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RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 9 March 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 on 9 March 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Current Affairs, Geography, Static GK, Modern History, Physics.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 9 March 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Polity (3) · Current Affairs (3) · Geography (1) · Static GK (1) · Modern History (1) · Physics (14) · Biology (12) · Chemistry (13)

Polity (3)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Swaran Singh Committee and 42nd/86th amendments

Q1. "To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years" was added to the Indian Constitution as the 11ᵗʰ Fundamental Duty through which of the following amendments?

  1. (a) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
  2. (b) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
  3. (c) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
  4. (d) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added the duty to provide opportunities for education to children aged six to fourteen as the 11th Fundamental Duty.
This amendment made education a fundamental duty for parents and guardians, reinforcing the Right to Education.
Hence, the correct answer is the 86th Amendment of 2002.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q2. In September 2025, the Supreme Court of India reaffirmed which important legal position under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?

  1. (a) The anticipatory bail provision has been removed from the Indian Penal Code
  2. (b) The anticipatory bail may be granted only by the High Court
  3. (c) The grant of anticipatory bail is absolutely barred if the FIR prima facie discloses an offence under the Act
  4. (d) The accused can apply for anticipatory bail under all circumstances
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The grant of anticipatory bail is absolutely barred if the FIR prima facie discloses an offence under the Act

The Supreme Court reaffirmed that anticipatory bail is absolutely barred if the FIR prima facie discloses an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
This means no anticipatory bail can be granted if the complaint initially shows the offence under the Act.
This ruling ensures strict protection for Scheduled Castes and Tribes against atrocities.
Hence, option 3 is correct.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q3. The term 'Armed Rebellion' was introduced under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution for the proclamation of a National Emergency by which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
  2. (b) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
  3. (c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
  4. (d) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

Solution:
Originally,Article 352used the term‘internal disturbance’for National Emergency.
The44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978replaced it with‘armed rebellion’.
This change was made toprevent misuse of emergency provisions.
Hence, the correct answer is44th Amendment, 1978.

Current Affairs (3)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q4. During October 2025, what first-ever scientific observation was made by ISRO’s Chandrayaan-2 orbiter?

  1. (a) The detection of volcanic activity occurring beneath the lunar crust
  2. (b) The presence of subsurface water deposits under the lunar surface
  3. (c) The discovery of a newly identified mineral present on the Moon
  4. (d) The effects of Coronal Mass Ejections from the Sun on the Moon
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The effects of Coronal Mass Ejections from the Sun on the Moon

Option 4 is correct.
In October 2025, ISRO’s Chandrayaan-2 orbiter made its first-ever scientific observation of the effects of Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) from the Sun on the Moon.
This was a significant finding as it helped understand how solar events impact the lunar environment.
Other options like volcanic activity, subsurface water deposits, or new minerals were not reported first by Chandrayaan-2 during this period.
Hence, the detection of CME effects from the Sun on the Moon is the correct observation.
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q5. In which country is the military exercise ZAPAD 2025 conducted from 10 to 16 September 2025?

  1. (a) Germany
  2. (b) France
  3. (c) Russia
  4. (d) Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Russia

The military exercise ZAPAD 2025 is conducted by Russia.
ZAPAD exercises are known to be large-scale military drills involving Russia and Belarus.
It is typically held on the territory of Russia and Belarus, not in Germany, France, or Japan.
Hence, the correct answer is Russia.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q6. The National Sports Governance Bill, 2025, was introduced to achieve which of the following objective?

  1. (a) To increase budget allocation for Olympic sports
  2. (b) To launch a national-level talent hunt program
  3. (c) To improve physical and sports education in schools
  4. (d) To establish rules for recognizing and regulating sports bodies
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To establish rules for recognizing and regulating sports bodies

The National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 aims to provide a legal framework.
It establishes rules for recognising and regulating sports bodies in India.
This ensures transparent functioning and accountability of sports organisations.
Hence, option 4 is correct.

Geography (1)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Western and Eastern Ghats

Q7. In which Indian state do the Western Ghats reach their maximum elevation, marked by the presence of Anaimudi, the highest peak of the range?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kerala

The Western Ghats mountain range runs along the western coast of India.
Anaimudi, the highest peak of the Western Ghats, is located in Kerala.
Therefore, Kerala is the state where the Western Ghats reach their maximum elevation.
Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Static GK (1)

Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q8. Who among the following made a significant contribution to Bharatanatyam as a performer, teacher, composer and scholar and was awarded Padma Bhushan in 2011?

