, boundaries, names). However, Parliament is NOT required to obtain the consent of the concerned State Legislature — it only needs to refer the bill to the state for expressing views within a specified time, and Parliament is not bound by those views. Therefore, a 'Legislature's veto' (binding refusal) over state reorganisation is NOT permitted. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Increasing the area of a state IS explicitly permitted under Article 3(b) — Parliament can increase the area of any state.
Option 3 is wrong: Changing the name of a state IS explicitly permitted under Article 3(e) — Parliament can alter the name of any state.
Option 4 is wrong: Formation of a new state from a Union Territory IS permitted under Article 3(a) — Parliament can form a new state by separation of territory from any existing state or by uniting two or more states.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 2 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q35. Which Article empowers Parliament to alter state boundaries and form new states?

  1. (a) Article 1
  2. (b) Article 2
  3. (c) Article 4
  4. (d) Article 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 3

Correct Answer: Article 3
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to: form a new state by separation of territory, unite two or more states, increase or diminish the area of any state, and alter the name or boundaries of any state. This can be done by a simple majority in Parliament.
Option 1 (Article 1): Incorrect. Article 1 defines India as a Union of States.
Option 2 (Article 2): Incorrect. Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new states into the Union.
Option 3 (Article 4): Incorrect. Article 4 deals with laws under Articles 2 and 3.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 3 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q36. Which of the following pairs of newly created States/Union Territories after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Telangana – 2001
  2. (b) Chhattisgarh – 2000
  3. (c) Uttarakhand – 1998
  4. (d) Jharkhand – 2001
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chhattisgarh – 2000

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh – 2000 . Chhattisgarh was carved out of Madhya Pradesh on 1 November 2000 . The other options are mismatched: Telangana was created in 2014 , not 2001; Uttarakhand was created in 2000 , not 1998 (earlier known as Uttaranchal); Jharkhand was also created in 2000 , not 2001. Hence, only the pair Chhattisgarh – 2000 is correctly matched.

Q37. What is the role of the Foreigners’ Tribunal in the NRC (National Register of Citizens) process?

  1. (a) To issue voter ID cards
  2. (b) To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC
  3. (c) To conduct the Census
  4. (d) To deport illegal immigrants
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC

The correct answer is to verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC . The Foreigners’ Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body established under the Foreigners Act, 1946. In the NRC process, especially in Assam, individuals who are excluded from the NRC list can approach the Foreigners’ Tribunal to prove their Indian citizenship. The tribunal examines documents, hears arguments, and delivers judgments on whether a person is an Indian citizen or a foreign national. It does not issue voter ID cards, conduct the Census, or directly deport individuals; deportation is the responsibility of the government after due legal process. The tribunal’s role is strictly to decide on citizenship verification .
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 30 November 2025 Shift 3 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q38. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution is related with Admission or establishment of new States?

  1. (a) Article 2
  2. (b) Article 4
  3. (c) Article 8
  4. (d) Article 7
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 2

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Article 2
Article 2 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to admit into the Union or establish new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. Article 3 deals with formation of new states by reorganising existing states (altering boundaries, changing names, etc.).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Article 4): Article 4 deals with laws made under Articles 2 and 3 that are not deemed to be amendments.
Option 3 (Article 8): Article 8 deals with rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin.
Option 4 (Article 7): Article 7 deals with rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan.

Q39. As per September 2024, according to the Ministry of External Affairs in India, there are _____ million Indians residing abroad who are either NRIs or OCIs.

  1. (a) 32
  2. (b) 44
  3. (c) 52
  4. (d) 61
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 32

As per September 2024 data from the Ministry of External Affairs, approximately 32 million Indians reside abroad as Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) or Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs).
44, 52, and 61 million are incorrect. Hence, 32 is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 27 November 2025 Shift 1 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q40. Which of the following amendment act of the Indian constitution made Sikkim a full-fledged State of the India?

  1. (a) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
  2. (b) 35th Amendment Act, 1974
  3. (c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  4. (d) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 36th Amendment Act, 1975

The 36th Amendment Act, 1975 made Sikkim the 22nd state of India. It added Sikkim to the First Schedule (list of states) and the Fourth Schedule (seat allocation) of the Constitution. Prior to this, the 35th Amendment Act, 1974 had made Sikkim an 'Associate State'.
The 38th Amendment Act deals with Emergency provisions; the 42nd Amendment was the 'Mini Constitution'; the 35th only gave associate status. Hence, 36th Amendment Act, 1975 is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 13 November 2025 Shift 2 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q41. An Indian state can be divided or its boundary altered by which of the following?

