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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 9 March 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 9 March 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Polity, Current Affairs, Economics, Static GK, Geography.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 9 March 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Modern History (1) · Polity (2) · Current Affairs (3) · Economics (2) · Static GK (1) · Geography (1) · Physics (14) · Chemistry (12) · Biology (13)

Modern History (1)

Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Surat Split

Q1. At which session of the Indian National Congress did the party formally split into the Moderates and the Extremists?

  1. (a) Surat session 1907
  2. (b) Calcutta session 1906
  3. (c) Delhi session 1912
  4. (d) Bombay session 1910
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Surat session 1907

Correct answer is Option 1: Surat session 1907.
At the Surat session of the Indian National Congress in 1907, the party formally split into two groups: the Moderates and the Extremists.
This split was due to differences in approach towards British rule and the methods to be used for achieving self-rule.
The Moderates favoured constitutional methods, whereas the Extremists supported more direct action including boycotts and protests.
Therefore, the significant division occurred at the Surat session in 1907.
Answer closed with option 1.

Polity (2)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q2. Division of legislative subjects into union, state and concurrent List is contained in which of the following schedules of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Ninth Schedule
  3. (c) Fifth Schedule
  4. (d) Seventh Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Seventh Schedule

The division of legislative subjects into Union, State and Concurrent Lists is given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
It clearly delineates the powers and responsibilities of the Union and State governments.
Thus, the correct answer is the Seventh Schedule.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q3. The Constitution of India provided for how many types of emergencies in Part XVIII, from Articles 352 to 360?

  1. (a) Six
  2. (b) Five
  3. (c) Three
  4. (d) Four
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Three

The Constitution of India provides for three types of emergencies under Part XVIII, Articles 352 to 360.
These are:
1. National Emergency (Article 352)
2. State Emergency (President's Rule) (Article 356)
3. Financial Emergency (Article 360)
Thus, the correct number is three.

Current Affairs (3)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q4. The NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls) initiative, launched on 24 June 2025, is for which age group?

  1. (a) 18 - 20 years
  2. (b) 12 - 14 years
  3. (c) 14 - 16 years
  4. (d) 16 - 18 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 16 - 18 years

Solution:
NAVYA initiativeaims to providevocational trainingto adolescent girls.
It specifically targets girls in the16–18 years age group.
The objective is to enhanceskills, employability, and self-reliance.
Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q5. Which bank joins the India Bullion Exchange as a special category client?

  1. (a) Indian Bank
  2. (b) Bank of India
  3. (c) State Bank of India
  4. (d) Punjab National Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) State Bank of India

India Bullion Exchange (IBE) is a market for trading precious metals in India.
The State Bank of India (SBI) has joined IBE as a special category client.
This partnership helps enhance the bullion trading market in India through SBI's participation.
Hence, the correct answer is State Bank of India (SBI).
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q6. Which country launched the first indigenous, Low-Cost Gene Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease, named "BIRSA 101"?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) China
  3. (c) Spain
  4. (d) Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) India

The first indigenous, low-cost gene therapy for Sickle Cell Disease named 'BIRSA 101' was launched by India.
This is a significant milestone in medical biotechnology in India.
Such innovations help make advanced therapies affordable and accessible to large populations.
Therefore, the correct country is India.

Economics (2)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q7. Under the 2018 amendments in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy approved by the Cabinet, the maximum Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) permitted under the automatic route in Single Brand Retail Trading (SBRT) is _____

  1. (a) 60%
  2. (b) 40%
  3. (c) 85%
  4. (d) 100%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 100%

Correct Answer:100%
Solution:
As per2018 FDI policy amendments,Single Brand Retail Trading (SBRT)allows100% FDI under the automatic route.
Earlier restrictions were relaxed to promoteease of doing business.
It aimed to attractglobal brands and investment in retail sector.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q8. Under the new scheme for first-time Women, SC and ST entrepreneurs, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, what is the maximum loan amount that can be availed?

  1. (a) ₹1 crore
  2. (b) ₹50 lakh
  3. (c) ₹2 crore
  4. (d) ₹5 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ₹2 crore

The Union Budget 2025-26 introduced a new scheme for first-time Women, SC, and ST entrepreneurs.
Under this scheme, the maximum loan amount available is ₹2 crore.
This is intended to support entrepreneurship among these groups with substantial financial assistance.
Hence, the correct maximum loan amount is ₹2 crore.