  1. (a) Kalamandalam Gopi
  2. (b) Guru Bipin Singh
  3. (c) Vempati Chinna Satyam
  4. (d) C. V. Chandrashekhar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) C. V. Chandrashekhar

C. V. Chandrashekhar made a significant contribution to Bharatanatyam as a performer, teacher, composer and scholar.
He was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2011 for his outstanding work in the field of Bharatanatyam.
Other options are great dancers but the Padma Bhushan award in 2011 specifically recognises C. V. Chandrashekhar.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Modern History (1)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q9. Who among the following were the pivotal leaders of the Santhal Rebellion of 1855–1856?

  1. (a) Birsa Munda and Raghunath Murmu
  2. (b) Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu
  3. (c) Lalu Prasad and Sidhu Kanhu
  4. (d) Tilka Manjhi and Sido Kanhu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu

The Santhal Rebellion of 1855–1856 was led by tribal leaders Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu.
They mobilised the Santhal community against British colonial authorities and landlords.
Birsa Munda was a leader of a later tribal uprising, not the Santhal Rebellion.
Therefore, Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu are recognized as the pivotal leaders of this rebellion.
Hence, the correct option is 2.

Physics (14)

Motion · Numericals on motion

Q10. A body travelling in a straight line with a constant velocity of 50 m/s. What is the displacement of the car in 10 sec and the type of motion followed by the car, respectively?

  1. (a) 500 m and Non-Uniform Motion
  2. (b) 500 m and Uniform Motion
  3. (c) 5 m and Non-Uniform Motion
  4. (d) 5 m and Uniform Motion
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 500 m and Uniform Motion

(The velocity of the body is given as 50 m)/(s.)
Time duration is given as 10 seconds.
Displacement = velocity × time
= (50 m)/(s × 10 s)
= 500 m
Since velocity is constant, the motion is uniform.
Therefore, the displacement is 500 metres and the motion is uniform.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q11. A body undergoes a displacement of 50 m under the action of a constant force of 5 N in the same direction as that of the force. What will be the work done under the action of this force?

  1. (a) - 250 J
  2. (b) + 25 J
  3. (c) - 25 J
  4. (d) + 250 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) + 250 J

Work done by a force is given by the formula: work = force × displacement × cos θ
Here, force = 5 N, displacement = 50 m, and the force and displacement are in the same direction, so θ = 0°
cos 0° = 1
Therefore, work done = 5 × 50 × 1 = 250 J
Since force and displacement are in the same direction, work done is positive.
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q12. A bus moves from one end A to the other end B of a straight 1000 m road in 100 s and then turns around and moves 500 m back to point C in another 100 s. What will be the average velocity (in m/s) and the type of motion of the bus in going from point A to point C?

  1. (a) 0.4 m/s and Non-Uniform Motion
  2. (b) 2.5 m/s and Uniform Motion
  3. (c) 2.5 m/s and Non-Uniform Motion
  4. (d) 0.4 m/s and Uniform Motion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2.5 m/s and Non-Uniform Motion

Solution:
Displacement from A to C = 1000 − 500 =500 m
Total time = 100 + 100 =200 s
Average velocity = displacement / time = 500 / 200 =2.5 m/s
Speed changes (goes forward then backward) ⇒Non-uniform motion
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Force on a current-carrying conductor and Fleming's left-hand rule

Q13. A wire carrying current is placed between the poles of a magnet. It experiences maximum force when it _____.

  1. (a) is outside the magnetic field
  2. (b) is perpendicular to the magnetic field
  3. (c) is parallel to the magnetic field
  4. (d) is at 45° to the magnetic field
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) is perpendicular to the magnetic field

A current-carrying wire in a magnetic field experiences a force given by the Lorentz force law.
The magnitude of force is maximum when the wire is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
This is because force F = I L B sin θ, where θ is the angle between wire and magnetic field.
Sin 90° = 1, the maximum value, so maximum force occurs at 90°, i.e., perpendicular orientation.
Therefore, the wire experiences maximum force when it is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
Motion · Speed and velocity

Q14. An object moving at 25 m/s is brought to rest in 5 seconds. The final velocity is _________.

