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Emergency and Centre-State Relations PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

140 Emergency and Centre-State Relations (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions.

📚 140 questionsSSC 95 · Railway 45
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SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the subject and its respective list under the Seventh Schedule?

  1. (a) Police - Union List
  2. (b) Education- State List
  3. (c) Trade and Commerce -Concurrent List
  4. (d) Banking - State List
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Trade and Commerce -Concurrent List

Answer: Option 3 — Trade and Commerce -Concurrent List
The other three pairs are plainly mismatched — police is State List, education has been Concurrent List since the 42nd Amendment, 1976, and banking is Union List.
Trade and commerce is the only pair left standing, because Concurrent List Entry 33 covers trade and commerce in foodstuffs, cattle fodder, raw cotton, jute and the products of scheduled industries.
Revision note — The Seventh Schedule and Article 246
• The Seventh Schedule, read with Article 246, holds three lists — Union, State and Concurrent — originally with 97, 66 and 47 entries.
• Union List: defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, banking, currency, posts and telegraphs, inter-State trade and commerce.
• State List: police, public order, prisons, public health, agriculture, local government, and trade and commerce within the State (Entry 26).
• Concurrent List: criminal law and criminal procedure, marriage and divorce, education, forests, weights and measures, and protection of wild animals and birds.
• The 42nd Amendment, 1976 moved education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice from the State List to the Concurrent List.
• Under Article 254 a Union law prevails over a conflicting State law on a Concurrent subject, unless the State law was reserved for and received the President's assent under 254(2).
• Article 248 gives residuary powers — subjects in no list at all — exclusively to Parliament.
Do not mix these up
• Intra-State vs inter-State trade — trade within a State is State List Entry 26; inter-State trade and commerce is Union List Entry 42; only trade in listed goods is Concurrent (Entry 33).
• Police vs administration of justice — police stayed in the State List, but administration of justice went to the Concurrent List in 1976.
Also asked from this topic: the list education now sits in (Concurrent List); the amendment that moved it (42nd, 1976); who holds residuary powers (Parliament, under Article 248).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q2. Which Article gives Parliament exclusive power to make laws on items in the Union List?

  1. (a) Article 245
  2. (b) Article 246
  3. (c) Article 248
  4. (d) Article 254
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 246

Answer: Option 2 — Article 246
Article 246(1) gives Parliament exclusive power to make laws on the Union List.
246(2) gives Parliament and the state legislatures power over the Concurrent List, and 246(3) gives the states exclusive power over the State List.
Revision note — Legislative relations, Articles 245 to 255
• Article 245 — the territorial extent of laws: Parliament legislates for the whole or any part of India and a state legislature for its own territory.
• Article 246 — the distribution of subjects across the three lists of the Seventh Schedule.
• Article 246A — inserted by the 101st Amendment, 2016, gives Parliament and the states concurrent power over the taxation of goods and services (GST).
• Article 248 — residuary powers, over subjects in no list at all, rest exclusively with Parliament, with residuary taxation under Entry 97 of the Union List.
• Article 249 — Parliament may legislate on a State List subject in the national interest if the Rajya Sabha so resolves by a two-thirds majority.
• Article 250 — Parliament may legislate on any State List subject while a National Emergency is in force.
• Article 254 — repugnancy: a Union law prevails over a conflicting state law on a Concurrent subject, unless the state law received the President's assent under 254(2).
Do not mix these up
• Article 245 vs Article 246 — 245 fixes where a law may operate; 246 fixes what subjects each legislature may legislate on.
• Article 246 vs Article 248 — 246 covers subjects listed in the Seventh Schedule; 248 covers subjects left out of all three lists.
Also asked from this topic: the list Parliament has exclusive power over under Article 246 (the Union List); who holds residuary powers under Article 248 (Parliament); what Article 246A covers (GST).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q3. What is the meaning of “residuary powers” under the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Powers only given to states
  2. (b) Powers only to judiciary
  3. (c) Powers not mentioned in any list, vested in Parliament
  4. (d) All powers to Union Territories
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Powers not mentioned in any list, vested in Parliament

Answer: Option 3 — Powers not mentioned in any list, vested in Parliament
Article 248 gives Parliament the exclusive power to legislate on any matter not enumerated in the Union, State or Concurrent List.
The same power appears as Entry 97 of the Union List, which covers residuary taxes as well.
Revision note — Distribution of legislative powers
• The Seventh Schedule carries three lists. Union List — 98 subjects (originally 97), State List — 59 (originally 66), Concurrent List — 52 (originally 47) — counts after the 101st Amendment (GST), 2016; older books give 100 and 61.
• Article 246 divides law-making between the Union and the states; Article 248 plus Entry 97 hand the leftovers to Parliament.
• Under Article 254, if a Union law and a state law clash on a Concurrent subject, the Union law prevails, unless the state law had the President's assent.
• The three-fold division is borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935, but giving residuary power to the Centre follows the Canadian model.
• In the USA, Australia and Switzerland residuary powers rest with the states — one reason Indian federalism is called quasi-federal with a strong Centre.
• Whether a subject really falls in the residuary field is finally decided by the Supreme Court.
• The 42nd Amendment, 1976 moved education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice from the State List to the Concurrent List.
Do not mix these up
• Residuary powers vs Union List powers — Union List subjects are written down; residuary powers cover only what is not listed anywhere.
• India vs USA — India keeps residuary power with the Centre (Canadian model); the USA leaves it with the states.
Also asked from this topic: who may legislate on residuary subjects (Parliament); what the Seventh Schedule contains (three legislative lists); the list education moved to in 1976 (Concurrent List).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q4. In India, the revenue collected from agricultural income tax is allocated to which level of government?

  1. (a) State Governments
  2. (b) Central Government
  3. (c) Collected by State Governments, delivered to Central Government
  4. (d) Collected by Central Government, delivered to State Governments
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State Governments

Answer: Option 1 — State Governments
Taxes on agricultural income are Entry 46 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule, so a state both levies and keeps the proceeds.
Nothing is passed up to the Centre and nothing is shared down from it.
Revision note — Who taxes agricultural income
• Entry 46, State List (List II) — taxes on agricultural income; Entry 82, Union List (List I) — taxes on income other than agricultural income.
• Article 246 read with the Seventh Schedule divides these law-making powers between Parliament and the state legislatures.
• Agricultural income is exempt from central income tax under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
• Article 366(1) defines agricultural income for constitutional purposes as agricultural income as understood in the Indian income-tax law.
• Only a few states actually levy it, mostly on plantation crops such as tea, coffee and rubber — for example Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and West Bengal.
• For tea, Rule 8 treats 60 per cent of the income as agricultural (taxable by the state) and 40 per cent as business income (taxable by the Centre).
Do not mix these up
• Entry 82 vs Entry 46 — income tax on salaries and business is a Union subject; income tax on agriculture is a State subject.
• Articles 268, 269, 270 — 268: levied by the Union, collected and kept by the states; 269: collected by the Union, assigned to the states; 270: Union taxes shared with the states.
• Agriculture vs agricultural income tax — both are State subjects, but agriculture is Entry 14 and the tax on its income is Entry 46.
Also asked from this topic: what the Seventh Schedule contains (three legislative lists); a subject of exclusive Union power (banking, Entry 45); a State List subject (public order).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q5. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with:

  1. (a) Panchayats
  2. (b) Division of powers (lists)
  3. (c) Fundamental Duties
  4. (d) Emergency provisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Division of powers (lists)

Answer: Option 2 — Division of powers (lists)
The Seventh Schedule, read with Article 246, divides law-making power between the Union and the States through three lists — the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List.
Revision note — The Seventh Schedule and the three lists
• Union List — originally 97 subjects (defence, foreign affairs, railways, atomic energy, banking, currency, posts); only Parliament may legislate on them.
• State List — originally 66 subjects (police, public order, prisons, public health, agriculture, local government); normally only the state legislature may legislate.
• Concurrent List — originally 47 subjects (criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy, trade unions, education, forests), on which both may legislate.
• Under Article 254, if a Union law and a state law clash on a Concurrent subject, the Union law prevails.
• The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 moved five subjects to the Concurrent List: education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice.
• Residuary powers — subjects in no list — belong to Parliament under Article 248, a point taken from Canada.
• The three-list scheme came from the Government of India Act, 1935; the Constitution had 8 Schedules in 1949 and has 12 today.
Do not mix these up
• Seventh vs Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules — the Seventh divides Union and State powers; the Eleventh lists the subjects of Panchayats and the Twelfth those of Municipalities.
• Seventh vs Tenth Schedule — the Tenth Schedule is the anti-defection law, and the Ninth holds laws shielded from judicial review.
Also asked from this topic: what Schedule VII contains (three legislative lists); the list education moved to under the 42nd Amendment (Concurrent); the Schedule on Panchayats (Eleventh).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q6. In case of a conflict between Union and State law on a Concurrent List subject, which prevails?

  1. (a) State law
  2. (b) Union law
  3. (c) Law made by Panchayats
  4. (d) Law by Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Union law

Answer: Option 2 — Union law
Under Article 254, when a Union law and a State law on the same Concurrent List subject clash, the Union law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of the repugnancy.
Revision note — The Concurrent List and Article 254
• The Seventh Schedule divides law-making power into three lists — the Union List (originally 97 entries), the State List (originally 66) and the Concurrent List (originally 47).
• Both Parliament and a state legislature may legislate on a Concurrent subject; in a clash Article 254(1) gives the Union law the upper hand.
• Exception — Article 254(2): a State law reserved for and given the President's assent prevails in that state over the earlier Union law, but Parliament may still amend or repeal it later.
• The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 moved education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice from the State List to the Concurrent List.
• Article 249 lets Parliament legislate on a State subject in the national interest after a Rajya Sabha resolution by a two-thirds majority.
• Article 250 lets it do the same while a National Emergency is in force.
• Concurrent subjects include criminal law and procedure, marriage and divorce, adoption, bankruptcy, trade unions, electricity, forests and drugs.
Do not mix these up
• Article 246 vs Article 254 — 246 says who may legislate on which list; 254 decides whose law survives when the two collide.
• Article 249 vs Article 250 — 249 works in the national interest through a Rajya Sabha resolution; 250 works only while a National Emergency is in force.
Also asked from this topic: whether State law wins on a Concurrent subject (no — Article 254); the list education moved to in the 42nd Amendment (Concurrent List); what Schedule VII holds (three lists).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 10 September 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q7. Which of the following is NOT in the State List?