Static GK (1)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q9. Which dance form is performed by men wearing long colorful robes and tall conical caps in Jammu & Kashmir?

  1. (a) Hikat
  2. (b) Dumhal
  3. (c) HurkaBaul
  4. (d) Chholiya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dumhal

The dance form performed by men wearing long colorful robes and tall conical caps in Jammu and Kashmir is 'Dumhal'.
Dumhal is a traditional folk dance distinctive to the Jammu region.
Men performing Dumhal wear the described attire as part of the cultural costume.
Thus, the correct answer is Option 2: Dumhal.

Geography (1)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q10. With reference to fluvial geomorphic processes in the Indian subcontinent, the Indo-Gangetic Plains have been formed predominantly due to the long-term accumulation of which specific type of deposits?

  1. (a) Aeolian sand deposits formed under arid climatic conditions
  2. (b) Marine sediments laid down by repeated sea transgressions
  3. (c) Alluvial sediments deposited by Himalayan river systems
  4. (d) Glacial till deposited directly by valley glaciers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Alluvial sediments deposited by Himalayan river systems

The Indo-Gangetic Plains are primarily formed by river deposits called alluvium.
These alluvial sediments are brought and deposited by the Himalayan river systems like the Ganges, Yamuna, and their tributaries.
They consist of silt, sand, clay, and gravel gradually accumulated over time, creating fertile plains.
Other options like aeolian sand or marine sediments do not broadly cover the plains formation.
Glacial till is deposited in mountainous valleys, not in the plains.

Physics (14)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Concave lens - image formation and uses

Q11. A concave lens forms a virtual image when the object is placed __________.

  1. (a) Beyond 2F only
  2. (b) At 2F only
  3. (c) At infinity only
  4. (d) At any position in front of the lens.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) At any position in front of the lens.

A concave lens always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image.
It produces this virtual image irrespective of the object's position in front of the lens.
Hence, whether the object is close or far, the image formed by a concave lens is always virtual.
Therefore, the correct option is that a concave lens forms a virtual image at any position in front of the lens.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Numericals on refraction and lenses

Q12. A concave lens has a focal length of 15 cm. If it forms an image 10 cm from the lens, how far away is the object placed from the lens?

  1. (a) +30 cm
  2. (b) +6 cm
  3. (c) -25 cm
  4. (d) -30 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) -30 cm

Given: concave lens focal length, f = -15 cm (concave lens focal length is negative)
Image distance, v = -10 cm (image formed by concave lens is virtual and on same side as object, so negative)
Using lens formula: 1/f = 1/v − 1/u
Substitute values: 1/(-15) = 1/(-10) − 1/u
=> -1/15 = -1/10 − 1/u
=> -1/15 + 1/10 = -1/u
=> (-2 + 3)/30 = -1/u
=> 1/30 = -1/u
=> u = -30 cm
The negative sign means object is on the same side as incoming light (real object), so object distance = -30 cm
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q13. A porter lifts a 10 kg luggage from the ground and places it on his head at a height of 2.5 m. What is the work done by the porter on the luggage? (Using g =10 m/s²)

  1. (a) 250 J
  2. (b) 100 J
  3. (c) 25 J
  4. (d) 500 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 250 J

Work done = Force × Displacement in the direction of force.
Force here is the weight of the luggage = mass × gravity = 10 kg × 10 m/s² = 100 N.
Displacement vertically upwards = 2.5 m.
So, Work done = 100 N × 2.5 m = 250 J.
Therefore, the porter does 250 joules of work on the luggage.
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q14. A train starts from rest and reaches a speed of 216 km/h in 10 minutes. If its acceleration is uniform, what is the value of the acceleration?

  1. (a) 0.1 m/s2
  2. (b) 0.6 m/s2
  3. (c) 0.4 m/s2
  4. (d) 1.0 m/s2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 0.1 m/s2

Given:
Final speed = 216 km/h
Time = 10 minutes
Acceleration uniform
Step 1: Convert speed to m/s
216 × 1000 / 3600 = 60 m/s
Step 2: Convert time to seconds
10 minutes = 600 s
Step 3: Acceleration formula
a = (v − u) / t
= (60 − 0) / 600
= 0.1 m/s²
Force and Laws of Motion · Numericals on force and momentum

Q15. A wooden block of mass 50 kg is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A constant horizontal force of 'X' N is applied on it while it is at rest. The block acquires a velocity of 10 m/s in 2 s. What is the value of X?