  1. (a) 25 m/s
  2. (b) 0 m/s
  3. (c) 20 m/s
  4. (d) 5 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 0 m/s

Initial velocity, u = 25 m/s
The object is brought to rest, so final velocity, v = 0 m/s
Rest means no movement, so velocity is zero
Therefore, the final velocity is 0 m/s
Motion · Numericals on motion

Q15. An object travels 16 m in 4 s and then another 16 m in 2 s. What is the average speed of the object?

  1. (a) 8 m/s
  2. (b) 2.67 m/s
  3. (c) 5.33 m/s
  4. (d) 4 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5.33 m/s

Total distance travelled = 16 m + 16 m = 32 m
Total time taken = 4 s + 2 s = 6 s
Average speed = (Total distance)/(Total time)
Average speed = (32 m)/(6 s) = (5.33 m)/(s)
Gravitation · Mass and weight

Q16. An object's mass remains constant everywhere (on the Earth or the Moon), whereas its weight changes because ___________.

  1. (a) Mass is dependent on inertia, but weight is not
  2. (b) Weight depends on the local value of g, which varies with location
  3. (c) The SI unit of weight is Newtons, while mass is kilograms
  4. (d) Weight is a scalar quantity, while mass is vector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Weight depends on the local value of g, which varies with location

Mass is the amount of matter in an object and does not change with location.
Weight is the force due to gravity acting on the mass and depends on gravitational acceleration (g).
Gravitational acceleration varies between the Earth and the Moon.
Therefore, the weight changes while mass remains constant depending on the local value of g.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Prism and dispersion of light

Q17. In a prism, the emergent ray comes out at an angle different from the incident ray. What is this angle called?

  1. (a) Angle of reflection
  2. (b) Angle of incidence
  3. (c) Angle of the prism
  4. (d) Angle of deviation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Angle of deviation

The emergent ray differs in direction from the incident ray after passing through the prism.
This difference in direction is referred to as the angle of deviation.
Thus, the angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is called the angle of deviation.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q18. Read the given assertion and reason and select the correct option based on the analysis of these statements.
Assertion: Stethoscope uses the concept of multiple reflection of sound waves for its working.
Reason: Sound waves require a material medium for their propagation.

  1. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
  2. (b) Assertion is true but reason is false.
  3. (c) Assertion is false and reason is true.
  4. (d) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Assertion is true: Stethoscope works by multiple reflection of sound waves inside its tubes to amplify sounds.
Reason is true: Sound waves need a material medium (like air or body tissues) for propagation.
However, the reason is not the correct explanation for multiple reflections in a stethoscope.
Multiple reflection in a stethoscope happens to enhance sound transmission, not just because sound requires a medium.
Therefore, both statements are true but the reason does not explain the assertion correctly.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q19. Six resistors of 3 Ω each are connected in parallel in a circuit. What will be their effective resistance?

  1. (a) 2 Ω
  2. (b) 18 Ω
  3. (c) 3 Ω
  4. (d) 0.5 Ω
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 0.5 Ω

Six resistors each of 3 Ω are connected in parallel.
The effective resistance R in parallel is given by:
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ... + 1/Rn
Here, all resistors have equal resistance (3 Ω), so:
1/R = 6/3 = 2
R = 1/2 = 0.5 Ω
Therefore, the effective resistance is 0.5 Ω.
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Atmospheric refraction (twinkling of stars, advance sunrise)

Q20. The main reason for twinkling of stars is _________.

  1. (a) Nuclear reactions inside stars
  2. (b) Scattering of star light
  3. (c) Atmospheric refraction varying with time
  4. (d) Presence of clouds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Atmospheric refraction varying with time

The twinkling of stars occurs because their light passes through Earth's atmosphere.
Atmospheric refraction causes the light to bend slightly while moving through air layers of varying density.
These variations are not constant and change rapidly, making the star light appear to flicker or twinkle.
Hence, the cause is the atmospheric refraction varying with time, not any process inside the star or scattering or clouds directly.
This explains why planets generally do not twinkle, as they appear as disks, less affected by refraction.
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q21. The SI unit of force (F) is __________ .

