SSC GD 2026 18 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Guru Gobind Singh Ji founded the Khalsa Panth — Option (c)
On the day of Vaisakhi, April 13, 1699, Guru Gobind Singh Ji — the tenth and last human Sikh Guru — founded the Khalsa Panth at Anandpur Sahib in Punjab. He called for volunteers willing to sacrifice their lives for their faith; five men (the Panj Pyare — Five Beloved Ones) came forward. Guru Gobind Singh baptised them with Amrit (holy nectar) in the ceremony called Amrit Sanchar ( Pahul ). He then took Amrit from the Panj Pyare himself, establishing the principle of the Guru being equal to the disciple. The creation of the Khalsa transformed the Sikh community into a casteless, disciplined, and martial order committed to righteousness.
Option (a) Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born — Incorrect: Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born on Kartik Pooranmashi (November) in 1469 CE, not on Vaisakhi 1699. The 1699 Vaisakhi event was the founding of the Khalsa by Guru Gobind Singh.
Option (b) The first Sikh temple was built — Incorrect: The first major Sikh shrine (Harmandir Sahib/Golden Temple) was built in Amritsar in the late 16th century by Guru Arjan Dev Ji; it was not on Vaisakhi 1699.
Option (d) The Quran was revealed — Incorrect: The Quran was revealed to Prophet Muhammad over 23 years beginning in 610 CE; this has no connection to Vaisakhi 1699.

Correct Answer: Less — Option (b)
Pressure is defined as Force per unit Area: P = F/A. When a person stands on sand, their body weight (force) is distributed over a smaller area (the area of their feet). When the same person lies down on sand, the same body weight is distributed over a much larger area (the entire surface area of the body in contact with sand). Since force remains constant (body weight) but area increases significantly, the pressure (P = F/A) decreases. This is the same principle behind why snowshoes help people walk on snow — larger surface area reduces pressure and prevents sinking.
Option (a) Greater — Incorrect: The pressure decreases when lying down because the same force is distributed over a larger area.
Option (c) Uniform — Incorrect: While lying down distributes pressure more evenly, the net pressure per unit area is less, not the same as when standing.
Option (d) Zero — Incorrect: Pressure cannot be zero as long as the person's weight (force) acts on the sand; lying down reduces pressure but does not eliminate it.

Correct Answer: High GDP growth without proportional employment expansion — Option (b)
The 1991 economic reforms (New Economic Policy — LPG: Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ) are sometimes associated with 'jobless growth' because: India's GDP grew significantly (high economic growth rates of 6–8% annually in the 1990s and 2000s), but employment did not expand proportionately. The reforms favoured capital-intensive industries and the services sector (IT, finance) which are not major employers relative to their economic output. Manufacturing (which generates more jobs) grew but did not absorb the large labour force. The organised sector employment stagnated while the informal sector grew. This pattern of economic growth without commensurate job creation is termed 'jobless growth'.
Option (a) Increasing share of employment in agriculture — Incorrect: The 1991 reforms actually led to a decline in agriculture's share of employment over time as people moved to other sectors; an increase in agricultural employment would not cause 'jobless growth'.
Option (c) Rapid decline in educated unemployment — Incorrect: If educated unemployment had declined rapidly, it would suggest MORE jobs were created, contradicting the 'jobless growth' concept.
Option (d) Rural sectors absorbed more labour — Incorrect: If rural sectors had absorbed more labour , it would indicate employment generation, not 'jobless growth'. The concern was that growth occurred without sufficient job creation.

Correct Answer: Promote small-scale modernisation and technological inclusion — Option (a)
The New Industrial Policy of 1980 (under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi) had the primary objective of promoting small-scale modernisation and technological inclusion. Key features included: encouraging modernisation and upgradation of technology in small-scale industries; promoting technological self-reliance; removing unnecessary bureaucratic controls ( licence -permit raj) to improve industrial efficiency; promoting the growth of ancillary industries; encouraging cost reduction and higher productivity; and promoting cottage and small-scale industries. It also gave thrust to the concept of 'economic federalism' by distributing industrial growth across regions and promoting backward area development.
Option (b) Close private industries — Incorrect: The 1980 Industrial Policy did not aim to close private industries; it encouraged modernisation and efficiency.
Option (c) Maintain strict control on the public sector — Incorrect: While the government maintained a role in public sector enterprises, the 1980 policy's primary focus was on modernisation and technology adoption, not stricter controls.
Option (d) Nationalise major industries — Incorrect: Major nationalisations (like banks in 1969, coal in 1973) had already occurred; the 1980 policy focused on modernisation and technology, not further nationalisation .

Correct Answer: Fixing prices of all goods — Option (a)
In a mixed economy, the government does NOT fix prices of ALL goods — that would be characteristic of a centrally planned (command) economy. In a mixed economy, prices of most goods and services are determined by market forces (supply and demand). The government's actual functions in a mixed economy include: Regulation of markets (to prevent monopolies, ensure competition, and protect consumers); Provision of public goods (like national defence , street lighting — goods that markets fail to provide adequately); Redistribution of income (through taxes, subsidies, and welfare programmes to reduce inequality). The government may control prices of essential commodities selectively, but fixing ALL prices is not a mixed economy function.
Option (b) Regulation of markets — Incorrect as the answer: Market regulation IS a government function in mixed economies (via competition laws, financial regulations, etc.).
Option (c) Provision of public goods — Incorrect as the answer: Providing public goods ( defence , public health, infrastructure) IS a core government function in mixed economies.
Option (d) Redistribution of income — Incorrect as the answer: Income redistribution through progressive taxation, subsidies, and social welfare schemes IS a government function in mixed economies.

Correct Answer: South Asia, Central Asia and Middle East — Option (b)
Chabahar Port, located in the Sistan-Baluchestan province of Iran on the Gulf of Oman, is strategically positioned at the crossroads of South Asia, Central Asia, and the Middle East. This strategic location makes it vital for: India to access Afghanistan and Central Asian countries (bypassing Pakistan); Iran to serve as a transit hub connecting these three regions; Afghanistan and Central Asian landlocked nations to access the Indian Ocean through Iran. India has invested significantly in developing Chabahar Port as part of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) to connect with Central Asia and Russia, reducing dependence on trade routes through Pakistan.
Option (a) East Asia, South Asia and Africa — Incorrect: Chabahar is not at the crossroads of East Asia and Africa; it connects South Asia, Central Asia, and the Middle East.
Option (c) Europe, Central Asia and East Asia — Incorrect: While Chabahar is part of trade routes connecting to Europe (via Iran), it is specifically at the crossroads of South Asia, Central Asia, and the Middle East.
Option (d) South America, Africa and South Asia — Incorrect: Chabahar Port's strategic significance relates to South Asia, Central Asia, and the Middle East — not South America or Africa.

Correct Answer: Choliya — Option (c)
Choliya (also spelled Chholia or Chholiya ) is a traditional folk dance of Uttarakhand, particularly associated with the Kumaon region. It is a martial dance performed by men during wedding processions — the dancers carry swords and shields and perform to the beat of traditional drums ( dhol , damau ). The dance symbolises the valour and martial spirit of the Kumaoni people. Originally, warriors would perform this dance to celebrate a bride being won after battle. Today, it is an integral part of Kumaoni wedding celebrations and is also performed at cultural events.
Option (a) Kolkali — Incorrect: Kolkali (or Kolattam ) is a traditional folk dance of Tamil Nadu and Kerala, performed with small sticks; it is not a dance of Uttarakhand.
Option (b) Savlakin — Incorrect: Savlakin is not the traditional folk dance of Uttarakhand; Choliya is the well-known folk dance of the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.
Option (d) Sambalpuri — Incorrect: Sambalpuri is a traditional folk dance of Odisha (associated with the Sambalpur region); it is not a dance of Uttarakhand.

Correct Answer: Chennai — Option (a)
In 2025, Indian Railways successfully conducted the trial run of the country's first hydrogen-powered coach (train) in Chennai. This was a significant milestone in India's efforts to decarbonise the railway sector and transition to clean energy. The hydrogen fuel cell technology generates electricity through an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen, emitting only water vapour as a byproduct — making it a zero-emission propulsion technology. Indian Railways, being one of the world's largest rail networks and a major consumer of diesel fuel, is exploring hydrogen and electric propulsion as part of its target to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2030.
Option (b) Raebareli — Incorrect: Raebareli (in Uttar Pradesh) has a Railway Coach Factory (Modern Coach Factory), but the first hydrogen-powered coach trial was conducted in Chennai.
Option (c) Kapurthala — Incorrect: Kapurthala (Punjab) has the Rail Coach Factory (RCF), a major coach manufacturing facility, but the hydrogen-powered coach trial was in Chennai.
Option (d) Kolkata — Incorrect: The first hydrogen-powered coach trial run by Indian Railways was conducted in Chennai, not Kolkata.

Correct Answer: 2024 — Option (b)
Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB Women) won the Women's Premier League (WPL) cricket title in 2024 — in the second season of the tournament. The WPL is a women's Twenty20 cricket league established by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). In the WPL 2024 final, RCB defeated Delhi Capitals to claim their first WPL title. The WPL was launched in 2023 with five franchises: Mumbai Indians, Delhi Capitals, Royal Challengers Bengaluru, UP Warriorz , and Gujarat Giants. Mumbai Indians won the inaugural WPL title in 2023.
Option (a) 2023 — Incorrect: Mumbai Indians won the inaugural WPL title in 2023; RCB won it in 2024.
Option (c) 2022 — Incorrect: The Women's Premier League (WPL) did not exist in 2022; it was launched in 2023.
Option (d) 2021 — Incorrect: The WPL was launched in 2023; there was no WPL in 2021. RCB won the WPL title in 2024.

Correct Answer: Doha — Option (a)
The 21st Asian Games will be organised in Doha, Qatar in 2030. The Asian Games (Asiad) are held every four years. Recent editions: 19th Asian Games — Hangzhou, China (2023); 20th Asian Games — Aichi-Nagoya, Japan (2026); 21st Asian Games — Doha, Qatar (2030). Doha has previously hosted major international sporting events including the 2006 Asian Games (15th), 2022 FIFA World Cup, and various World Athletics Championships. Qatar winning the hosting rights for the 2030 Asiad marks the return of the Asian Games to the Gulf region.
Option (b) Beijing — Incorrect: Beijing hosted the 2008 Summer Olympics and 2022 Winter Olympics; the 21st Asian Games are scheduled for Doha, Qatar in 2030.
Option (c) Tokyo — Incorrect: Tokyo hosted the 2020 Summer Olympics (held in 2021) and 1964 Olympics; the 21st Asian Games will be in Doha in 2030.
Option (d) Dhaka — Incorrect: Dhaka (Bangladesh) has not been selected to host the 21st Asian Games; Doha, Qatar will host the 2030 Asian Games.

Correct Answer: Gymnastics — Option (a)
Pommel Horse and Parallel Bars are both apparatus used in Artistic Gymnastics. Pommel Horse is a men's artistic gymnastics apparatus — a horse-shaped apparatus with two handles (pommels) on which gymnasts perform circular swinging movements using only their hands, requiring exceptional upper body strength, balance, and coordination. Parallel Bars is another men's gymnastics apparatus — two horizontal bars set parallel to each other and at the same height, on which gymnasts perform swings, balances, and releases. Other gymnastic apparatus include the Floor Exercise, Vault, Horizontal Bar (High Bar), Still Rings, Balance Beam (women), and Uneven Bars (women).
Option (b) Cricket — Incorrect: Cricket terms include bat, pitch, crease, wicket, LBW, maiden over, etc. — Pommel Horse and Parallel Bars have no relation to cricket.
Option (c) Badminton — Incorrect: Badminton terms include shuttlecock, net, smash, rally, deuce, etc. — Pommel Horse and Parallel Bars are gymnastics equipment, not badminton terms.
Option (d) Kho-Kho — Incorrect: Kho-Kho is an Indian tag sport with terms like chaser, runner, post, ring, pole, etc. — Pommel Horse and Parallel Bars are gymnastics apparatus.

Correct Answer: UNESCO — Option (a)
The Global Education Monitoring (GEM) Report is published annually by UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization). The GEM Report is an editorially independent annual report hosted and published by UNESCO since 2002. It monitors progress towards Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) — Quality Education — and its 10 targets, as well as education-related targets in other SDGs. The report tracks the inclusion, equity, and quality of education globally, analysing data from countries worldwide. Each annual report focuses on a specific theme (e.g., technology in education, inclusivity, etc.).
Option (b) UNDP — Incorrect: UNDP (United Nations Development Programme ) publishes the Human Development Report (HDR) and Human Development Index (HDI); it does not publish the Global Education Monitoring Report.
Option (c) World Bank — Incorrect: The World Bank publishes various education-related reports and the World Development Report, but not the Global Education Monitoring Report.
Option (d) WIPO — Incorrect: WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organization) deals with intellectual property rights; it has no role in publishing the Global Education Monitoring Report.

Correct Answer: Cotton cultivation in black soil basins — Option (b)
Black soil (also called Regur soil or Deccan Trap soil) has the strongest agro -ecological relationship with cotton cultivation. Black soil is also commonly known as 'cotton soil' because it is ideally suited for growing cotton due to: high water retention capacity (retains moisture during dry periods); rich in calcium carbonate, iron, magnesium, and potassium; self-ploughing property (develops deep cracks when dry, sealing moisture within); ability to swell when wet and shrink when dry — naturally aerating the soil. Cotton-growing regions of India (Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana) correspond closely with the Deccan Trap black soil region. Black soil is the reason the Deccan plateau region became India's 'Cotton Belt'.
Option (a) Jute cultivation in alluvial flood plains — Incorrect: Jute has its strongest relationship with alluvial deltaic soil (especially Gangetic delta in West Bengal and Bangladesh), not black soil.
Option (c) Tea cultivation in acidic hill soils — Incorrect: Tea has its strongest relationship with well-drained, slightly acidic, loamy hill soils (like in Assam, Darjeeling, Nilgiris) — not black soil.
Option (d) Rice cultivation in deltaic alluvium — Incorrect: Rice grows best in deltaic alluvial soils with high water availability (river deltas of Eastern India) — not in black soil regions.

Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh — Option (b)
According to Census 2011, Uttar Pradesh (UP) has the maximum rural population in India in absolute numbers. UP's rural population was approximately 15.51 crore (155.1 million) — the highest among all Indian states. While Bihar has the highest percentage of rural population (88.7%), Uttar Pradesh (with a much larger total population of 19.98 crore) has the highest absolute number of rural inhabitants. UP's total population (19.98 crore) makes it the most populous state in India, and with approximately 77.7% of its population living in rural areas, it has the largest absolute rural population.
Option (a) Bihar — Incorrect: Bihar has the highest PROPORTION of rural population (~88.7%), but its absolute rural population is less than Uttar Pradesh's because Bihar's total population is smaller.
Option (c) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Maharashtra, though one of the most urbanized states, has a significant rural population, but it is far less than Uttar Pradesh's rural population in absolute terms.
Option (d) West Bengal — Incorrect: West Bengal's rural population, while significant, is smaller in absolute numbers than Uttar Pradesh's rural population as per Census 2011.

Correct Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs — Option (c)
The ' Nyay Shruti' app was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in August 2024. The app was developed to assist in the implementation of the new criminal laws — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) — which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and Indian Evidence Act respectively in July 2024. ' Nyay Shruti' (meaning 'Voice of Justice') enables citizens to listen to provisions of the new criminal laws in audio format, making legal knowledge more accessible to the general public in multiple Indian languages.
Option (a) Ministry of Law and Justice — Incorrect: While the Ministry of Law and Justice is responsible for legal matters, the Nyay Shruti app was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Option (b) Ministry of Defence — Incorrect: The Ministry of Defence handles defence and security matters; it was not responsible for launching the Nyay Shruti app.
Option (d) Ministry of Communications — Incorrect: The Ministry of Communications deals with postal, telecom, and IT matters; the Nyay Shruti app was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Correct Answer: Supreme Court of India — Option (a)
In November 2024, the Supreme Court of India ruled that a sexual harassment/sexual assault case cannot be closed or quashed merely because the rival parties (victim and accused) have reached a settlement or compromise between themselves. The Supreme Court held that such crimes are not merely personal offences between two parties — they have a grave and serious impact on society as a whole. Therefore, courts should not allow these cases to be disposed of purely on the basis of a private settlement. The ruling reinforced the principle that crimes against women affecting societal values and public interest cannot be treated as compoundable (settleable) offences.
Option (b) Patna High Court — Incorrect: This significant ruling on sexual harassment case settlements came from the Supreme Court of India, not the Patna High Court.
Option (c) Madras High Court — Incorrect: This ruling was made by the Supreme Court of India in November 2024, not the Madras High Court.
Option (d) Delhi Family Court — Incorrect: Family Courts deal with matrimonial and family matters at a lower judicial level; this landmark ruling was made by the Supreme Court of India.

Correct Answer: 4 — Option (b)
The Urban Governance Index (UGI) 2024 evaluated Indian states across 4 categories (pillars). The UGI is a comprehensive assessment tool developed to measure the quality of urban governance in Indian cities and states. The four categories of evaluation typically cover: (1) Constitution & Laws — enabling legal framework for urban governance; (2) Structures — institutional framework and elected representatives; (3) Functions — devolution of functions to urban local bodies; (4) Finances — resource generation and financial management of urban local bodies. The index helps assess how well states have implemented the 74th Constitutional Amendment, which mandates decentralisation of power to urban local bodies.
Option (a) 2 — Incorrect: The Urban Governance Index 2024 used 4 categories for evaluation, not 2.
Option (c) 6 — Incorrect: The UGI 2024 evaluated Indian states across 4 categories, not 6.
Option (d) 7 — Incorrect: The UGI 2024 used 4 categories for evaluating Indian states, not 7.

Correct Answer: Pulakeshin II — Option (b)
Pulakeshin II (also spelled Pulakeshi II, reigned c. 610–642 CE) was the most powerful king of the Badami Chalukya dynasty of the Deccan. He famously defeated Emperor Harshavardhana of Kanauj on the banks of the Narmada River (around 618–619 CE), halting Harsha's southward expansion into the Deccan. This victory made Pulakeshin II one of the few rulers to successfully resist Harsha's military campaigns. Pulakeshin II's achievements are recorded in the Aihole Prasasti (inscription), composed by court poet Ravikirti. He also repelled the Arab armies from Sindh and received an embassy from the Persian king Khosrow II.
Option (a) Rajendra I — Incorrect: Rajendra I (Rajendra Chola) was a Chola king (11th century CE) who expanded the Chola empire; he was not a Chalukya ruler and did not defeat Harshavardhana.
Option (c) Krishna III — Incorrect: Krishna III was a Rashtrakuta king (10th century CE); Harshavardhana lived in the 7th century. The defeat of Harsha on the Narmada was by Pulakeshin II ( Chalukya ).
Option (d) Rajasingh — Incorrect: Rajasingh is not the recognized Chalukya ruler who defeated Harshavardhana. That achievement belongs to Pulakeshin II of the Badami Chalukyas .

Correct Answer: 1848 — Option (d)
Satara was the first princely state to be annexed under Lord Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse in 1848. The Doctrine of Lapse was a controversial annexation policy whereby if a ruler of a princely state died without a natural male heir, the state would 'lapse' to the British East India Company — adopted heirs were not recognized for succession purposes. Satara, located in present-day Maharashtra, had been a Maratha kingdom. When Raja Appa Sahib of Satara died without a natural heir in 1848, Dalhousie refused to recognise his adopted son and annexed Satara. This set the precedent for future annexations of Jhansi (1854), Nagpur (1854), and others, contributing to the discontent that fuelled the 1857 Revolt.
Option (a) 1842 — Incorrect: 1842 is before Lord Dalhousie became Governor-General of India (1848); the Doctrine of Lapse was Dalhousie's policy.
Option (b) 1844 — Incorrect: Lord Dalhousie arrived as Governor-General in 1848; the annexation of Satara (the first under the Doctrine of Lapse) was in 1848.
Option (c) 1846 — Incorrect: Satara was annexed in 1848, not 1846. The year 1848 marked the beginning of Lord Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse with the annexation of Satara.