  1. (a) 10 N
  2. (b) 100 N
  3. (c) 25 N
  4. (d) 250 N
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 250 N

Given, mass m = 50 kg
Initial velocity u = 0 (at rest)
Final velocity v = (10 m)/(s)
Time t = 2 s
Acceleration a = ((v - u))/(t)
a = ((10 - 0))/(2) = (5 m)/(s²)
Force F = mass × acceleration
F = 50 × 5 = 250 N
Hence, the required constant force X = 250 N
Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q16. An echo is heard in 6 s. If the distance of the reflecting surface from the source is 990 m, then how much is the speed of sound?

  1. (a) 165 m/s
  2. (b) 1320 m/s
  3. (c) 660 m/s
  4. (d) 330 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 330 m/s

Echo time = 6 seconds is the total time for the sound to travel to the reflecting surface and back.
Distance to reflecting surface = 990 m.
Total distance travelled by sound = 2 × 990 = 1980 m.
Speed of sound = Total distance / Time = 1980 m / 6 s = 330 m/s.
Hence, the speed of sound is 330 m/s.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Numericals on refraction and lenses

Q17. An object is placed at 100 cm on the left of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm. Where should a screen be placed to right of the lens so that the image formed is real, inverted and smaller in size as compared to the object size?

  1. (a) The screen should be placed anywhere between 20 cm and 40 cm from the lens.
  2. (b) The screen should be beyond 100 cm from the lens.
  3. (c) The screen should be placed at 40 cm from the lens.
  4. (d) The screen should be placed anywhere between 40 cm and 80 cm from the lens.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The screen should be placed anywhere between 40 cm and 80 cm from the lens.

Given: Object distance u = -100 cm (left side denotes negative in lens formula).
Focal length f = +40 cm (convex lens has positive focal length).
Using lens formula: 1/f = 1/v − 1/u
Substitute values: 1/40 = 1/v − 1/(-100)
That simplifies to 1/40 = 1/v + 1/100
1/v = 1/40 − 1/100 = (5/200) − (2/200) = 3/200
Therefore, v = 200/3 = approximately 66.67 cm (positive value means image on right side).
Magnification m = v/u = +66.67 / -100 = -0.6667 (negative sign means inverted image).
Since |m| < 1, image is smaller than the object.
Hence, the screen should be placed between 40 cm and 80 cm on the right side.
Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q18. An ultrasonic wave has a frequency of 33 kHz. What will be the speed of this wave if its wavelength is 0.01 m?

  1. (a) 330 m/s
  2. (b) 0.33 m/s
  3. (c) 3.3 m/s
  4. (d) 33 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 330 m/s

Speed of wave (v) is given by the formula: v = frequency × wavelength.
Frequency (f) = 33 kHz = 33,000 Hz.
Wavelength (λ) = 0.01 m.
Calculate speed: v = 33,000 × 0.01 = 330 m/s.
Therefore, the speed of the ultrasonic wave is 330 m/s.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q19. If a velocity–time graph shows a horizontal straight line, the object is moving with ________.

  1. (a) Non-uniform acceleration
  2. (b) Constant velocity
  3. (c) Zero displacement
  4. (d) No velocity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Constant velocity

A horizontal straight line on a velocity-time graph means velocity is constant over time.
Constant velocity implies zero acceleration.
Thus, the object moves with constant velocity when the velocity-time graph is a horizontal line.
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q20. If the gravitational force experienced by a body of mass 'm' on the surface of Earth is 'X' N. If the mass of the body is tripled, what will be the value of the gravitational force experienced by the body?

  1. (a) X/9 N
  2. (b) X/3 N
  3. (c) 3X N
  4. (d) X N
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3X N

The gravitational force is directly proportional to the mass of the body.
If the mass is tripled, the force also becomes three times.
Therefore, the new force = 3 × X = 3X Newtons.
Motion · Motion graphs (distance-time, velocity-time)

Q21. In a velocity–time graph, the graph is a straight horizontal line at 10 m/s for 5 seconds. Then the distance travelled is ____________.

  1. (a) 10 m
  2. (b) 5 m
  3. (c) 50 m
  4. (d) 2 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 50 m

(Velocity is constant at 10 m)/(s for 5 seconds.)
Distance = Velocity × Time
Distance = (10 m)/(s × 5 s)
Distance = 50 m
Sound and Waves · Speed of sound in different media

Q22. The speed of sound depends primarily on the nature and ____________ of the medium.