  1. (a) Police
  2. (b) Agriculture
  3. (c) Public health
  4. (d) Atomic energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Atomic energy

Answer: Option 4 — Atomic energy
Atomic energy sits in the Union List (Entry 6), so only Parliament may legislate on it.
Police, agriculture and public health are all State List subjects.
Revision note — Seventh Schedule: which subject sits where
• Union List — defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, banking, currency, posts and telegraphs, citizenship, war and peace.
• State List — public order (Entry 1), police (Entry 2), public health and sanitation (Entry 6), agriculture (Entry 14), land, prisons, local government and trade within the state.
• Concurrent List — criminal law and procedure, marriage and divorce, adoption, education, forests, electricity, trade unions and drugs.
• Residuary powers — subjects in no list, such as cyber law — belong to Parliament under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List.
• Article 246 fixes the division and gives the Union List supremacy over the other two lists.
• After the 1991 reforms only atomic energy and railway operations stayed reserved for the public sector, which is a second reason atomic energy is a Central subject.
Do not mix these up
• Police and public order (State List) vs armed forces and defence (Union List) — day-to-day policing is the state's job, the armed forces are the Centre's.
• Agriculture (State List) vs food adulteration and inter-state trade (Concurrent and Union) — farming is a state subject, but food standards and inter-state commerce are not.
Also asked from this topic: whether police is a Union subject (no — State List); who legislates on police, health and agriculture (state legislatures); whether prisons is a Union subject (no).
SSC Stenographer 2026 – 9 September 2026 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q8. Under which specific condition does the Parliament gain the power to legislate on a subject enumerated in the State List, even in the absence of an emergency or state request?

  1. (a) If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority that it is necessary in the national interest.
  2. (b) If the President issues an ordinance declaring such a need.
  3. (c) If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution by a simple majority deeming it necessary for national welfare.
  4. (d) If the Prime Minister, in consultation with the Attorney General, recommends it for urgent public policy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority that it is necessary in the national interest.

Answer: Option 1 — If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority that it is necessary in the national interest.
This is Article 249, a special power of the Rajya Sabha alone.
The resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, and it lets Parliament legislate on a named State List subject in the national interest.
Revision note — Parliament's power over the State List
• Article 249 — on a Rajya Sabha resolution passed by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, Parliament may legislate on a State subject for one year, renewable one year at a time.
• Such a law lapses six months after the Article 249 resolution expires.
• Article 250 — during a National Emergency Parliament may legislate on any State subject; such a law lapses six months after the emergency ends.
• Article 252 — when two or more state legislatures pass resolutions requesting it, Parliament may legislate for those states; other states may adopt the law later.
• Article 253 — Parliament may legislate on any State subject to implement an international treaty, agreement or convention.
• Article 356 — while President's Rule is in force, Parliament exercises the state legislature's power.
• The Seventh Schedule holds the three lists — Union (97 entries originally), State (66 originally) and Concurrent (47 originally).
• Residuary powers rest with the Union under Article 248.
• The 42nd Amendment, 1976 moved education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice from the State List to the Concurrent List.
Do not mix these up
• Article 249 vs Article 252 — under 249 the Rajya Sabha authorises Parliament; under 252 the states themselves ask, and the law binds only the consenting states.
• Article 249 vs Article 250 — 249 needs no emergency, only a Rajya Sabha resolution; 250 operates only while a National Emergency is in force.
Also asked from this topic: the Article letting Parliament legislate on State List subjects in the national interest (Article 249, SSC CGL 2025); how long that resolution stays valid (one year, SSC CGL 2025).
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 1 · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q9. After proclamation, Financial Emergency must be approved within how many months by Parliament?

  1. (a) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Six months
  2. (b) AApproved by both Houses of Parliament within One months
  3. (c) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Three months
  4. (d) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Two months
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Two months

Financial Emergency (Article 360)
Proclamation issued by President on grounds of financial instability.
Must be approved byboth Houses of Parliamentwithin2 months.
If not approved within 2 months, proclamation ceases to operate.
Answer: Option 4 → Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Two months
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 June 2026 Shift 2 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q10. Which of the following statements about the Emergency provisions is true?

  1. (a) Make India a monarchy
  2. (b) Formalise a constitutional amendment
  3. (c) Convert the federal system into a unitary one
  4. (d) Allow federalism to continue
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Convert the federal system into a unitary one

Emergency Provisions in Indian Constitution
During Emergency (Article 352, 356, 360):
• Centre gainssupreme powerover states
• Parliament can make laws onState List subjects
• President can issue directives to states
• Federal structure temporarily becomesunitary
The federal system isnot abolished, but powers shift
from states to Centre, making it function like a unitary system.
Answer: Option 3 → Convert the federal system into a unitary one
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 June 2026 Shift 1 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q11. The phrase “internal disturbance” in the Emergency provisions of the Constitution of India was replaced with which term?

  1. (a) Civil unrest
  2. (b) National instability
  3. (c) Armed rebellion
  4. (d) Internal security threat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Armed rebellion

Topic: Constitutional Amendment - Emergency Provisions
Original Article 352 used term'internal disturbance'
44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 replaced it with'armed rebellion'
This made Emergency declaration more specific and difficult to misuse
Change was made after 1975-77 Emergency experience
Answer: Option 3 → Armed rebellion
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 June 2026 Shift 1 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q12. Which type of Emergency could be implemented due to 'internal disturbance' before the 44ᵗʰ Amendment of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) National Emergency
  2. (b) Financial Emergency
  3. (c) President's Rule
  4. (d) Martial Law
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National Emergency

Topic: Emergency Provisions - Article 352
Before 44th Amendment (1978):
National Emergency could be declared on grounds of:
• War
• External aggression
•Internal disturbance
After 44th Amendment:
'Internal disturbance' was replaced with'Armed Rebellion'
Key Point:The term 'internal disturbance' was misused
during 1975 Emergency, leading to this amendment.
Answer: Option 1 → National Emergency
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 2 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q13. Which Amendment made written Cabinet advice mandatory for Emergency in India?

  1. (a) 24ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 26ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment
  4. (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - Emergency Provisions
44th Amendment Act, 1978introduced safeguards against misuse of Emergency.
Key Changes:
Made written Cabinet advice mandatory for declaring Emergency.
President must act on advice of Cabinet (not just PM).
Replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.
Answer: Option 3 → 44ᵗʰ Amendment
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 June 2026 Shift 3 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q14. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for the suspension of enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III during emergencies?

  1. (a) Article 356
  2. (b) Article 359
  3. (c) Article 358
  4. (d) Article 357
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 359

Topic: Constitutional Provisions during Emergency
Article 359- Suspension of enforcement of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
Key Points:
• President can suspend right to move courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 & 21).
• Applies during National Emergency (Article 352).
Other Articles:
• Article 358 - Automatic suspension of Article 19 during Emergency.
• Article 356 - President's Rule in States.
• Article 357 - Exercise of legislative powers under President's Rule.
Answer: Option 2 → Article 359
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 15 June 2026 Shift 3 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q15. A national emergency must be approved by Parliament within ______.

  1. (a) 90 Days
  2. (b) 45 Days
  3. (c) 30 Days
  4. (d) 60 Days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 Days

National Emergency - Parliamentary Approval
Article 352: President proclaims National Emergency
Parliamentary Approval Required:
• Must be approved byboth Houses of Parliament
• Within1 month (30 days)of proclamation
• By special majority (2/3rd present + voting)
If not approved within 30 days, emergency ceases
Answer: Option 3 → 30 Days
SSC GD 2026 – 30 May 2026 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q16. According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following pairs of subject-list is correct?
Statement I: Adoption and Succession — State List
Statement II: Trade and Commerce — Concurrent List

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: Neither I nor II (Option 4)
Statement I is INCORRECT: 'Adoption and Succession' (Entry 5) falls under the Concurrent List (List III), not the State List. Both Parliament and state legislatures can legislate on this subject.
Statement II is INCORRECT: 'Trade and Commerce' is not placed in the Concurrent List. Inter-state trade and commerce falls under the Union List (Entry 42), while regulation of intra-state trade is part of the State List. There is no blanket entry for 'Trade and Commerce' in the Concurrent List.
Since both statements are incorrect, the answer is 'Neither I nor II'.
SSC GD 2026 – 29 May 2026 Shift 1 · Administrative relations

Q17. Article 256 of the Indian Constitution is related with which of the following?