  1. (a) Joule
  2. (b) kg m/s
  3. (c) N m
  4. (d) kg m/s²
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) kg m/s²

The SI unit of force is derived from Newton's Second Law of Motion: F = m × a.
Here, m is mass in kilograms (kg) and a is acceleration in metres per second squared (m/s²).
Therefore, the unit of force is kg·m/s², called a Newton (N).
Option 4 'kg m/s²' correctly represents the SI unit of force.
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Spherical mirror terminology

Q22. When several rays parallel to the principal axis fall on a concave mirror, how do the reflected rays behave?

  1. (a) They spread out and appear to come from behind the mirror.
  2. (b) They are reflected back along the same path.
  3. (c) They travel parallel to the principal axis after reflection.
  4. (d) They all meet at a single point on the principal axis.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They all meet at a single point on the principal axis.

When rays parallel to the principal axis fall on a concave mirror,
they are reflected in such a way that they converge.
These reflected rays meet at a particular point on the principal axis called the focus.
Therefore, all reflected rays meet at a single point on the principal axis.
Sound and Waves · Nature and types of waves (longitudinal, transverse)

Q23. When sound propagates through air, the region of high pressure created by the vibrating object pushing air forward is called a __________.

  1. (a) Medium boundary
  2. (b) Compression (C)
  3. (c) Transverse wave
  4. (d) Rarefaction (R)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Compression (C)

When a sound wave travels through air, it is a longitudinal wave.
The vibrating object pushes air molecules forward, creating regions of high pressure.
These high-pressure regions are called compressions.
Hence, the correct term for the region of high pressure is Compression.
Option 2 is correct.

Biology (12)

Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q24. Choose a term to complete the analogy.
Columnar Epithelium : Absorption :: Cuboidal Epithelium : ____________

  1. (a) Mechanical support
  2. (b) Preventing wear and tear
  3. (c) Forming a delicate lining
  4. (d) Pushing mucus
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mechanical support

Solution:
Columnar epitheliumis mainly associated withabsorption.
Cuboidal epitheliumis found inkidney tubules and gland ducts.
Its major roles includesecretion, absorption, and mechanical support.
So the best matching answer isMechanical support.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries

Q25. Crossbreeding in cattle is done to achieve ______.

  1. (a) Excessive draught power
  2. (b) Reduced milk production
  3. (c) Only higher milk fat content
  4. (d) Longer lactation and disease resistance
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Longer lactation and disease resistance

Correct option is 4.
Crossbreeding in cattle is practised to combine desirable traits from different breeds.
It helps achieve longer lactation periods and resistance to diseases.
This improves overall productivity and health of the cattle.
Options 1, 2, and 3 do not accurately represent the main goals of crossbreeding.
Hence option 4 is the best answer.
This is useful knowledge for competitive exams.
Answer closed. Please remember: crossbreeding aims at improving lactation and disease resistance.
Reproduction · Human female reproductive system and menstrual cycle

Q26. How long does an unfertilised egg survive after being released from the ovary?

  1. (a) Two hours
  2. (b) About one day
  3. (c) One week
  4. (d) One month
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) About one day

After ovulation, an unfertilised egg survives for about one day in the fallopian tube.
Fertilisation must occur within this time for conception to take place.
If not fertilised within this time, the egg disintegrates and is absorbed or expelled.
Hence, the lifespan of an unfertilised egg after release is approximately one day.
Reproduction · Fertilisation, embryo development and pregnancy

Q27. Implantation of developing embryo occurs in which part of the female reproductive system in human beings?

  1. (a) Fallopian tubes
  2. (b) Lining of the uterus
  3. (c) Ovary
  4. (d) Cervix
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lining of the uterus

Implantation of the developing embryo occurs in the lining of the uterus (endometrium) in human females.
This is where the embryo embeds itself to develop further in a supportive environment.
Fallopian tubes, ovary, and cervix are not the implantation sites.
Hence, the correct answer is the lining of the uterus.
Cell - Structure and Function · Golgi apparatus, lysosomes and vacuoles

Q28. Lysosomes are also known as:

  1. (a) Control centers
  2. (b) Energy powerhouses
  3. (c) Suicidal bags of the cell
  4. (d) Protein factories
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Suicidal bags of the cell

Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles inside cells.
They contain digestive enzymes that break down waste materials and cellular debris.
Because they digest unwanted materials and can trigger cell destruction, they are called 'suicidal bags of the cell.'
Other options do not describe lysosomes correctly:
Control centres are the nucleus.
Energy powerhouses refer to mitochondria.
Protein factories are ribosomes.
Thus, the correct answer is option 3.
Tissues · Nervous tissue

Q29. Refer to the two statements given below and choose the CORRECT option.
Statement A: Nervous tissue is responsible for rapid transmission of electrical impulses in the body.
Statement B: Nervous tissue mainly provides structural and mechanical support to organs.