  1. (a) Temperature
  2. (b) Amplitude
  3. (c) Volume
  4. (d) Pressure
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Temperature

The speed of sound is affected mainly by the properties of the medium it travels through.
Temperature changes the medium's elasticity and density, altering sound speed.
Amplitude, volume, and pressure have little direct effect on speed.
Thus, temperature is the primary factor influencing sound speed in a medium.
Work, Energy and Power · Work and its sign

Q23. When standing still with a heavy load on your head, you expend energy and get tired. Why is zero work done on the load?

  1. (a) The force applied is vertical.
  2. (b) There is no displacement of the load.
  3. (c) The time elapsed is irrelevant.
  4. (d) Force is not being applied.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) There is no displacement of the load.

Work is defined as force applied multiplied by displacement in the direction of the force.
When standing still with a heavy load on your head, the load does not move; hence, displacement is zero.
Since displacement is zero, the work done on the load is zero, despite the force acting to support it.
Energy expenditure comes from muscle effort, not work done on the load by physics definition.
Light - Refraction and Lenses · Lens formula and magnification

Q24. Which of the following is the correct relation between the object distance (u), image distance (v) and focal length (f) of a convex lens?

  1. (a) (1/v) x (1/ u) = 1/f
  2. (b) v - u = f
  3. (c) v + u = f
  4. (d) (1/v) - (1/u) = 1/f
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) (1/v) - (1/u) = 1/f

The relation between object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) of a convex lens is given by the lens formula.
Lens formula is (1/v) − (1/u) = 1/f, where all distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
This formula helps to relate the position of the object, image, and the focal length of the lens.
Hence, the correct relation is option 4: (1/v) − (1/u) = 1/f.
This is a basic formula used in optics problems in competitive exams.

Chemistry (12)

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q25. A student heats 10 g of calcium carbonate in a closed container. It decomposes into 5.6 g of calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas. What will be the mass of carbon dioxide produced?

  1. (a) 10.0 g
  2. (b) 5.0 g
  3. (c) 4.4 g
  4. (d) 15.6 g
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 4.4 g

The reaction is: Calcium carbonate (CaCO3) → Calcium oxide (CaO) + Carbon dioxide (CO2).
Mass of calcium carbonate = 10 g
Mass of calcium oxide = 5.6 g
By conservation of mass: Total mass before = total mass after
Mass of CO2 = Mass of CaCO3 − Mass of CaO
Mass of CO2 = 10 g − 5.6 g = 4.4 g
Therefore, the mass of carbon dioxide produced is 4.4 g.
Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q26. Burning of a saturated hydrocarbon will result in which type of flame?

  1. (a) Yellow flame
  2. (b) Clean flame
  3. (c) Sooty flame
  4. (d) Green flame
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Clean flame

Correct Answer:Clean flame
Solution:
Saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes)burn withcomplete combustion.
They produce ablue, clean (non-sooty) flame.
No unburnt carbon particles are formed.
Hence, the flame isclean.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q27. During the extraction of metals from their ores, the removal of gangue is an important preliminary step. Which of the following statements most accurately explains why different concentration methods (such as hydraulic washing, froth flotation and magnetic separation) are used for different ores?

  1. (a) Because gangue particles are chemically reactive and must be removed by oxidation before extraction
  2. (b) Because each method exploits specific differences in physical and chemical properties between the ore and the gangue
  3. (c) Because the choice of concentration method depends on the melting point of the ore and gangue
  4. (d) Because all ores have identical physical properties but different chemical compositions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Because each method exploits specific differences in physical and chemical properties between the ore and the gangue

Option 2 is correct.
Different concentration methods are used because they exploit specific differences between the ore and gangue.
These differences can be in physical properties like density, magnetic susceptibility, or surface properties.
Hydraulic washing uses density differences.
Froth flotation exploits surface chemistry differences.
Magnetic separation depends on magnetic properties.
Hence, method choice depends on ore and gangue characteristics.
Option 1 is incorrect because gangue removal is physical, not by oxidation.
Option 3 is incorrect as melting points are not a deciding factor for concentration.
Option 4 is wrong; ores differ in physical properties too.
Therefore, option 2 best explains why different methods are used.
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Exothermic and endothermic reactions

Q28. The burning of carbon to form carbon dioxide is an example of a/an:

  1. (a) Endothermic reaction
  2. (b) Photochemical reaction
  3. (c) Reversible reaction
  4. (d) Exothermic reaction
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Exothermic reaction

The burning of carbon forms carbon dioxide by reacting carbon with oxygen.
This process releases heat to the surroundings.
A reaction that releases heat is called an exothermic reaction.
Therefore, burning carbon to form carbon dioxide is an exothermic reaction.
Carbon and its Compounds · Soaps and detergents

Q29. The formation of micelles in soap solution occurs due to:

  1. (a) hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions in water
  2. (b) hydrogen bonding with water molecules
  3. (c) dispersion forces only
  4. (d) electrostatic attraction between ions
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions in water

The formation of micelles occurs because soap molecules are amphiphilic.
They have a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail and a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head.
In water, the hydrophobic tails aggregate inward to avoid water, and hydrophilic heads face outward towards water.
This self-assembly is driven by hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions.
Hence, micelles form due to these interactions in water.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Atomic mass and molecular mass

Q30. The ratio of the unit mass of a molecule of nitrogen (N₂) to that of an oxygen molecule (O₂) is approximately:

  1. (a) 8 : 7
  2. (b) 7 : 8
  3. (c) 28 : 16
  4. (d) 14 : 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7 : 8

Molecular mass:
N₂ = 14 × 2 = 28
O₂ = 16 × 2 = 32
Ratio (N₂ : O₂) = 28 : 32
Simplify → 7 : 8
Carbon and its Compounds · Bonding in carbon and catenation

Q31. The versatile nature of carbon is responsible for the formation of which of the following types of compounds?

  1. (a) Ionic compounds
  2. (b) Inorganic compounds
  3. (c) Metallic compounds
  4. (d) Organic compounds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Organic compounds

Correct option is 4.
Carbon's versatile nature is due to its ability to form four covalent bonds.
This allows it to form a huge variety of compounds.
These compounds with carbon atoms are called organic compounds.
Other types like ionic, metallic, or inorganic compounds are not primarily formed due to carbon's versatility.
Hence, carbon's versatility leads to the formation of organic compounds.
Acids, Bases and Salts · Indicators (natural, synthetic, olfactory)

Q32. What is the main advantage of using olfactory indicators?

  1. (a) They are useful for visually impaired individuals.
  2. (b) They give exact pH values.
  3. (c) They change colour sharply.
  4. (d) They can be used for all solutions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They are useful for visually impaired individuals.

Olfactory indicators emit a specific smell to indicate pH changes.
They are especially useful for visually impaired individuals who cannot see colour changes.
This makes olfactory indicators practical for those relying on smell rather than sight in chemical testing.
Therefore, their main advantage is aiding visually impaired users.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Elements and compounds

Q33. Which of the following is a molecule formed by two atoms of the same element?

  1. (a) CO
  2. (b) O₃
  3. (c) H₂O
  4. (d) H₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) H₂

Option 4 H₂ is a molecule composed of two hydrogen atoms of the same element.
Other options are not formed by two atoms of the same element:
CO − carbon monoxide, composed of carbon and oxygen atoms.
O₃ − ozone, composed of three oxygen atoms but not two atoms only.
H₂O − water, composed of hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
Hence, H₂ is the correct answer as a molecule formed by two atoms of the same element.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Valency and chemical formulae

Q34. Which of the following is the correct formula for the compound calcium phosphate?

  1. (a) CaPO₄
  2. (b) Ca₂(PO₄)₃
  3. (c) Ca₃(PO₄)₂
  4. (d) Ca₄(PO₄)₃
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ca₃(PO₄)₂

The compound calcium phosphate is composed of calcium ions Ca2+ and phosphate ions PO₄3-.
To balance the charges, 3 calcium ions (total charge +6) combine with 2 phosphate ions (total charge -6) to make a neutral compound.
Thus, the correct formula is Ca₃(PO₄)₂.
Hence, the correct option is 3.
Answer closed.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q35. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Colloids appear homogeneous because their particles are very small.
2. Colloids are truly homogeneous at the molecular level.
3. Colloidal particles scatter light.
4. Milk is a colloidal solution.

  1. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. (c) 2 and 4 only
  4. (d) 1 and 2 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct options are 1, 3 and 4 only.
1. Colloids appear homogeneous because their particles are very small, but not truly homogeneous at molecular level.
2. Colloids are heterogeneous mixtures at molecular scale, so statement 2 is incorrect.
3. Colloidal particles scatter light (Tyndall effect).
4. Milk is a widely known example of a colloidal solution.
Hence, option 2 is correct.
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Suspensions and colloids

Q36. Which of these is an example of a solid sol?