  1. (a) The State Legislature
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) President
  4. (d) Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament

Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power to form a new state by separation of territory from any state, unite states, increase/diminish the area of a state, or alter the boundaries or name of any state. The State Legislature's view is sought but is not binding. Why others are wrong: - The State Legislature: It can express its view, but does not have the final authority to alter its own boundaries. - President: The President refers the bill to the concerned State Legislature but does not directly alter boundaries. - Supreme Court: It is a judicial body and does not have the legislative power to alter state boundaries.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 2 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q42. Which Article defines State and Union Territories for the purposes of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 1
  2. (b) Article 3
  3. (c) Article 239
  4. (d) Article 240
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 1

Article 1 of the Constitution declares ‘India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States’ and provides for the names of States and Union Territories.
Article 3 deals with formation/alteration; Articles 239 and 240 deal with administration of UTs.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 3 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q43. Which of the following commissions was appointed to look into the question of states based on language?

  1. (a) Gadgil Commission
  2. (b) Dhar Commission
  3. (c) Swaran Singh Committee
  4. (d) Sarkaria Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dhar Commission

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 1 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q44. Which of the following states was NOT formed through the State Reorganisation Act of 1956?

  1. (a) Mysore State
  2. (b) Goa State
  3. (c) Rajasthan State
  4. (d) Bombay State
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goa State

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 3 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q45. Under Article 5 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT required for a person to be considered a citizen at the commencement of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Having at least one parent born in India
  2. (b) Holding an Indian passport
  3. (c) Being born in India
  4. (d) Having domicile in the territory of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Holding an Indian passport

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q46. Which of the following Ministries is responsible for granting Indian citizenship by naturalisation?

  1. (a) Ministry of External Affairs
  2. (b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
  3. (c) Ministry of Law and Justice
  4. (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ministry of Home Affairs

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q47. Which of the following Articles deals with the rights of citizenship at the commencement of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 10
  2. (b) Article 11
  3. (c) Article 5
  4. (d) Article 7
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 5

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 2 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q48. Which of the following is NOT a mode of acquiring Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?

  1. (a) By birth
  2. (b) By adoption
  3. (c) By descent
  4. (d) By registration
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) By adoption

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 3 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q49. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws relating to the acquisition and termination of the Indian Citizenship?

  1. (a) Article 7
  2. (b) Article 10
  3. (c) Article 12
  4. (d) Article 11
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 11

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 1 September 2025 Shift 3 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q50. Which schedule of the Citizenship Act, 1955, contains the qualifications for naturalisation?

  1. (a) First Schedule
  2. (b) Second Schedule
  3. (c) Tenth Schedule
  4. (d) Third Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Third Schedule

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q51. Article 6 deals with persons who migrated to India from _____.

  1. (a) Bangladesh
  2. (b) Nepal
  3. (c) Pakistan
  4. (d) Sri Lanka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pakistan

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 2 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q52. Which of the following is a mode of losing Indian citizenship?

  1. (a) Registration
  2. (b) Birth
  3. (c) Naturalization
  4. (d) Renunciation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Renunciation

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 3 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q53. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution defined?

  1. (a) Article 5
  2. (b) Article 6
  3. (c) Article 11
  4. (d) Article 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 5

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 3 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q54. Which of the following pairs of Union Territories were merged to form a single Indian Union Territory in 2020?

  1. (a) Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh
  2. (b) Chandigarh and Puducherry
  3. (c) Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep
  4. (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q55. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that a person who had voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State shall NOT be considered a citizen of India at the commencement of the Constitution under Articles 5, 6, or 8?

  1. (a) Article 10
  2. (b) Article 12
  3. (c) Article 9
  4. (d) Article 11
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 9

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 22 August 2025 Shift 3 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q56. Which Amendment of the Citizenship Act introduced the provision that an illegal migrant cannot acquire citizenship by naturalisation or registration?

  1. (a) 1986 Amendment
  2. (b) 2003 Amendment
  3. (c) 2015 Amendment
  4. (d) 2005 Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2003 Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 2 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q57. When was the States Reorganisation Act passed, implementing the Commission’s recommendations?

  1. (a) 1959
  2. (b) 1953
  3. (c) 1956
  4. (d) 1954
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1956

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 2 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q58. Who were members of the States Reorganisation Commission formed in 1953?

  1. (a) Rajaji, Nehru, Bose
  2. (b) Rajendra Prasad, Patel, Rajaji
  3. (c) HN Kunzru, KM Panikkar, Fazl Ali
  4. (d) Nehru, Ambedkar, Azad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) HN Kunzru, KM Panikkar, Fazl Ali

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q59. Which of the following Articles deals with the citizenship of people of Indian origin residing outside India?