  1. (a) Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on States in certain cases
  2. (b) Obligation of States and the Union
  3. (c) Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India
  4. (d) Power of the States to entrust functions to the Union
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Obligation of States and the Union

Correct Answer: Obligation of States and the Union — Option (b)
Article 256 of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Obligation of States and the Union.' About Article 256: Title: Obligation of States and the Union; Part: Part XI — Relations between the Union and the States; Chapter II — Administrative Relations; Content: The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State; The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose; Significance: Establishes the principle of federal supremacy — States must comply with Union laws; The Union can give directions to states to ensure such compliance; If a state fails to comply with Union directions, the Union can take over (leading to President's Rule under Article 356); This article ensures the smooth functioning of the federal system; About neighbouring articles: Article 255: Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions to be regarded as matters of procedure only; Article 256: Obligation of States and the Union; Article 257: Control of the Union over States in certain cases; Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on States in certain cases; Article 260: Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India; Article 261: Public acts, records and judicial proceedings; The correct content of each option: Option (a) — Power of Union to confer powers on States = Article 258 (not 256); Option (b) — Obligation of States and Union = Article 256 (CORRECT); Option (c) — Jurisdiction of Union outside India = Article 260 (not 256); Option (d) — Power of States to entrust functions to Union = Article 258A (not 256).
Option (a) Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on States in certain cases — Incorrect: This describes Article 258 of the Indian Constitution (NOT Article 256); Article 258 allows the Union to confer powers and impose duties on States or their officers and authorities in certain cases; Article 256 deals with the Obligation of States and the Union. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India — Incorrect: This describes Article 260 of the Indian Constitution (NOT Article 256); Article 260 deals with the jurisdiction of the Union government in relation to territories outside India (extraterritorial jurisdiction); Article 256 deals with the Obligation of States and the Union to comply with Parliamentary laws.
Option (d) Power of the States to entrust functions to the Union — Incorrect: This describes Article 258A of the Indian Constitution (NOT Article 256); Article 258A (added by the 7th Constitutional Amendment) allows States to entrust functions to the Union; Article 256 deals with the Obligation of States and the Union to comply with laws made by Parliament.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q18. Suspension of enforcement of Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 occurs under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 360
  2. (b) Article 353
  3. (c) Article 352
  4. (d) Article 359
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 359

Topic: Fundamental Rights during Emergency
Article 359- Suspension of enforcement of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
During National Emergency (Article 352), President can suspend the right to move any court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Exception:Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended (Right to Life and Personal Liberty, Protection against conviction).
Article 352 - Proclamation of Emergency
Article 353 - Effect of Emergency on Centre-State relations
Article 360 - Financial Emergency
Answer: Option 4 → Article 359
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q19. Articles 245 to 255 of Part XI of the Indian Constitution primarily deal with which aspect of Centre-State relations?

  1. (a) Administrative relations
  2. (b) Judicial relations
  3. (c) Legislative relations
  4. (d) Financial relations
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Legislative relations

Topic: Indian Constitution - Part XI
Part XI: Relations between Union and States
Articles 245-255 deal withLegislative Relations:
• Article 245: Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
• Article 246: Subject matter of laws (Union, State, Concurrent Lists)
• Article 247-254: Distribution of legislative powers
• Article 255: Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions
These articles define legislative powers between Centre and States.
Answer: Option 3 → Legislative relations
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 9 May 2026 Shift 3 · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q20. The Punchhi Commission (2007) was primarily constituted to examine and make recommendations regarding which provision of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Centre–State Relations
  2. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. (c) Electoral Reforms in India
  4. (d) Fundamental Rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Centre–State Relations

Punchhi Commission (2007)
Officially:Commission on Centre-State Relations
Headed by: Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi (Former CJI)
Mandate: Review and recommend changes in Centre-State relations under the constitutional framework
Key Areas: Article 356 (President's Rule), Inter-State Council, Governor's role, distribution of powers
Submitted: March 2010 with 273 recommendations
Answer: Option 1 → Centre–State Relations
SSC GD 2026 – 8 May 2026 Shift 1 · Inter-state water disputes and inter-state trade

Q21. In the Indian Constitution, _____ may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State River or river valley.

  1. (a) Parliament
  2. (b) President
  3. (c) Council of Ministers
  4. (d) Union Home Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Parliament

Correct Answer: Parliament — Option (a)
Article 262 of the Indian Constitution deals with adjudication of water disputes. Clause (1) states: 'Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley.' Under this provision, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which provides for the establishment of Tribunals (such as the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal) to resolve inter-state water disputes. Clause (2) further provides that the Supreme Court shall not have jurisdiction over such disputes.
Option (b) President — Incorrect: The President does not have the constitutional authority under Article 262 to adjudicate inter-state water disputes; Parliament has this power.
Option (c) Council of Ministers — Incorrect: The Council of Ministers (executive) is not the body designated under Article 262 for adjudicating inter-state water disputes; Parliament (legislature) has this power.
Option (d) Union Home Minister — Incorrect: The Union Home Minister has no specific constitutional role under Article 262 regarding inter-state water dispute adjudication.
SSC GD 2026 – 8 May 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q22. Which of the following is part of the Concurrent List
of the Indian Constitution?
I. Forests II. Banking

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

Correct Answer: Only I — Option (a)
The Indian Constitution has three lists — Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Forests (Statement I) is in the Concurrent List — it was added to the Concurrent List (Entry 17A) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (originally it was in the State List). Both Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws on subjects in the Concurrent List. Banking (Statement II) is in the Union List (Entry 45 of the Union List) — only Parliament can legislate on banking. Therefore, only Forests (I) is part of the Concurrent List; Banking (II) is under the Union List.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Banking is in the Union List (not Concurrent); only Forests is in the Concurrent List.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Banking is NOT in the Concurrent List; it is exclusively in the Union List.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Forests IS in the Concurrent List (Entry 17A).
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q23. Which type of Centre-State relation is covered under Articles 245 to 255 of Part XI of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Legislative relations
  2. (b) Financial relations
  3. (c) Judicial relations
  4. (d) Administrative relations
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Legislative relations

Topic: Centre-State Relations - Indian Constitution
Part XI (Articles 245-263)deals with Relations between Union and States.
Articles 245-255:Legislative Relations
- Article 245: Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
- Article 246: Subject matter of laws (Union, State, Concurrent Lists)
- Article 247-254: Other provisions regarding legislative powers
- Article 255: Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions
Note:Financial relations are covered under Articles 268-293.
Administrative relations are covered under Articles 256-263.
Answer: Option 1 → Legislative relations
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 2 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q24. 'Effect of Proclamation of Emergency' is explicitly provided in which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Article 350
  2. (b) Article 353
  3. (c) Article 252
  4. (d) Article 256
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 353

Topic: Emergency Provisions - Constitution of India
Article 353deals with 'Effect of Proclamation of Emergency'.
Key provisions under Article 353:
- Executive power of Union extends to giving directions to states
- Parliament can make laws on State List subjects
- Applies during National Emergency (Article 352)
Other articles mentioned:
Article 350 → Special provision relating to language
Article 252 → Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more states
Article 256 → Obligation of states to comply with Union laws
Answer: Option 2 → Article 353
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 8 May 2026 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q25. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to make grants to the States which are in need of financial assistance?

  1. (a) Article 255
  2. (b) Article 265
  3. (c) Article 275
  4. (d) Article 285
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 275

Topic: Financial Relations between Union and States
Article 275deals with grants-in-aid from the Union to States.
Parliament can make grants to states needing financial assistance.
These grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Finance Commission recommends such grants to states in need.
Answer: Option 3 → Article 275
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 1 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q26. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution may the President of India proclaim President’s Rule when Constitutional machinery fails in a state?

  1. (a) Article 350
  2. (b) Article 249
  3. (c) Article 355
  4. (d) Article 356
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 356

Topic: President's Rule in India
Article 356empowers the President to impose President's Rule when constitutional machinery fails in a state.
Key provisions:
- Governor reports state government cannot function per Constitution
- President can assume state functions or dissolve assembly
- State comes under direct Central control
Other articles:
Article 355 → Centre's duty to protect states
Article 350 → Language of representation
Article 249 → Parliament's power on State List
Answer: Option 4 → Article 356
SSC GD 2026 – 6 May 2026 Shift 1 · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q27. Which type of emergency has never been proclaimed in India?

  1. (a) National Emergency
  2. (b) President's Rule
  3. (c) Financial Emergency
  4. (d) None of the above
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Financial Emergency

Correct Answer: Financial Emergency — Option (c)
The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergency : (1) National Emergency under Article 352, (2) President's Rule (State Emergency) under Article 356, and (3) Financial Emergency under Article 360. While National Emergency has been proclaimed three times (1962, 1971, 1975) and President's Rule has been imposed in several states numerous times, Financial Emergency under Article 360 has NEVER been proclaimed in India since independence. It can be proclaimed when the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
Option (a) National Emergency — Incorrect: National Emergency HAS been proclaimed three times — in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (internal disturbance under Indira Gandhi).
Option (b) President's Rule — Incorrect: President's Rule (Article 356) HAS been imposed hundreds of times in various states since independence.
Option (d) None of the above — Incorrect: Financial Emergency has indeed never been proclaimed, making Option (c) the correct answer.
SSC GD 2026 – 6 May 2026 Shift 3 · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q28. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Financial Emergency?