  1. (a) Jelly
  2. (b) Coloured gem
  3. (c) Cheese
  4. (d) Smoke
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Coloured gem

Correct Answer:Coloured gem
Solution:
Solid sol= solid dispersed in a solid medium.
Coloured gem(like ruby, glass with metal particles) is an example of solid sol.
Jellyandcheeseare gels (liquid in solid).
Smokeis solid in gas.

Biology (13)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q37. Blood pressure is recorded as two values: _________ pressure, measured when the heart contracts, and ___________ pressure, measured when the heart relaxes.

  1. (a) Diastolic; Venous
  2. (b) Maximum; Systolic
  3. (c) Systolic; Diastolic
  4. (d) Diastolic; Systolic
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Systolic; Diastolic

Blood pressure is recorded as two values:
Systolic pressure, measured when the heart contracts,
and Diastolic pressure, measured when the heart relaxes.
Therefore, the correct pair is Systolic and Diastolic pressure.
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q38. If decomposers were removed from an ecosystem, what would be the most immediate consequence?

  1. (a) Increased plant growth due to more dead organic matter
  2. (b) Rapid increase in herbivore population
  3. (c) Accumulation of waste and dead matter, disrupting nutrient cycling
  4. (d) Decrease in sunlight reaching producers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Accumulation of waste and dead matter, disrupting nutrient cycling

Decomposers break down dead organic matter and recycle nutrients back into the soil.
Without decomposers, waste and dead remains would accumulate.
This disrupts nutrient cycling, affecting all other organisms in the ecosystem.
Hence, accumulation of waste and dead matter is the immediate result.
Ecology and Environment · Food chains and food webs

Q39. If producers increase in number and herbivores decrease in number, what is the likely sudden consequence in the food chain?

  1. (a) Carnivore population will increase.
  2. (b) Producers will decrease due to overgrazing.
  3. (c) Carnivore population will decrease due to less food.
  4. (d) Decomposers population will decline suddenly.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Carnivore population will decrease due to less food.

If herbivores decrease, carnivores have less prey to feed on.
Less food availability leads to a decrease in the carnivore population.
An increase in producers does not immediately affect carnivores without herbivores.
Therefore, carnivores decline due to food shortage.
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q40. In the respiratory tract, columnar epithelium possesses cilia. What is the primary function of these cilia?

  1. (a) To provide only mechanical support to the tract
  2. (b) To move and push mucus forward to clear it
  3. (c) To secrete substances onto the epithelial surface
  4. (d) To increase the surface area for absorption only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To move and push mucus forward to clear it

The columnar epithelium in the respiratory tract has cilia.
The primary function of these cilia is to move and push mucus forward.
This action helps clear mucus and trapped particles from the respiratory pathway.
It is a protective mechanism for cleaning and defending the lungs.
Hence, option 2 is correct.
Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q41. Meristematic tissue in plants is mainly characterized by:

  1. (a) Small, actively dividing cells with thin walls.
  2. (b) Permanent storage cells.
  3. (c) Mature cells with thick walls.
  4. (d) Large, highly vacuolated cells.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Small, actively dividing cells with thin walls.

Meristematic tissue in plants consists of small cells that divide continuously.
These cells have thin walls to allow for division and growth.
They are actively dividing cells which help in the growth of plant parts.
Hence, the correct description is small, actively dividing cells with thin walls.
Reproduction · Fertilisation, embryo development and pregnancy

Q42. Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select the most appropriate option.
(A): A woman has normal ovulation and fertilisation, but the zygote is expelled without attaching to the uterine wall because implantation has failed.
(R): Implantation is the process by which the blastocyst embeds in the endometrium to establish pregnancy.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true
  2. (b) A is true, but R is false
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  4. (d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

The assertion states a woman with normal ovulation and fertilisation but failed implantation causes the zygote to be expelled.
The reason states implantation is the process of blastocyst embedding in the endometrium to establish pregnancy.
Both statements are true.
Implantation failure leads to the zygote not attaching to the uterine wall, resulting in expulsion.
Thus, the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Reproduction · Asexual reproduction (fission, budding, fragmentation, spores)

Q43. What are the tiny blobs present on stick-like structures in Rhizopus called?