  1. (a) Both statements A and B are correct.
  2. (b) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
  3. (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
  4. (d) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

Option 3 is correct.
Statement A is correct because nervous tissue transmits electrical impulses rapidly throughout the body.
Statement B is incorrect because structural and mechanical support is mainly provided by connective tissue, not nervous tissue.
Therefore, Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Food production and storage

Q30. What are the two main categories of factors responsible for storage losses in agricultural produce?

  1. (a) Biotic and Abiotic
  2. (b) Chemical and Electrical
  3. (c) Mechanical and Thermal
  4. (d) Harvesting and Processing
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biotic and Abiotic

The two main categories of factors responsible for storage losses in agricultural produce are biotic and abiotic factors.
Biotic factors involve living organisms such as insects, rodents, and microorganisms causing damage.
Abiotic factors include environmental conditions like temperature, humidity, and moisture affecting storage.
Thus, both living and non-living factors contribute to losses during storage.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 1, Biotic and Abiotic.
Heredity and Evolution · Heredity and variation

Q31. What is the importance of sexual reproduction in creating variation in plant populations?

  1. (a) It mixes DNA from two parents to create new variations.
  2. (b) It prevents any variations from occurring.
  3. (c) It copies DNA without any changes.
  4. (d) It speeds up DNA copying errors.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It mixes DNA from two parents to create new variations.

Sexual reproduction combines genetic material from two parent plants.
This mixing creates new gene combinations in offspring.
These new combinations cause variation in the plant population.
Variation is important for adaptation and evolution.
Thus, sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity in plants.
Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q32. Which group of organisms is responsible for breaking down dead bodies and waste into simpler substances that return to the soil?

  1. (a) Decomposers
  2. (b) Parasite only
  3. (c) Consumers
  4. (d) Producers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Decomposers

The organisms that break down dead bodies and waste are called decomposers.
They convert complex organic materials into simpler substances, which then return to the soil.
This process is essential for nutrient recycling in the ecosystem.
Parasites depend on hosts but do not break down dead matter.
Consumers eat other organisms but do not decompose waste.
Producers make their own food by photosynthesis and do not decompose matter.
Hence, the correct answer is Decomposers.
Tissues · Nervous tissue

Q33. Which of the following best describes the primary function of nervous tissue?

  1. (a) Transmission of electrical impulses
  2. (b) Absorption of nutrients
  3. (c) Providing support and binding
  4. (d) Contraction for movement
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Transmission of electrical impulses

The primary function of nervous tissue is to transmit electrical impulses.
It enables communication between different parts of the body.
This allows for quick responses to stimuli.
Other options are functions of different tissues:
Absorption of nutrients − Digestive tissue
Providing support and binding − Connective tissue
Contraction for movement − Muscle tissue
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Cell - Structure and Function · Golgi apparatus, lysosomes and vacuoles

Q34. Which of the following describes a key function of lysosomal enzymes?

  1. (a) Transporting molecules across the membrane
  2. (b) Storing genetic material
  3. (c) Breaking down proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates
  4. (d) Creating new proteins for the cell
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Breaking down proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates

Lysosomal enzymes are responsible for breaking down various biomolecules.
They digest proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and other cellular waste substances.
This helps in recycling cell components and clearing waste.
Other options describe functions of different cell parts.
Hence, the correct function is breaking down proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.
Tissues · Epithelial tissue

Q35. Which of the following epithelial tissues is specialised for absorption and lines the inner surface of the intestine?

  1. (a) Cuboidal epithelium
  2. (b) Ciliated epithelium
  3. (c) Stratified epithelium
  4. (d) Columnar epithelium
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Columnar epithelium

Option 4 is correct: Columnar epithelium.
Columnar epithelium consists of tall, column-shaped cells.
It is specialised for absorption and secretion.
It lines the inner surface of the intestine, facilitating nutrient absorption.
Other types:
Cuboidal epithelium − cube-shaped cells, found in glands and ducts.
Ciliated epithelium − have cilia, found in respiratory tract to move mucus.
Stratified epithelium − multiple layers, protective function, found on skin.
Hence, columnar epithelium lines the intestine for absorption.