  1. (a) 352
  2. (b) 356
  3. (c) 360
  4. (d) 365
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 360

Correct Answer: 360 — Option (c)
Article 360 of the Indian Constitution provides for the proclamation of a Financial Emergency. The President can proclaim a Financial Emergency if he/she is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. During Financial Emergency, the President can direct states to observe financial propriety and can reduce the salaries of all government servants including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Notably, a Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India.
Option (a) 352 — Incorrect: Article 352 deals with National Emergency (proclaimed in cases of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion).
Option (b) 356 — Incorrect: Article 356 deals with President's Rule (State Emergency), imposed when the constitutional machinery in a state fails.
Option (d) 365 — Incorrect: Article 365 deals with the effect of failure to comply with, or to give effect to, directions given by the Union to States; it is related to President's Rule grounds, not Financial Emergency.
SSC GD 2026 – 6 May 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q29. By which amendment was 'Education' transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 44th Amendment
  3. (c) 52nd Amendment
  4. (d) 86th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

Correct Answer: 42nd Amendment — Option (a)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (during the Emergency period under Indira Gandhi) transferred 'Education' from the State List (List II) to the Concurrent List (List III). This meant that both the Central Government and State Governments could legislate on education. The 42nd Amendment is one of the most significant amendments in Indian constitutional history, often called the 'Mini-Constitution' as it made extensive changes to the Constitution.
Option (b) 44th Amendment — Incorrect: The 44th Amendment (1978) reversed several changes made by the 42nd Amendment but did NOT reverse the transfer of Education to the Concurrent List.
Option (c) 52nd Amendment — Incorrect: The 52nd Amendment (1985) introduced the anti-defection law (10th Schedule); it had nothing to do with the transfer of Education.
Option (d) 86th Amendment — Incorrect: The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A (Right to Education for children 6–14 years) and amended Article 45 and 51A, but Education had already been in the Concurrent List since the 42nd Amendment.
SSC GD 2026 – 30 April 2026 Shift 2 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q30. How many types of emergency provisions have been made in the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 2
  2. (b) 3
  3. (c) 4
  4. (d) 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 3

Correct Answer: 3 — Option (b)
The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergencies:
1. National Emergency (Article 352) — on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
2. State Emergency / President's Rule (Article 356) — when constitutional governance fails in a state.
3. Financial Emergency (Article 360) — when the financial stability of India or a state is threatened.
Option (a) 2 — Incorrect; there are three, not two types of emergencies.
Option (c) 4 — Incorrect; the Constitution does not provide for a fourth type of emergency.
Option (d) 5 — Incorrect; five types of emergencies are not mentioned in the Constitution.
SSC GD 2026 – 29 April 2026 Shift 2 · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q31. During a financial emergency under Article 360, the President can:

  1. (a) Reduce salaries of government employees
  2. (b) Dismiss State Governments
  3. (c) Dissolve Parliament
  4. (d) Suspend Fundamental Rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reduce salaries of government employees

Correct Answer: Reduce salaries of government employees — Option (a)
Under Article 360 (Financial Emergency) of the Indian Constitution, the President can, among other things, reduce the salaries of government employees. Powers of the President during Financial Emergency (Article 360): The President can give directions to any State to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the direction; The President can direct that all Money Bills or other Financial Bills passed by the State Legislature shall be reserved for the consideration of the President; The President can issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of ALL persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts; Note: A Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India since the Constitution came into force.
Option (b) Dismiss State Governments — Incorrect: Dismissing State Governments (imposition of President's Rule) is done under Article 356 (State Emergency), not under Article 360 (Financial Emergency); the two types of emergencies are distinct constitutional provisions. The candidate incorrectly selected this option.
Option (c) Dissolve Parliament — Incorrect: The President does not have the power to dissolve Parliament (Lok Sabha) during a Financial Emergency; dissolution of the Lok Sabha follows the advice of the Prime Minister or upon loss of confidence; it has no connection to Article 360.
Option (d) Suspend Fundamental Rights — Incorrect: Suspension of Fundamental Rights (specifically Article 19 rights) can occur during a National Emergency under Article 352 and Article 358-359; suspension of Fundamental Rights is NOT a consequence of a Financial Emergency under Article 360.
SSC GD 2026 – 29 April 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q32. Which schedule of the Constitution specifies the division of powers between the Union and States?

  1. (a) 5th Schedule
  2. (b) 7th Schedule
  3. (c) 9th Schedule
  4. (d) 10th Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7th Schedule

Correct Answer: 7th Schedule — Option (b)
The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifies the division of legislative powers between the Union and States through three lists. The three lists under the 7th Schedule: Union List (List I) — Contains 97 subjects (originally 97, now 100 after amendments) on which only Parliament can legislate; examples include defence , foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, banking, currency, and communications; State List (List II) — Contains 66 subjects on which State Legislatures can legislate; examples include police, public health, agriculture, local government, and land; Concurrent List (List III) — Contains 52 subjects (originally 47) on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate; examples include education, forests, marriage, bankruptcy, and criminal law. In case of conflict between Union and State laws on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails (Article 254). The 7th Schedule is among the most important schedules as it defines the federal structure of India's governance.
Option (a) 5th Schedule — Incorrect: The 5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram; it does not deal with the division of powers between Union and States.
Option (c) 9th Schedule — Incorrect: The 9th Schedule (added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment, 1951) contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in courts (judicial review protected); it does not specify the division of powers between Union and States.
Option (d) 10th Schedule — Incorrect: The 10th Schedule (added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment, 1985) deals with the Anti-Defection Law — provisions disqualifying members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection; it is not related to the division of powers.
SSC GD 2026 – 28 April 2026 Shift 3 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q33. Who has the right to recommend President's Rule in a state?

  1. (a) Chief Minister
  2. (b) Governor
  3. (c) Prime Minister
  4. (d) Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Governor

Correct Answer: Governor — Option (b)
Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state has the right to recommend President's Rule (State Emergency) to the President. When the Governor reports to the President that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President may issue a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 356. The Governor's report is the trigger for imposing President's Rule (also called Governor's Rule or Constitutional Emergency). However, the President acts on the advice of the Union Cabinet. The 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) added a safeguard that the President can impose President's Rule only on the basis of a written report from the Governor. The 38th Amendment (1975) made the President's satisfaction final and non-justiciable, but this was reversed by the 44th Amendment.
Option (a) Chief Minister — Incorrect: The Chief Minister heads the state government and would have no reason to recommend President's Rule against their own government; the recommendation comes from the Governor.
Option (c) Prime Minister — Incorrect: While the Union Cabinet (headed by the PM) advises the President on imposing President's Rule, it is the Governor's report under Article 356 that recommends and triggers this action at the state level.
Option (d) Supreme Court — Incorrect: The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body; it does not have the constitutional role of recommending President's Rule in a state — this is the constitutional function of the Governor.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 27 March 2026 Shift 1 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q34. If an Emergency Proclamation is approved only by the Rajya Sabha while the Lok Sabha is dissolved, for how long does the Proclamation remain in force from the first sitting of the newly constituted Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) 30 days
  2. (b) 21 days
  3. (c) 60 days
  4. (d) 14 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 30 days

Emergency Proclamation Approval Rules:
When Lok Sabha is dissolved, Rajya Sabha alone can approve the Emergency Proclamation.
After the new Lok Sabha is constituted, the Proclamation must be approved by the new Lok Sabha within30 daysfrom its first sitting.
If not approved within 30 days, the Proclamation ceases to operate.
Constitutional Provision:Article 352(4)
Answer: Option 1 → 30 days
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 27 March 2026 Shift 3 · Financial relations

Q35. Under Article 275 of the Constitution, the sums provided by the Parliament as grants-in-aid to states are required to be charged on which fund?

  1. (a) Contingency Fund of India
  2. (b) Consolidated Fund of India
  3. (c) Public Account of India
  4. (d) State Emergency Fund
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Consolidated Fund of India

Article 275: Grants-in-Aid to States
Constitutional Provision:
Parliament may provide grants-in-aid to states needing financial assistance.
Key Point:
These grants arecharged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Charged expenditure = Not subject to parliamentary vote.
Note:
Contingency Fund → Emergency unforeseen expenses.
Public Account → Money held in trust (PF, deposits).
Answer: Option 2 → Consolidated Fund of India
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 22 March 2026 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q36. Under the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, who has the exclusive power to make laws on GST, where the supply of goods or services takes place in the course of interstate trade or commerce?

  1. (a) NITI Ayog
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) State Legislatures
  4. (d) President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament

Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016 - GST Framework
Article 246Agrants concurrent power to both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on GST.
However, for Interstate Trade or Commerce:
Article 269A(1) specifically provides thatParliament has exclusive powerto legislate on GST where supply of goods/services occurs in the course of interstate trade or commerce.
This is implemented through theIntegrated GST (IGST) Actpassed by Parliament.
State Legislatures can only legislate onintrastateGST matters (SGST).
Answer: Option 2 → Parliament
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 22 March 2026 Shift 3 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q37. What is the maximum total duration for which President’s Rule can continue in a State under Article 356, subject to parliamentary approvals and constitutional conditions?

  1. (a) Up to two years
  2. (b) Up to four years
  3. (c) Up to one year
  4. (d) Up to three years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Up to three years

President's Rule under Article 356
Initial proclamation:6 months
First extension:6 months(requires parliamentary approval)
Further extensions:6 months each(requires two conditions):
1. Parliamentary approval by both Houses
2. Election Commission certifies elections cannot be held
Maximum duration: 3 years
Beyond 1 year requires special justification that elections
in the state are not possible to conduct.
Answer: Option 4 → Up to three years
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 1 · Financial relations

Q38. Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. (a) Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence.
  2. (b) A state legislature is prohibited from imposing a tax on the supply of goods or services or both where such supply takes place outside the state and where such supply takes place in the course of import or export.
  3. (c) A state legislature can impose taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments.
  4. (d) A state legislature can not impose tax on the consumption or sale of electricity.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A state legislature can not impose tax on the consumption or sale of electricity.

Topic: Constitutional Provisions on Taxation
Analysis of Each Statement:
Statement 1:Article 282 allows Centre and States to make grants for any public purpose, even outside their legislative competence. ✓ Correct
Statement 2:State legislature cannot tax supply of goods/services outside state or during import/export (Article 286). ✓ Correct
Statement 3:States can impose taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments (Article 276). ✓ Correct
Statement 4:States CAN impose tax on consumption or sale of electricity (Entry 53, State List). This statement is INCORRECT.
Key Point:Entry 53 of State List explicitly gives states power to tax electricity consumption and sale.
Answer: Option 4 → A state legislature can not impose tax on the consumption or sale of electricity.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 3 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q39. Which constitutional amendment reduced the Parliament’s approval period for National Emergency from two months to one month?