  1. (a) Article 8
  2. (b) Article 9
  3. (c) Article 11
  4. (d) Article 7
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 8

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q60. Article 6 of the Constitution pertains to the citizenship of persons who migrated to India from which of the following territories?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka
  2. (b) Bangladesh
  3. (c) Pakistan
  4. (d) Myanmar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pakistan

Q61. Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) holders are:

  1. (a) Dual citizens of India and another country
  2. (b) Persons entitled to hold constitutional posts
  3. (c) Indian citizens with voting rights
  4. (d) Foreign nationals with special privileges
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Foreign nationals with special privileges

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 August 2025 Shift 2 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q62. According to the Citizenship Act, how many years must a person ordinarily reside in India to apply for citizenship by naturalisation under general conditions?

  1. (a) 5 years
  2. (b) 10 years
  3. (c) 7 years
  4. (d) 12 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 12 years

Q63. Which of the following communities may apply for Indian citizenship after just 6 years of residence, as per the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?

  1. (a) Sikhs from Pakistan
  2. (b) Buddhists from Nepal
  3. (c) Jews from Israel
  4. (d) Hindus from Sri Lanka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sikhs from Pakistan

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 28 July 2025 Shift 3 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q64. Which authority can alter the boundaries of Indian states?

  1. (a) Supreme Court
  2. (b) State Legislative Assemblies
  3. (c) President of India
  4. (d) Parliament of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Parliament of India

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Parliament of India
Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the exclusive power to alter the boundaries of states — by forming new states, increasing or diminishing the area of states, altering the boundaries of states, and altering the names of states. Such a bill can only be introduced in Parliament on the recommendation of the President. Before introduction, the President refers the bill to the affected state legislature(s) for their views (though their consent is not binding). Example: creation of Telangana (2014) by bifurcating Andhra Pradesh.
Option 1 (Supreme Court): The Supreme Court interprets the Constitution and resolves disputes; it cannot legislate to alter state boundaries.
Option 2 (State Legislative Assemblies): State legislatures have no power under Article 3 to alter their own or other states' boundaries; only Parliament can do so.
Option 3 (President of India): The President refers boundary bills to state legislatures and gives assent, but cannot unilaterally alter state boundaries — that power vests in Parliament.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 24 June 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q65. When did the citizenship provisions in the Constitution come into effect?

  1. (a) November 26, 1949
  2. (b) July 19, 1949
  3. (c) January 26, 1950
  4. (d) August 15, 1947
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) November 26, 1949

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 23 June 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law?

  1. (a) Article 11
  2. (b) Article 14
  3. (c) Article 5
  4. (d) Article 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 11

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 23 June 2025 Shift 2 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q67. Which of the following provisions are covered under Article 4 of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Financial Powers
  2. (b) Emergency Provisions
  3. (c) Laws for reorganisation of states
  4. (d) Fundamental Rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Laws for reorganisation of states

Q68. What was the main change introduced by the 2015 Amendment to the Citizenship Act?

  1. (a) Created a new visa category for tourists
  2. (b) Abolished Overseas Citizenship
  3. (c) Merged PIO and OCI card schemes
  4. (d) Introduced Dual Citizenship
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Merged PIO and OCI card schemes

Q69. What was the cutoff date for migrants to be eligible under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA)?

  1. (a) January 26, 1950
  2. (b) December 31, 2014
  3. (c) August 15, 1947
  4. (d) March 31, 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) December 31, 2014

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 June 2025 Shift 2 · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q70. Which region was merged in 1948 to form the initial territory of Himachal Pradesh?

  1. (a) Rajputana
  2. (b) Chhattisgarh
  3. (c) Shimla Hill States
  4. (d) Patiala and East Punjab States Union
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shimla Hill States

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 June 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q71. Where can people of Indian origin living abroad apply for Indian citizenship under Article 8?

  1. (a) Indian Embassy at their country of living
  2. (b) Indian Embassy in Delhi only
  3. (c) State government office
  4. (d) Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Embassy at their country of living

Q72. Which of the following communities was NOT included for fast-track citizenship under Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019?

  1. (a) Muslims
  2. (b) Sikh
  3. (c) Hindu
  4. (d) Christian
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Muslims

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 June 2025 Shift 3 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q73. Which of the following is NOT allowed under the Citizenship Act, 1955?

  1. (a) Registration
  2. (b) Descent-based citizenship
  3. (c) Naturalisation
  4. (d) Dual citizenship
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dual citizenship

Q74. How many religious communities are covered under the 2019 Citizenship Amendment Act?

  1. (a) 7
  2. (b) 3
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 6
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 6

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 June 2025 Shift 2 · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q75. What type of majority is required to pass laws under Articles 2 and 3, as per Article 4(2) in Indian parliament?