Chemistry (13)

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Pure substances and mixtures

Q36. If a sample of air is compressed to half its volume, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) The composition of air changes.
  2. (b) The composition of air remains same because it is a mixture.
  3. (c) Air becomes a compound on compression.
  4. (d) The proportion of gases changes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The composition of air remains same because it is a mixture.

When air is compressed to half its volume, it remains a mixture of gases.
Compression changes the volume and pressure, but not the composition of the mixture.
No chemical reaction occurs that would change its components or proportions.
Hence, the composition of air remains the same because it is a mixture.
Correct answer: Option 2
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q37. In the process of electrolytic refining of copper, which of the following is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Anode – Pure copper
  2. (b) Cathode Mud – Pure copper crystals
  3. (c) Electrolyte – Acidified Copper sulphate solution
  4. (d) Cathode – Impure copper
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Electrolyte – Acidified Copper sulphate solution

In electrolytic refining of copper, the electrolyte used is Acidified Copper sulphate solution.
Anode is impure copper, which dissolves into the electrolyte.
Cathode is pure copper where copper ions deposit as pure copper crystals.
Cathode Mud contains impurities that fall off the anode and do not dissolve.
Hence, option 3 is correctly matched.
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q38. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have:

  1. (a) the same atomic number but different mass numbers
  2. (b) different chemical properties
  3. (c) different number of protons
  4. (d) the same mass number but different atomic numbers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) the same atomic number but different mass numbers

Isotopes are atoms of the same element.
They have the same atomic number, which means the number of protons is the same.
However, they differ in their mass numbers because the number of neutrons varies.
Therefore, isotopes have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
Metals and Non-metals · Metallurgy - extraction and refining

Q39. Metals in the middle of the activity series, such as iron and zinc, are generally extracted by:

  1. (a) Electrolysis of molten salts
  2. (b) Heating alone without any reducing agent
  3. (c) Displacement from aqueous solution
  4. (d) Reduction of their oxides with carbon or carbon monoxide
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Reduction of their oxides with carbon or carbon monoxide

Metals like iron and zinc lie in the middle of the activity series.
They are less reactive than aluminium and sodium but more reactive than copper and silver.
Such metals are typically extracted by reducing their oxides using a suitable reducing agent.
Carbon or carbon monoxide are common reducing agents used for these metals.
This method is economical and effective for metals that cannot be extracted by heating alone or electrolysis.
Hence, the correct extraction method is reduction of their oxides with carbon or carbon monoxide.
Carbon and its Compounds · Functional groups

Q40. The compound with molecular formula C₂H₄O can belong to which of the following functional group, and what is its IUPAC name?

  1. (a) Aldehyde, ethanal
  2. (b) Alcohol, ethanol
  3. (c) Aldehyde, ethanol
  4. (d) Ether, ethane
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Aldehyde, ethanal

The molecular formula C2H4O corresponds to an aldehyde or a ketone with one oxygen atom.
Among the given options, aldehyde with the molecular formula C2H4O is ethanal.
Ethanol (alcohol) has the molecular formula C2H6O, not C2H4O,
Ether (ethane) does not have this formula; ethane is C2H6 and ethers have different structures.
Therefore, the correct functional group is aldehyde with the IUPAC name ethanal.
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Numericals on mole concept

Q41. The molecular mass of a compound is '60'. If it contains 40% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen, what is the molecular formula?

  1. (a) C₃H₆O₃
  2. (b) CH₂O
  3. (c) C₄H₈O₄
  4. (d) C₂H₄O₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) C₂H₄O₂

Solution:
Assume 100 g compound ⇒ C = 40 g, H = 6.7 g, O = 53.3 g
Moles: C = 40/12 ≈ 3.33, H = 6.7/1 ≈ 6.7, O = 53.3/16 ≈ 3.33
Divide by smallest (3.33) ⇒ C : H : O = 1 : 2 : 1 ⇒ empirical formula =CH₂O
Empirical mass = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30
Molecular mass = 60 ⇒ factor = 60/30 = 2
Molecular formula = (CH₂O)₂ =C₂H₄O₂
Structure of Atom · Isotopes, isobars and isotones

Q42. What is the main difference between isobars and isotopes?