  1. (a) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
  2. (b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  3. (c) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
  4. (d) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978

44th Amendment Act, 1978made several changes to Emergency provisions:
1. Reduced Parliament's approval period from2 months to 1 month
2. Changed grounds from 'internal disturbance' to'armed rebellion'
3. Made President's satisfactionjusticiable in courts
4. Requiredwritten advice of Cabinetfor Emergency proclamation
This amendment was enacted to prevent misuse of Emergency powers after 1975-77 Emergency.
Answer: Option 2 → 44th Amendment Act, 1978
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q40. The Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on matters in the State List under which of the following circumstances?
1. When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect
2. During a National Emergency
3. When states make a request
4. To implement international agreements
5. At the discretion of the Prime Minister

  1. (a) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
  2. (b) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
  3. (c) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

Constitutional Provisions (Articles 249, 250, 252, 253):
1. Rajya Sabha Resolution (Art. 249):If Rajya Sabha passes resolution by 2/3 majority that it is necessary in national interest
2. National Emergency (Art. 250):During proclamation of emergency under Art. 352
3. State Request (Art. 252):When two or more states pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate
4. International Agreements (Art. 253):To implement treaties, agreements, and conventions with foreign countries
5. PM's Discretion:NOT a constitutional provision - Parliament cannot legislate at PM's discretion alone
Answer: Option 4 → 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q41. When a law passed by a State Legislature clashes with a Parliamentary law on a Concurrent List subject, what is the legal outcome?

  1. (a) The Parliament is obligated to annul the state law
  2. (b) The state legislation automatically overrides the central law
  3. (c) The central law overrides the state law unless the state law has Presidential assent
  4. (d) The matter is settled through a ruling by the Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The central law overrides the state law unless the state law has Presidential assent

Constitutional Provision:
When Parliament and State Legislature both make laws on Concurrent List subjects, Article 254 applies.
General Rule:
Central law prevails over state law in case of conflict (repugnancy).
Exception:
If state law receivesPresidential assent, it prevails in that state despite central law.
Parliament can still override by making another law later.
Answer: Option 3 → The central law overrides the state law unless the state law has Presidential assent
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 March 2026 Shift 1 · Financial relations

Q42. How do Centre-State financial relations impact the governance in India?

  1. (a) By providing states with unlimited financial resources
  2. (b) By eliminating the need for state budgets
  3. (c) Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources
  4. (d) By centralizing all tax revenues at the Centre
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources

Key Constitutional Provisions:
Article 280: Finance Commission set up every 5 years
Commission recommends tax sharing between Centre & States
Financial Mechanisms:
Finance Commission allocates central tax revenues to states
GST Council manages indirect tax coordination
Grants-in-aid under Article 275 for revenue deficit states
Impact on Governance:
Ensures fiscal federalism and resource distribution
States have autonomy but within constitutional framework
Answer: Option 3 → Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 17 March 2026 Shift 3 · Administrative relations

Q43. Which Constitutional provision empowers the Government of India to give directions to a State in certain matters?

  1. (a) Article 262
  2. (b) Article 265
  3. (c) Article 248
  4. (d) Article 256
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 256

Article 256- Obligation of States and Union
States must exercise executive power to ensure compliance with Parliament laws.
Union can givedirectionsto States for implementation of Union laws.
This ensures uniformity in execution of central legislation.
Answer: Option 4 → Article 256
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q44. Which of the following subjects are included in the Union List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Local government, markets, and fairs
  2. (b) Education, forests, and marriage
  3. (c) Defence , foreign affairs, and citizenship
  4. (d) Police, public health, and agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Defence , foreign affairs, and citizenship

Union List (List I) contains subjects on which only Parliament can legislate.
Option 3 subjects — Defence , Foreign Affairs, Citizenship — are all UNION LIST:
• Defence of India and armed forces → Entry 1
• Foreign affairs → Entry 10
• Citizenship → Entry 17
Why NOT others:
• Local govt, markets, fairs → State List.
• Education, forests, marriage → Concurrent List.
• Police, public health, agriculture → State List.
Answer: Option 3 → Defence , foreign affairs, and citizenship
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q45. Division of legislative subjects into union, state and concurrent List is contained in which of the following schedules of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Ninth Schedule
  3. (c) Fifth Schedule
  4. (d) Seventh Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Seventh Schedule

The division of legislative subjects into Union, State and Concurrent Lists is given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
It clearly delineates the powers and responsibilities of the Union and State governments.
Thus, the correct answer is the Seventh Schedule.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 2 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q46. The Constitution of India provided for how many types of emergencies in Part XVIII, from Articles 352 to 360?

  1. (a) Six
  2. (b) Five
  3. (c) Three
  4. (d) Four
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Three

The Constitution of India provides for three types of emergencies under Part XVIII, Articles 352 to 360.
These are:
1. National Emergency (Article 352)
2. State Emergency (President's Rule) (Article 356)
3. Financial Emergency (Article 360)
Thus, the correct number is three.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 3 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q47. The term 'Armed Rebellion' was introduced under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution for the proclamation of a National Emergency by which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
  2. (b) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
  3. (c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
  4. (d) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

Solution:
Originally,Article 352used the term‘internal disturbance’for National Emergency.
The44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978replaced it with‘armed rebellion’.
This change was made toprevent misuse of emergency provisions.
Hence, the correct answer is44th Amendment, 1978.
SSC MTS 2025 – 12 February 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q48. Which of the following is part of the Union List of the Indian Constitution?
I. Prison
II. War and Peace

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only II
Statement II is correct: 'War and Peace' (Entry 1 of the Union List) is exclusively a Union subject under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Defence, foreign affairs, and matters relating to war and peace are handled solely by the Central Government.
Statement I is incorrect: 'Prisons, reformatories, Borstal institutions and other institutions of a like nature' (Entry 4) are in the State List, not the Union List. States have jurisdiction over prisons.
Hence, Only II is correct.
SSC MTS 2025 – 11 February 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q49. Which of the following is part of the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution?
I. Public Health
II. Trade Unions

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

The correct answer is Only II (Option 2). Trade Unions are listed under Entry 22 of the Concurrent List (Seventh Schedule) of the Indian Constitution. Public Health and Sanitation are listed under Entry 6 of the State List, not the Concurrent List. Therefore, only Statement II (Trade Unions) is in the Concurrent List. Option 1 (Only I) is incorrect. Option 3 (Both) is incorrect since Public Health is in the State List.
SSC MTS 2025 – 10 February 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q50. Which of the following article of Indian Constitution deals with Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?

  1. (a) Article 282
  2. (b) Article 250
  3. (c) Article 263
  4. (d) Article 173
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 250

The correct answer is Article 250 (Option 2). Article 250 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List during the operation of a National Emergency (Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352). Option 1 is incorrect as Article 282 deals with expenditure from the Consolidated Fund for public purpose. Option 3 is incorrect as Article 263 deals with Inter-State Council. Option 4 is incorrect as Article 173 deals with qualifications for membership of the State Legislature.
SSC MTS 2025 – 9 February 2026 Shift 3 · Inter-state water disputes and inter-state trade

Q51. As per provisions of the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956, the Tribunal shall consist of a Chairman and two other Members nominated by the _____.

  1. (a) President of India
  2. (b) Chief Minister of concerned States
  3. (c) Central Government after consultation with State Governments
  4. (d) Chief Justice of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chief Justice of India

Correct Answer: 4 – Chief Justice of India.
Under Section 4 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, the Central Government constitutes a Tribunal for the adjudication of a water dispute. The Chairman and two other Members (or additional members) of the Tribunal are nominated by the Chief Justice of India from among serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court.
President of India (Option 1) does not nominate tribunal members.
Chief Ministers of concerned states (Option 2) do not nominate members.
The Central Government (Option 3) constitutes the tribunal but the Chief Justice of India nominates its members.
SSC MTS 2025 – 6 February 2026 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q52. The last subject mentioned in the concurrent list of the Indian Constitution is numbered _____.

  1. (a) 34
  2. (b) 42
  3. (c) 47
  4. (d) 41
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 47

Correct Answer: 3 (47)
The Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution originally contained 47 subjects. The last subject (Entry 47) is 'Fees in respect of any of the matters in this List, but not including fees taken in any court.' The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added some new entries, bringing the total to 52, but the original last entry numbered is 47.
Option 1 (34) is incorrect - the Union List has more entries; 34 is not the last in the Concurrent List.
Option 2 (42) is incorrect.
Option 4 (41) is incorrect.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 12 January 2026 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q53. Match the Constitutional provision with its effect on Parliament's power over State List subjects:
List I: 1. Art. 249 | 2. Art. 250 | 3. Art. 252 | 4. Art. 253
List II: P. During national emergency | Q. By international agreement | R. On request of 2+ states | S. For national interest

  1. (a) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
  2. (b) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q
  3. (c) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P
  4. (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q

1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q is correct.
• Art. 249 – S (For national interest): If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority that it is necessary in the national interest, Parliament can legislate on State List subjects.
• Art. 250 – P (During national emergency): Parliament gets power to legislate on any matter in the State List during a National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352.
• Art. 252 – R (On request of 2+ states): If two or more state legislatures pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate on a State List subject, Parliament can do so.
• Art. 253 – Q (By international agreement): Parliament can legislate on State List subjects to implement any treaty, agreement, or convention with foreign nations or international organizations.
• Option 1 (1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S) is wrong: Art. 249 is for national interest (S), not emergency (P).
• Option 3 and 4 are wrong due to incorrect article-purpose pairings.
Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 2025-26 – 8 January 2026 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q54. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the nature, criteria, and constitutional status of Special Category Status (SCS) granted to certain Indian states?

  1. (a) Special Category Status is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution under Article 371, granting states automatic financial benefits and exemption from all central taxes.
  2. (b) The criteria for Special Category Status include factors like hilly terrain, tribal population, border location, and economic backwardness, but the status is a political and administrative classification decided by the Union Government, not a constitutional right.
  3. (c) The Finance Commission mandates the grant of Special Category Status to states based on per capita income, and it is binding on the Union Government.
  4. (d) Once a state is granted Special Category Status, it remains permanent and cannot be revoked by the Union Government or Parliament.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The criteria for Special Category Status include factors like hilly terrain, tribal population, border location, and economic backwardness, but the status is a political and administrative classification decided by the Union Government, not a constitutional right.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – SCS is a political and administrative classification, not a constitutional right
Special Category Status (SCS) is NOT mentioned in the Constitution. It was a concept introduced by the 5th Finance Commission (1969) based on the Gadgil Formula for distributing central assistance. The criteria for granting SCS include:
• Hilly terrain and difficult geography
• Low population density or significant tribal population
• Strategic location along international borders
• Economic and infrastructure backwardness
• Non-viable state finances
Importantly, SCS is a political and administrative decision of the Union Government (earlier through the National Development Council), not a constitutional right. The 14th Finance Commission (2015) effectively discontinued the SCS framework, replacing it with increased devolution to states.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1: SCS is NOT mentioned in Article 371 or any constitutional article. Article 371 gives special provisions to specific states but for different reasons.
Option 3: The Finance Commission does not mandate SCS; it was decided by the Planning Commission/NDC.
Option 4: SCS is not permanent and can be changed by the Union Government.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 5 January 2026 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q55. Under which Article can the Union legislate on a State subject for implementing international treaties and agreements, ensuring India fulfils its international obligations?

  1. (a) Article 250
  2. (b) Article 252
  3. (c) Article 253
  4. (d) Article 258
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 253

The correct answer is (c) Article 253.
Article 253 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or any international decision — even if the subject matter falls under the State List.
(a) Article 250: Empowers Parliament to make laws on State List subjects during a National Emergency.
(b) Article 252: Allows Parliament to legislate for two or more states at their request (by resolutions in their legislatures).
(d) Article 258: Deals with the President entrusting certain Union executive functions to States.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 3 January 2026 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q56. When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution under Article 249, the power of Parliament to legislate remains valid for:

  1. (a) 1 year
  2. (b) 5 years
  3. (c) 6 months
  4. (d) Lok Sabha term
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 year

Under Article 249, when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a State List subject, Parliament can do so. This power remains valid for one year (and can be renewed indefinitely by passing fresh resolutions each year).
(a) Incorrect: 5 years is the term of the Lok Sabha, not the validity period for Article 249 legislation.
(b) Incorrect: 6 months is not the validity period under Article 249; it is 1 year per resolution.
(c) Incorrect: 'Lok Sabha term' is not the prescribed validity period under Article 249; the resolution's legislative power lasts 1 year.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 3 January 2026 Shift 3 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q57. Under which Article can the President impose President's Rule in a State if constitutional machinery fails, giving the Union government control over State administration?

  1. (a) 352
  2. (b) 356
  3. (c) 360
  4. (d) 365
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 356

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to impose President's Rule (State Emergency) in a State if the President is satisfied, on the Governor's report or otherwise, that the constitutional machinery in the State has failed.
(a) Incorrect: Article 352 deals with National Emergency (Proclamation of Emergency due to war or armed rebellion), not President's Rule in a State.
(b) Incorrect: Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency, when India's financial stability is threatened.
(c) Incorrect: Article 365 deals with the consequences of a State's failure to comply with directions of the Union, but the actual imposition authority is under Article 356.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 24 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q58. Which House can authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in national interest?

  1. (a) Lok Sabha by special majority
  2. (b) Rajya Sabha by special majority
  3. (c) Both Houses jointly by simple majority
  4. (d) Rajya Sabha by simple majority
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha by special majority

The correct answer is Rajya Sabha by special majority (Option 2).
Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) — representing the states — can pass a resolution by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting) declaring it expedient in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a State List subject. This resolution empowers Parliament to legislate on that subject for one year (renewable).
Option 1 - Lok Sabha by special majority: Article 249 specifically vests this power in the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha acts as the guardian of states' interests.
Option 3 - Both Houses jointly by simple majority: The power is vested exclusively in the Rajya Sabha under Article 249, and it requires a special (two-thirds) majority, not a joint session or simple majority.
Option 4 - Rajya Sabha by simple majority: The resolution under Article 249 must be passed by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting), not a simple majority.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 23 December 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q59. The Union List, State List, and Concurrent List are mentioned in which schedule?

  1. (a) 6th Schedule
  2. (b) 7th Schedule
  3. (c) 8th Schedule
  4. (d) 9th Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7th Schedule

The correct answer is 7th Schedule (Option 2).
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains three lists that divide legislative powers between the Union and the States: Union List (97 subjects), State List (66 subjects), and Concurrent List (47 subjects).
Option 1 - 6th Schedule: The Sixth Schedule deals with provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Option 3 - 8th Schedule: The Eighth Schedule lists the 22 officially recognised languages of India.
Option 4 - 9th Schedule: The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws that are protected from judicial review.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q60. In which of the following cases does the Union have exclusive power?

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Public health
  3. (c) Police
  4. (d) Banking
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Banking

Banking is listed in the Union List (List I, Entry 45) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, giving the Union Parliament exclusive legislative power over it. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Agriculture is a State List subject (Entry 14), meaning state legislatures have primary authority over it.
Option 2 is wrong: Public health and sanitation are State List subjects (Entry 6), and states have primary jurisdiction over them.
Option 3 is wrong: Police is a State List subject (Entry 2); each state maintains its own police force, though there are central police organisations like CRPF under Union control.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q61. Grants-in-aid to States in need of assistance are given under:

  1. (a) Article 270
  2. (b) Article 275
  3. (c) Article 280
  4. (d) Article 282
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 275

Article 275 of the Indian Constitution provides for grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India to States that are in need of assistance. These grants are given as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Article 270 deals with the distribution of taxes between the Union and States (taxes levied and collected by the Union but distributed to states) — not grants-in-aid.
Option 3 is wrong: Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, which recommends the distribution of financial resources; it does not directly provide grants-in-aid.
Option 4 is wrong: Article 282 allows both Union and States to make grants for any public purpose even if it is not covered under the legislative list — these are discretionary grants, not the structured grants-in-aid under Article 275.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 20 December 2025 Shift 2 · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q62. Which of the following commissions recommended the creation of the Inter-State Council?

  1. (a) Mandal Commission
  2. (b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  3. (c) Sarkaria Commission
  4. (d) Punchhi Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission

The Sarkaria Commission (1983-88), set up to examine Centre-State relations, recommended the creation of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution. The Inter-State Council was subsequently established by a Presidential Order in 1990. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Mandal Commission (1978-80) focused on identification of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and recommendations for their reservation in government services; it did not deal with Centre-State relations.
Option 2 is wrong: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions (democratic decentralisation ); it did not recommend the Inter-State Council.
Option 4 is wrong: The Punchhi Commission (2007-10) was set up to review the Sarkaria Commission's recommendations and examined Centre-State relations, but the Inter-State Council was already established by then based on Sarkaria's recommendation.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 19 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q63. What is the subject matter of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Distribution of revenues between Union and States
  2. (b) Powers of constitutional authorities
  3. (c) Duties of public servants
  4. (d) Distribution of legislative subjects
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Distribution of legislative subjects

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative subjects (powers) between the Centre and States. It contains three lists: Union List (List I) - 97 subjects on which only Parliament can legislate; State List (List II) - 66 subjects on which only State Legislatures can legislate; and Concurrent List (List III) - 47 subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate.
Option 1 is incorrect: The distribution of revenues between the Union and States is covered under Articles 268 to 281 (Part XII) of the Constitution, not the Seventh Schedule.
Option 2 is incorrect: Powers of constitutional authorities are described in the respective articles of the Constitution (Articles 52-151, etc.), not in the Seventh Schedule.
Option 3 is incorrect: Duties of public servants are governed by service rules and conduct rules, not by the Seventh Schedule.
Delhi Police Constable (Exe) 2025-26 – 18 December 2025 Shift 1 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q64. The article, which deals with 'Failure of constitutional machinery in States':

  1. (a) Article 352
  2. (b) Article 356
  3. (c) Article 360
  4. (d) Article 365
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 356

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State,' commonly known as President's Rule or State Emergency. Under this article, if the President is satisfied (on Governor's report or otherwise) that a state's constitutional machinery has failed, the President can assume the functions of the state government.
Option (a) is incorrect: Article 352 deals with National Emergency (external aggression or armed rebellion), not state constitutional machinery failure.
Option (c) is incorrect: Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency when the financial stability of India or any part of it is threatened.
Option (d) is incorrect: Article 365 deals with situations where a state fails to comply with directions given by the Union government; this can be a ground for imposing Article 356.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 10 December 2025 Shift 2 · Inter-state water disputes and inter-state trade

Q65. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can bar the jurisdiction of courts over inter-state water disputes.
2. Article 262 empowers the Inter-State Council to adjudicate water disputes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Only 1
Statement 1: CORRECT. Article 262 of the Indian Constitution allows Parliament to provide for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes and, importantly, Parliament can by law exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in such disputes. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956, was enacted under this provision.
Statement 2: INCORRECT. Article 262 does NOT empower the Inter-State Council to adjudicate water disputes. It empowers Parliament to establish a tribunal for such disputes. The Inter-State Council (under Article 263) is a different body for coordinating policy between states, not for adjudicating water disputes.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.
SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 – 9 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. Police is a subject under the Union List.
2. Agriculture falls under the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Police is a subject under the STATE LIST (Entry 2 of the Seventh Schedule), not the Union List. Law and order is a state subject in India.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: Agriculture is included under the STATE LIST (Entries 14, 18, 26, 27 etc. of the Seventh Schedule). Agricultural policy, land laws, and farming regulation are state subjects.
Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q67. Which list allows both Centre and State to legislate on the same subject?

  1. (a) State List
  2. (b) Union List
  3. (c) Concurrent List
  4. (d) Reserved List
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Concurrent List

The correct answer is the Concurrent List . Under the Indian Constitution, the division of subjects for law-making is given in the Seventh Schedule , which contains three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects only the Parliament can legislate on (e.g., defence , foreign affairs). The State List contains subjects on which only State legislatures can make laws (e.g., police, public order). The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both Centre and States can legislate (e.g., education, forests, marriage laws). However, in case of a conflict between a Central law and a State law on the same subject, the Central law prevails . There is no “Reserved List” in the Constitution; hence that option is incorrect.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q68. Read the below statements related to Concurrent List laws:
1. Union law overrides state law in conflict.
2. State law can prevail if reserved and assented by President.
Which is/are correct?

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2
  2. (b) Neither 1 nor 2
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Under the Indian Constitution, the Concurrent List allows both the Union and the State governments to make laws. However, if there is a conflict between Union and State law , the Union law prevails (Article 254). At the same time, a state law can prevail over a Union law if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and receives his assent . Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct .
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q69. Statutory grants to states by the Union government, under Article 275 of the Constitution, are primarily recommended by which body?

  1. (a) National Development Council
  2. (b) Ministry of Finance
  3. (c) Finance Commission
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Finance Commission

The correct answer is Finance Commission . Article 275 of the Indian Constitution provides for statutory grants to states in need of financial assistance. The Finance Commission , constituted every five years under Article 280, recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and States, as well as the principles governing grants-in-aid. Based on its recommendations, the Union government provides funds to states to meet their requirements, particularly for scheduled tribes, scheduled areas, and other developmental purposes. Other bodies like the Ministry of Finance and NITI Aayog may play roles in policy-making and planning, but the primary constitutional authority for recommending such statutory grants is the Finance Commission.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 8 December 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q70. The power to legislate on 'Residuary Subjects' (matters not enumerated in any of the three Lists) rests exclusively with:

  1. (a) State Legislatures
  2. (b) The President of India
  3. (c) Parliament
  4. (d) The Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Parliament

The correct answer is Option 3: Parliament . In the Indian Constitution, legislative powers are divided into three lists under the Seventh Schedule – Union List, State List, and Concurrent List . However, there may be certain matters not mentioned in any of these lists. Such subjects are called Residuary Subjects . According to Article 248 of the Constitution, the power to make laws on residuary subjects rests exclusively with the Parliament of India . This provision ensures central authority over subjects that may emerge in future, such as space exploration, cyber laws, or atomic energy, which were not envisioned at the time of drafting the Constitution. State legislatures or other authorities do not have any role in residuary legislation.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q71. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Land and agriculture fall under the State List.
Statement II: Marriage laws and adoption fall under the Concurrent List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement II is correct
  2. (b) Neither statement I nor II is correct
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are correct
  4. (d) Only Statement I is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both statements I and II are correct

In the Indian Constitution, the Seventh Schedule distributes powers between the Union and State legislatures through three lists – Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Land and agriculture are subjects that fall under the State List , which means states have the authority to legislate on these matters. On the other hand, marriage, divorce, adoption, succession, and other personal laws are included in the Concurrent List , where both the Centre and the States can make laws. However, in case of conflict, the Union law prevails. Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 1 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q72. How does Article 356 impact the federal structure of India?

  1. (a) It ensures judicial independence
  2. (b) It enforces cooperative federalism
  3. (c) It promotes decentralization
  4. (d) It allows Centre to dismiss State governments
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It allows Centre to dismiss State governments

The correct answer is It allows Centre to dismiss State governments. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution provides for President’s Rule in a state if the state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions. The President, on the advice of the Union Government, can assume control of the state machinery and dismiss the elected state government. This centralises power and impacts the federal structure. The S.R. Bommai case (1994) restricted misuse of this provision. The other options are incorrect because Article 356 has nothing to do with judicial independence, cooperative federalism, or decentralisation .
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q73. Which of the following is a subject under the State List?

  1. (a) Public Order
  2. (b) Defence
  3. (c) Banking
  4. (d) Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Public Order

The correct answer is Public Order . Under the Indian Constitution, subjects of governance are divided into three lists— Union List, State List, and Concurrent List —as given in the Seventh Schedule. Matters of national importance like defence , foreign affairs, and banking fall under the Union List . Subjects of both national and regional importance , like education, forests, and marriage laws, are in the Concurrent List , where both Centre and States can make laws. However, Public Order and Police are explicitly placed under the State List , meaning that only State Governments have the authority to legislate and administer them. This ensures that law and order, being a matter of local governance, is handled directly by the State.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 1 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q74. Under which article can the President declare a National Emergency?

  1. (a) Article 356
  2. (b) Article 360
  3. (c) Article 365
  4. (d) Article 352
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 352

The correct answer is Article 352 . Article 352 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency if he/she is satisfied that the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion . Originally, the term used was “internal disturbance,” but the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) replaced it with “armed rebellion” to prevent misuse. Once proclaimed, the federal structure of India is significantly altered, as the Union government assumes greater power over the states. Fundamental Rights, particularly under Article 19, can remain suspended during the operation of a National Emergency. India has witnessed the proclamation of National Emergency thrice – in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Indo-Pak war) , and 1975 (internal emergency declared by Indira Gandhi) . Thus, Article 352 is the constitutional basis for National Emergencies, whereas Article 356 deals with President’s Rule in states, and Article 360 with Financial Emergency.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q75. Which of the following statements based on the Union List entries is/are correct?
1. The Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on lotteries conducted by both the Central and State governments.
2. Matters related to the incorporation and regulation of cooperative societies are included in the Union List.
3. The Reserve Bank of India, foreign exchange, and currency are all under the legislative domain of the Union.
4. Parliament can make laws regarding corporations whose activities are not limited to one State, excluding universities.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 4
  2. (b) All four statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1, 3, and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 1, 3, and 4

The correct answer is Only 1, 3, and 4 . Under the Constitution of India, the Union List contains subjects on which only the Parliament has the power to legislate. Lotteries conducted by the Central and State governments come under the Union List, so Parliament has exclusive power here. Similarly, subjects such as currency, foreign exchange, and the Reserve Bank of India are also under Union jurisdiction. Moreover, Parliament can make laws regarding corporations whose activities extend beyond one state (excluding universities). However, cooperative societies are not in the Union List; they are covered under the State List or the 97th Constitutional Amendment placed them partly under the Concurrent List. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect, while 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q76. Read the statements given below:
Statement 1: The Constitution of India divides the legislative subjects into 3 lists, namely the Centre, State and Concurrent List.
Statement 2: The subject of ‘Protection of wild animals and birds’ is transferred to the Concurrent List from the State List by the 42nd Amendment Act.
Statement 3: Only the Parliament of India can make laws on the subjects under the Concurrent List.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) All three statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only Statement 2 is correct
  4. (d) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct

The correct answer is Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct . The Constitution of India divides legislative powers into three lists —the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List—mentioned in the Seventh Schedule. This ensures a federal distribution of powers. By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 , the subject of “protection of wild animals and birds” was shifted from the State List to the Concurrent List so that both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on this matter. However, Statement 3 is wrong because subjects in the Concurrent List can be legislated upon by both Parliament and State Legislatures , though in case of conflict, the Union law prevails. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, but Statement 3 is incorrect.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 29 November 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q77. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the article 253 of Indian Constitution?
I. It is found in Part XI of the Constitution.
II. It relates to the Legislation for giving effect to international agreements.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Both statements are correct regarding Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement I is correct: Article 253 is found in Part XI of the Constitution, which deals with 'Relations between the Union and the States.'
Statement II is correct: Article 253 empowers Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of India to implement any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or any decision made at any international conference, association, or other body.
Hence, Both I and II is the correct answer.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 25 November 2025 Shift 3 · Administrative relations

Q78. Which article of the Indian Constitution is related with the Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance?

  1. (a) Article 348
  2. (b) Article 352
  3. (c) Article 355
  4. (d) Article 361
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 355

Article 355 of the Indian Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance, and to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Article 348: Language to be used in Supreme Court and High Courts; Article 352: Proclamation of National Emergency; Article 361: Protection of President and Governors. Hence, Article 355 is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 24 November 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q79. Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the ___.

  1. (a) Power, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats
  2. (b) Anti-Defection Law
  3. (c) Power, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities
  4. (d) Union, State and Concurrent Lists
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Union, State and Concurrent Lists

Correct Answer: Union, State and Concurrent Lists (Option 4)
The Seventh Schedule (Article 246) of the Indian Constitution contains three lists: Union List (List I) — subjects on which only Parliament can legislate (e.g., defence , foreign affairs); State List (List II) — subjects on which only State Legislature can legislate (e.g., police, agriculture); and Concurrent List (List III) — subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate (e.g., education, forests).
Power, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats — covered under the 11th Schedule (added by 73rd Amendment).
Anti-Defection Law — covered under the 10th Schedule.
Power, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities — covered under the 12th Schedule (added by 74th Amendment).
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 24 November 2025 Shift 3 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q80. Which of the following amendment act of the Indian Constitution replaced the term 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' in the context of a national emergency?

  1. (a) 41st Amendment act, 1976
  2. (b) 44th Amendment act, 1978
  3. (c) 42nd Amendment act, 1976
  4. (d) 43rd Amendment act, 1977
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 44th Amendment act, 1978

Correct Answer: 44th Amendment act, 1978 (Option 2)
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 (passed under the Janata Party government of Morarji Desai) replaced the term 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' in Article 352, making it harder to impose a National Emergency. This was done to prevent misuse of emergency provisions, as was seen during the Emergency (1975-77) declared by Indira Gandhi citing 'internal disturbance.'
41st Amendment Act, 1976 — dealt with extension of immunities to former Presidents and Governors.
42nd Amendment Act, 1976 — known as the 'Mini Constitution,' it added Fundamental Duties but did NOT change the emergency provision term.
43rd Amendment Act, 1977 — restored certain provisions amended by the 42nd Amendment.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 17 November 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q81. The Parliament of India can legislate on a state subject if _____.

  1. (a) The President issues an ordinance
  2. (b) Council of state passes a resolution by 2/3 majority of the members present
  3. (c) Lok Sabha passes a resolution by simple majority
  4. (d) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by simple majority
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Council of state passes a resolution by 2/3 majority of the members present

Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) passes a resolution by a special majority of 2/3 of members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on that matter. Such a resolution remains valid for one year and can be renewed. Why other options are wrong: Option 1 - President issuing an ordinance: An ordinance does not grant Parliament power to legislate on state subjects. Option 3 - Lok Sabha simple majority: The power rests with the Rajya Sabha, not Lok Sabha, and requires a 2/3 majority, not a simple majority. Option 4 - Rajya Sabha simple majority: The required majority is 2/3 of members present and voting, not a simple majority.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 12 November 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q82. Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Police
  2. (b) Criminal matters
  3. (c) Radio and television
  4. (d) Foreign affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Criminal matters

Criminal law and criminal procedure fall under Entry 1 of the Concurrent List, meaning both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on them. Police (Entry 2) is a State List subject. Radio and television fall under the Union List (Entry 31). Foreign affairs (Entry 10) is also a Union List subject.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 12 November 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q83. Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Police
  2. (b) Criminal matters
  3. (c) Radio and television
  4. (d) Foreign affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Criminal matters

Correct Answer: Criminal matters
The Concurrent List (List III) of the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which both the Union and State governments can legislate. Criminal law (including Criminal Procedure Code) is Entry 1 of the Concurrent List.
Why other options are wrong:
- Police: Entry 2 of the State List (List II) ? only states have jurisdiction.
- Radio and television: Entry 31 of the Union List (List I) ? exclusively under Central Government.
- Foreign affairs: Entry 10 of the Union List ? exclusively under Central Government.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 23 September 2025 Shift 1 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q84. Under which constitutional provision can the President of India assume legislative powers for a state?

  1. (a) When Article 356 is invoked due to constitutional breakdown in the state
  2. (b) When the Lok Sabha is dissolved
  3. (c) On recommendation of the Prime Minister
  4. (d) When directed by the Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) When Article 356 is invoked due to constitutional breakdown in the state

Article 356 (President's Rule): when constitutional machinery fails in a state, President can assume the state's legislative powers.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 23 September 2025 Shift 3 · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q85. Which of the following accurately reflects the constitutional provisions and historical application of Financial Emergency under Article 360?

  1. (a) No Financial Emergency has ever been declared, but it allows salary cuts of SC judges.
  2. (b) A Financial Emergency was declared during the 1991 economic crisis.
  3. (c) Article 360 allows states to withhold salaries of central employees.
  4. (d) During a Financial Emergency, only the President can dismiss the Union Cabinet.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) No Financial Emergency has ever been declared, but it allows salary cuts of SC judges.

A Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed in India.
Provisions allow the President to direct reduction in salaries (including those of SC/HC judges) of central/state employees during such an emergency.
Hence option 1 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 22 September 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q86. Under Article 352, what legislative consequence follows a Proclamation of National Emergency in India?

  1. (a) States retain exclusive control over the State List
  2. (b) Parliament can legislate on any matter in the State List
  3. (c) Rajya Sabha's approval is required for all State Bills
  4. (d) President dissolves all State Legislative Assemblies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament can legislate on any matter in the State List

During a National Emergency under Article 352, Parliament gains power to make laws on any subject in the State List.
The States do not retain exclusive control, and assemblies are not automatically dissolved.
Hence Parliament can legislate on State List subjects.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 21 September 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q87. Fill in the blanks:
The Rajya Sabha's special power under Art 249 allows it to authorise Parliament to legislate on a ______ List subject.

  1. (a) State
  2. (b) Union
  3. (c) Concurrent
  4. (d) Residuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State

Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority) allowing Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest.
Union and Concurrent List subjects are already legislable by Parliament; Residuary belongs to Parliament under Art 248.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 21 September 2025 Shift 3 · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q88. Fill in the blanks:
During a Financial Emergency, the salaries of judges can be reduced by the _______.

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) PM
  3. (c) Chief Justice
  4. (d) Finance Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) President

Under Article 360 (Financial Emergency), the President of India can issue directions to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the Union, including the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
PM, Chief Justice and Finance Commission have no such power.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 21 September 2025 Shift 3 · Financial relations

Q89. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the borrowing powers of States in India?
1) A State requires the Centre's consent for internal borrowing if it owes any debt to the Centre.
2) No State can raise loans from foreign sources without prior approval of the Union Government.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Statement 2 is Correct
  3. (c) Statement 1 and 2 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement 1 and 2 are Correct

Both statements are correct under Article 293 of the Constitution.
Statement 1: A State cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre if it has any outstanding loan from the Centre or guaranteed by the Centre.
Statement 2: States cannot directly borrow from foreign sources — only the Union Government can borrow externally (Article 292).
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 1 · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q90. Fill in the blanks:
The Sarkaria Commission (Centre-State Relations) was set up in the year ______.

  1. (a) 1983
  2. (b) 1990
  3. (c) 1992
  4. (d) 2000
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1983

- The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in 1983 under Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
- It examined Centre-State relations and submitted its report in 1988.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q91. Consider the following statements:
1. Criminal law is exclusively under the Union List.
2. Agriculture is a State subject.
3. Trade and commerce within a State falls under the State List.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

- Statement 1: INCORRECT — Criminal law is in the Concurrent List (List III), not exclusively Union List.
- Statement 2: CORRECT — Agriculture is Entry 14 of the State List.
- Statement 3: CORRECT — Trade and commerce within a state is under the State List (Entry 26).
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q92. Fill in the blanks:
The _____ List in Schedule VII deals solely with matters of national importance like defence and foreign affairs.

  1. (a) Union
  2. (b) State
  3. (c) Concurrent
  4. (d) Residuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Union

The Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule contains subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, etc. on which only Parliament can legislate.
State and Concurrent Lists cover other subjects; Residuary powers lie with Parliament but are not a separate 'List' in the Seventh Schedule.
Hence, Union is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q93. Which of the following statements regarding State Funds under the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
1) The Consolidated Fund of the State is defined under Article 266.
2) The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by the Governor in accordance with rules made by the State Legislature.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1: Article 266 defines the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State — correct.
Statement 2: Article 267(2) provides for the Contingency Fund of the State, placed at the disposal of the Governor and operated by him under rules made by the State Legislature — correct.
Hence, both 1 and 2 are correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 3 · Financial relations

Q94. Fill in the blanks:
Grants-in-Aid to States are provided under Article _____.

  1. (a) 275
  2. (b) 280
  3. (c) 265
  4. (d) 110
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 275

Article 275 of the Constitution provides for statutory Grants-in-Aid from the Centre to the States, as recommended by the Finance Commission.
Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission itself.
Article 265 deals with the levying of taxes by authority of law.
Article 110 defines a Money Bill.
Hence, Article 275 is the correct answer.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 19 September 2025 Shift 1 · Financial relations

Q95. Fill in the blanks:
Taxes on interstate trade are restricted by Article _____ unless Parliament otherwise provides.

  1. (a) 286
  2. (b) 269
  3. (c) 276
  4. (d) 294
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 286

Article 286 restricts the power of a state to impose tax on the sale or purchase of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
Articles 269, 276 and 294 deal with other tax/finance matters.
Hence the answer is Article 286.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 18 September 2025 Shift 2 · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q96. Arrange the following in chronological order:
A) Sarkaria Commission report submitted
B) Inter-State Council constituted
C) Punchhi Commission constituted

  1. (a) A-B-C
  2. (b) A-C-B
  3. (c) B-C-A
  4. (d) C-B-A
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-B-C

Sarkaria Commission report — 1988.
Inter-State Council constituted — 1990.
Punchhi Commission constituted — 2007.
Hence the correct order is A-B-C.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 17 September 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q97. . Which Article empowers the Parliament to create laws on State List subjects under national interest?

  1. (a) Article 249
  2. (b) Article 253
  3. (c) Article 248
  4. (d) Article 254
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 249

Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List subject if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority declaring it to be in the national interest.
Article 253 deals with international agreements, 248 with residuary powers, and 254 with inconsistency between Union and State laws.
Hence Article 249 is the correct answer.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 17 September 2025 Shift 2 · Inter-state water disputes and inter-state trade

Q98. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 262 empowers Parliament to set up tribunals for river disputes.
2. The Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction in such disputes.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Article 262 allows Parliament to provide for adjudication of any dispute regarding inter-State rivers and may bar the jurisdiction of all courts, including the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect — the Supreme Court's jurisdiction is barred in these disputes.
Hence only Statement 1 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 16 September 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q99. Consider the following statements:
1. The Concurrent List allows both Centre and States to legislate.
2. In case of conflict, State law prevails over Union law.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

• Indian Constitution - Seventh Schedule:
• Statement 1: The Concurrent List (List III) allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws — CORRECT ✓
• Statement 2: In case of conflict between Central and State law on Concurrent List subjects, CENTRAL (Union) law prevails (Article 254), NOT State law — INCORRECT ✗
• Answer: Only 1 is correct
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 16 September 2025 Shift 3 · Financial relations

Q100. What does Article 268 of the Indian Constitution primarily deal with?

  1. (a) Service tax levied by Union and collected by States
  2. (b) Income tax levied and collected by States
  3. (c) Stamp duties levied by Union but collected by States
  4. (d) Excise duties on medicinal products collected by States
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stamp duties levied by Union but collected by States

Article 268 deals with duties (such as stamp duties on financial transactions) that are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
12

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