  1. (a) Sporangia
  2. (b) Roots
  3. (c) Hyphae
  4. (d) Spores
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sporangia

In Rhizopus, the tiny blobs on stick-like structures are called sporangia.
These sporangia produce and contain spores for reproduction.
Roots are not present in fungi like Rhizopus.
Hyphae are the thread-like structures themselves, not the blobs.
Spores are inside sporangia, not the blobs on the stick-like structures.
Hence, the correct term is Sporangia.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q44. What is the main purpose of balanced nutrient management in crops?

  1. (a) To optimize soil fertility and crop yield
  2. (b) To maximize pesticide use
  3. (c) To promote weed growth
  4. (d) To eliminate water requirements
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To optimize soil fertility and crop yield

The main purpose of balanced nutrient management is to supply all essential nutrients in the right amount.
It helps optimise both soil fertility and crop yield.
This ensures better growth, improved quality, and sustainable farming.
Hence, the correct answer is to optimise soil fertility and crop yield.
Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q45. Which component of phloem is responsible for the transport of food in plants?

  1. (a) Companion cells
  2. (b) Phloem fibers
  3. (c) Sieve tubes
  4. (d) Phloem parenchyma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sieve tubes

Option 3 is correct.
Sieve tubes in the phloem are responsible for the transport of food in plants.
They are elongated tube-like structures that facilitate the movement of sap, which mainly contains sugars produced by photosynthesis.
Companion cells help in the maintenance of sieve tubes but do not directly transport food.
Phloem fibres provide mechanical support, and phloem parenchyma participates in storage and lateral transport, not bulk food transport.
Hence, sieve tubes are the main conducting elements for food transport in plants.
Cell - Structure and Function · Golgi apparatus, lysosomes and vacuoles

Q46. Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

  1. (a) Packaging and secretion of materials
  2. (b) Photosynthesis
  3. (c) Protein synthesis
  4. (d) ATP production
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Packaging and secretion of materials

The Golgi apparatus processes and packages proteins and lipids that are synthesised in the cell.
It is responsible for modifying, sorting and packaging these materials into vesicles for secretion or use within the cell.
Photosynthesis happens in chloroplasts, not Golgi apparatus.
Protein synthesis occurs in ribosomes.
ATP production happens in mitochondria.
Hence, the correct function of the Golgi apparatus is packaging and secretion of materials.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Agricultural practices (manures, fertilisers, irrigation, weeding)

Q47. Which of the following practices directly contributes to crop yield improvement?

  1. (a) Timely irrigation and fertilization
  2. (b) Ignoring pest signs
  3. (c) Planting the same crop year after year
  4. (d) Delayed harvest
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Timely irrigation and fertilization

Option 1 is correct as timely irrigation and fertilization provide crops with essential water and nutrients.
This directly improves crop growth and yield.
Ignoring pest signs (Option 2) harms crops due to damage from pests.
Planting the same crop repeatedly (Option 3) leads to soil nutrient depletion and reduces yield.
Delayed harvest (Option 4) can result in crop loss and lower quality.
Hence, timely irrigation and fertilization are directly linked to improving crop yield.
Tissues · Connective tissue (blood, bone, cartilage, ligament, tendon)

Q48. Which property of connective tissue enables it to bind and support different body parts?

  1. (a) Presence of extracellular matrix
  2. (b) Presence of cilia
  3. (c) Presence of contractile proteins
  4. (d) Presence of nerve endings
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Presence of extracellular matrix

Connective tissue has an extracellular matrix composed of fibres and ground substance.
This matrix provides strength, support, and the ability to bind different body parts.
Other options like cilia, contractile proteins, or nerve endings do not relate to this binding function.
Hence, the key property is the presence of extracellular matrix that enables binding and support.
Cell - Structure and Function · Plant cell and animal cell

Q49. Which structure is present in plant cells but absent in animal cells?

  1. (a) Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. (b) Cytoplasm
  3. (c) Cell wall
  4. (d) Mitochondria
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cell wall

Correct option is 3: Cell wall.
Plant cells have a rigid cell wall made of cellulose that surrounds the cell membrane.
Animal cells do not have a cell wall; they only have a cell membrane.
Endoplasmic reticulum, cytoplasm, and mitochondria are present in both plant and animal cells.
Hence, cell wall is the structure present in plant cells but absent in animal cells.
This is a fundamental difference between plant and animal cells.
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