  1. (a) Isobars have the same atomic number; isotopes have different atomic numbers
  2. (b) Isobars are atoms of the same element; isotopes are of different elements
  3. (c) Isobars have the same number of electrons; isotopes do not
  4. (d) Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers

Isobars are atoms with the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
This means they have the same total number of protons and neutrons combined, but belong to different elements because their proton counts differ.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
Therefore, the main difference is that isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
Hence, the correct option is 4.
Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q43. What will be the pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution?

  1. (a) 18
  2. (b) 8
  3. (c) 12
  4. (d) 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2

HCl is a strong acid which dissociates completely in aqueous solution.
So, concentration of H+ ions in 0.01 M HCl is 0.01 M.
pH = -log[H+] = -log(0.01)
= 2
Therefore, the pH of the solution is 2.
Carbon and its Compounds · Hydrocarbons - alkanes, alkenes, alkynes

Q44. Which of the following is a ring compound with the molecular formula C₆H₁₂?

  1. (a) Butane
  2. (b) Cyclohexane
  3. (c) Benzene
  4. (d) Hexane
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cyclohexane

The molecular formula C6H12 indicates a cycloalkane or an alkene.
Butane (C4H10) and Hexane (C6H14) are alkanes, so they do not fit this formula.
Benzene (C6H6) is an aromatic compound, not matching C6H12.
Cyclohexane is a cycloalkane with formula C6H12, a ring compound.
Hence, the correct answer is Cyclohexane, a six-carbon ring structure with formula C6H12.
Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q45. Which of the following is the best method to prevent corrosion of iron in coastal areas?

  1. (a) Heating the iron periodically
  2. (b) Painting with oil-based paints
  3. (c) Galvanisation
  4. (d) Immersing in cold water
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Galvanisation

Corrosion of iron is accelerated in coastal areas due to high moisture and salt content in the air.
The best prevention method is galvanisation, which involves coating iron with a layer of zinc.
Zinc reacts preferentially and protects the iron from rusting even if the coating is damaged.
Heating does not prevent corrosion effectively in coastal climates.
Painting with oil-based paints can delay corrosion but is less durable in salty air.
Immersing in cold water does not prevent corrosion and may promote it.
Hence, galvanisation is the most effective method in coastal environments.
Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q46. Which of the following is the product formed when ethene (C₂H₄) reacts with hydrogen (H₂) in the presence of a catalyst nickel?

  1. (a) Ethyne (C2H2)
  2. (b) Ethane (C2H6)
  3. (c) Propane (C3H8)
  4. (d) Propene (C3H6)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ethane (C2H6)

Ethene (C2H4) is an alkene with a double bond between two carbon atoms.
When ethene reacts with hydrogen (H2) in presence of a nickel catalyst, the double bond breaks.
Hydrogen atoms add to the carbon atoms, converting ethene into ethane (C2H6).
This process is known as hydrogenation.
Hence, the product formed is Ethane (C2H6).
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Pure substances and mixtures

Q47. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates a compound from a mixture?

  1. (a) Mixtures are formed through chemical reactions.
  2. (b) Compounds retain the properties of their constituents.
  3. (c) Mixtures can be separated by physical means, but compounds cannot.
  4. (d) Compounds show variable composition, mixtures do not.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mixtures can be separated by physical means, but compounds cannot.

Option 3 is correct.
Mixtures are combinations of substances that can be separated by physical means because their components retain individual properties.
Compounds are chemically combined substances that cannot be separated by physical methods.
Compounds have fixed composition, while mixtures can have variable composition.
Thus, the key difference is that mixtures can be separated physically, but compounds cannot be.
Structure of Atom · Rutherford's model and gold foil experiment

Q48. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Rutherford’s model of the atom?
Statement 1: The atom has a positively charged dense nucleus at its centre.
Statement 2: Electrons revolve in circular orbits around the nucleus without losing energy.
Statement 3: Most of the space inside the atom is empty.

  1. (a) Only 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 2
  4. (d) Only 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3

Correct statements regarding Rutherford's model are:
1. The atom has a positively charged dense nucleus at its centre. This is the key discovery of Rutherford's model.
2. Most of the space inside the atom is empty, as electrons revolve around the nucleus largely in empty space.
Statement 2 is incorrect because, according to classical physics, electrons revolving in orbits should lose energy and spiral into the nucleus, but Rutherford's model did not explain this.
Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
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