  1. (a) Simple majority
  2. (b) Two-thirds majority
  3. (c) Special majority
  4. (d) State ratification
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Simple majority

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 June 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q76. How can a foreigner who has lived in India for 12 years acquire Indian citizenship?

  1. (a) By registration
  2. (b) By birth
  3. (c) By naturalisation
  4. (d) By descent
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By naturalisation

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 10 June 2025 Shift 2 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q77. Which principle of citizenship did India start following more strictly after the 2003 Amendment?

  1. (a) Universal citizenship
  2. (b) Jus sanguinis (by blood)
  3. (c) Dual citizenship
  4. (d) Jus soli (by birth)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jus sanguinis (by blood)

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 June 2025 Shift 2 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q78. Which agreement is linked to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1985?

  1. (a) Kashmir Agreement
  2. (b) Indo-Sri Lanka Pact
  3. (c) Assam Accord
  4. (d) Shimla Agreement
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Assam Accord

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 June 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q79. Which authority decides citizenship for people in newly added territories?

  1. (a) Union Government
  2. (b) Election Commission
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) State Government
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Union Government

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 6 June 2025 Shift 1 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q80. What happens when an Indian citizen renounces their citizenship?

  1. (a) They lose their Indian citizenship.
  2. (b) They become a foreign diplomat.
  3. (c) They are fined.
  4. (d) Nothing changes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They lose their Indian citizenship.

Q81. What does OCI stand for in the context of Indian citizenship?

  1. (a) Overseas Card for Indians
  2. (b) Overseas Citizen of India
  3. (c) Official Citizen of India
  4. (d) Original Citizen Identity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Overseas Citizen of India

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 5 June 2025 Shift 2 · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q82. What happens if an Indian citizen voluntarily becomes a citizen of another country?

  1. (a) They become dual citizens.
  2. (b) Nothing changes.
  3. (c) They must get government approval.
  4. (d) Their Indian citizenship ends automatically.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Their Indian citizenship ends automatically.

Q83. The Citizenship Amendment Act was enacted in 2019 and was operationalised after the rules for it were notified by the Ministry of Home Affairs on _______.

  1. (a) 11 March 2024
  2. (b) 11 March 2020
  3. (c) 11 March 2023
  4. (d) 11 March 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 11 March 2024

Answer: Option 1 — 11 March 2024
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 came into force only when the Ministry of Home Affairs notified the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024 on 11 March 2024.
Revision note — Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019
• Passed by Parliament in December 2019; it amends the Citizenship Act, 1955.
• Fast-track citizenship for Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi and Christian migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan.
• Cut-off date of entry into India: 31 December 2014.
• Residence requirement for naturalisation cut from 11 years to 5 years for these groups.
• Does not apply to Sixth Schedule tribal areas and Inner Line Permit regions of the North-East.
• Citizenship is in the Union List; Articles 5–11 (Part II) of the Constitution deal with citizenship.
Also asked from this topic: the three countries covered by CAA 2019 (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan); the areas excluded by the 2024 Rules (Sixth Schedule areas and ILP regions).

Q84. According to the Citizenship Amendment Act of 2019, individuals who entered India on or before _______ and belong to the Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian community from Pakistan, Afghanistan or Bangladesh are eligible for citizenship.

  1. (a) 31 December 2014
  2. (b) 31 December 2015
  3. (c) 31 December 2017
  4. (d) 31 December 2016
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 31 December 2014

Answer: Option 1 — 31 December 2014
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 covers Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi and Christian migrants from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before 31 December 2014.
Revision note — Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019
• It amends the Citizenship Act, 1955; Parliament's power to make citizenship law comes from Article 11.
• Residence needed for naturalisation cut from 11 years to 5 years for these communities.
• Came into force on 10 January 2020; its Rules were notified on 11 March 2024.
• Does not apply to Sixth Schedule tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura, or to Inner Line Permit areas.
• Constitutional provisions on citizenship: Articles 5–11, Part II.
• Citizenship Act 1955 modes: birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, incorporation of territory.
Also asked from this topic: the three countries covered by CAA 2019 (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan); the areas it excludes (Sixth Schedule areas and ILP regions).

More Polity chapters

Polity Miscellaneous176 questionsJudiciary147 questionsEmergency and Centre-State Relations140 questionsUnion Executive136 questionsDPSP and Fundamental Duties122 questionsSpecial Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions116 questionsFundamental Rights108 questionsConstitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies103 questionsLocal Government93 questionsState Government87 questionsParliament86 questionsAmendments and Important Articles85 questionsPreamble, Features, Parts and Schedules63 questionsConstitutional Development and Making54 questionsElections, Parties and Representation27 questions
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): All previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz